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Temple A&P > Lecture: Blood > Flashcards

Lecture: Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of blood?

A

1) transportation
2) regulation
3) absortion

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2
Q

What are the 3 things that blood transports?

A

1) nutrients
2) wastes
3) heat

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3
Q

What are the 3 protective functions of blood?

A

1) inflammation (limits spread of infection)
2) pathogens (antibodies destroy these)
3) clotting (limits blood loss)

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4
Q

What are the 2 regulatory functions of blood?

A

1) absorption

2) buffering

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5
Q

What are the 2 most basic components of blood?

A

1) plasma

2) formed elements

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6
Q

What are the components of blood plasma?

A

90% water
8% proteins
2% other solutes
-enzymes, hormones, wastes, gases

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7
Q

Define: serum.

A

plasma without clotting protein fibrinogen

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8
Q

Name and describe 3 important plasma proteins.

A 
Albumins (60%)
-transport carriers
-blood buffers
-contributes to viscosity and osmolarity
Globulins (36%)
-3 categories: 
--alpha and beta: transport proteins
--gamma: function as antibodies
Fibrinogen (4%)
-clotting protein
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9
Q

Besides water and proteins, what are 3 other important components of blood?

A

1) Electrolytes
2) Nutrients
3) Gases

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10
Q

What are the 7 electrolytes present in blood plasma?

A

sodium ions (90%)
-contribute to plasma osmotic pressure
-major influence on blood volume and pressure
K, Ca, Mg, Cl, Phosphate, Sulfate

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11
Q

What are the 6 nutrients present in blood?

A

1) simple CHOs
2) amino acids
3) fatty acids
4) lactic acid
5) urea
6) uric acid

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12
Q

What are the 3 gases present in blood?

A

1) oxygen
2) carbon dioxide
3) nitrogen

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13
Q

What contributes to viscosity in whole blood? In plasma?

A

in whole blood, RBCs

in plasma, proteins

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14
Q

Define: osmolarity. What contributes to osmolarity?

A

total molarity of dissolved particles that cannot pass through the blood vessel wall
Na ions, protein, erythrocytes

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15
Q

Define: colloid osmotic pressure (COP).

A

the contribution of protein to blood osmotic pressure

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16
Q

Define: hemopoiesis

A

production of blood (all formed elements)

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17
Q

Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place, and what does it produce?

A

red bone marrow;

all formed elements

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18
Q

Where does lymphoid hemopoiesis take place, and what does it produce?

A

thymus, tonsils, lymph nodes, spleen;

lymphocytes produced

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19
Q

Outline the 4 cellular phases of hemopoiesis.

A

1) pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)
2) colony-forming units; now a committed cell with a surface receptors on membrane
3) precursor cells
4) mature cells

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20
Q

What are the 3 formed elements in blood? Comment on their longevity.

A

Erythrocytes (RBCs)
Leukocytes (WBCs)
Platelets
most are short lived, so they are frequently renewed/replaced

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21
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes? Comment on their shape, nuclei, mitochondria, and plasma membranes.

A

function: carry O2 and CO2
shape: biconcave disk, provides larger SA
no nucleus/DNA
no mitochondria: generate ATP through anaerobic metabolism
cytoplasm: 33% hemoglobin, also contains carbonic anhydrase (CAH)
plasma membrane: outer proteins determine blood type;
inner proteins provide durability and resilience

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22
Q

Describe the structure of hemoglobin.

A

4 globins, or polypeptide chains

  • 2 alpha chains (141 AA long each)
  • 2 beta chains (146 AA long each)

each chain is conjugated to a heme

  • hemes bind O2 to Fe
  • 1 heme = 1 oxygen, but 1 hemoglobin has 4 hemes
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23
Q

Define: hematocrit.

A

% of whole blood volume composed of RBCs

on avg., males have higher hematocrit than females

24
Q

Describe the 5 cellular phases of erythropoiesis.

A

1) hemopoietic stem cell (HSC)
2) erythrocyte colony-forming unit (ECFU)
- has receptors for erythropoietin
3) erythroblast
- synthesizes hemoglobin and discards nucleus
4) reticulocyte
- leaves bone marrow, enters blood
- lacks nucelus, has a network of polyribosomes
5) erythrocyte

25
Q

Name the two cellular phases of erythropoiesis that are considered precursor cells.

A

erythroblast & reticulocyte

26
Q

What are the 2 forms of dietary iron?

A

ferric (Fe3+) ions & ferrous (Fe2+) ions

27
Q

Explain the function of gastroferritin.

A

protein produced by the stomach that binds Fe2+ and transports it to the small intestine, where it is absorbed into the blood

28
Q

Explain the function of transferrin.

A

plasma protein in the blood that binds Fe2+ and transports it to bone marrow, liver, and other tissues

29
Q

Explain the function of ferritin.

A

iron-storage complex located in liver

30
Q

What are 4 other nutrients required for erythropoiesis?

A

1) vitamin B-12
2) folic acid
3) copper
4) vitamin C

31
Q

Explain how erythrocyte homeostasis is maintained. What happens in a state of hypoxemia?

A

negative feedback loop

during hypoxemia, kidneys release erythropoietin (EPO), which stimulates RBC production in red bone marrow

32
Q

What are 3 examples of causes of hypoxemia?

A

1) hemorrhage
2) high altitude
3) exercise

33
Q

Explain hemolysis and all of its outcomes.

A

hemolysis = rupture of RBCs; releases hemoglobin and plasma membranes
PMs digested by macrophages in liver & spleen
Hemoglobin broken down into heme & globin
-heme is broken down into iron and biliverdin>bilirubin>bile>feces
-globin is broken down into free amino acids

34
Q

Define: polycythemia.

A

erythrocyte disorder: excess RBCs

35
Q

Define: anemia.

A

erythrocyte disorder: deficiency of RBCs or hemoglobin

36
Q

Define: sickle cell anemia.

A

erythrocyte disorder: altered hemoglobin structure alters RBC shape and becomes sticky

37
Q

Comment on the prevalence, form, and function of leukocytes.

A 
least abundant formed element
form = complete cells with rough ER, ribosomes, & Golgi complex to synthesize proteins and store them in lysosomes which appear as identifying cytoplasmic granules
function = defend against pathogens via phagocytosis and immune response
38
Q

Name the 2 general categories of leukocytes and the subtypes within each.

A 
Granulocytes
-Neutrophils
-Eosinophils
-Basophils
Agranulocytes
-Lymphocytes
-Monocytes
39
Q

Describe neutrophils.

A

most abundant leukocyte;

fight bacterial infections via immediate phagocytosis and production of antimicrobial chemicals such as defensins

40
Q

Describe eosinophils.

A

release anti-histamines;

destroy parasitic worms

41
Q

Describe basophils.

A

secrete histamine & heparin;

histamine: vasodilator, speeds blood flow to injured tissues, makes blood flow more permeable
heparin: anticoagulant, promotes mobility of WBCs

42
Q

Describe lymphocytes.

A

2nd most abundant leukocyte;
role in adaptive immunity: specificity and memory;
secrete antibodies, coordinate immune cells

43
Q

Describe monocytes.

A 
differentiate into macrophages to engage in phagocytosis;
# increases during infection/inflammation
great capacity
44
Q

Outline the 4 cellular phases of leukopoiesis.

A

1) hemopoietic stem cell (HSC)
2) colony-forming units (CFUs)
- have receptors for specific colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
3) precursor cells
- myeloblasts
- monoblasts
- lymphoblasts
4) mature cells

45
Q

Name each leukocyte precursor cell, which leukocyte(s) it forms, and where it is stored.

A

myeloblasts differentiate into all 3 types of granulocytes and are stored in red bone marrow;
monoblasts differentiate into monocytes and are stored in red bone marrow
lymphoblasts differentiate into lymphocytes; development begins in red bone marrow but some mature in the thymus

46
Q

Describe the form of platelets.

A 
not cells but fragments of marrow cells called megakaryocytes;
complex internal structure:
-lysosomes, mitochondria, microtubules
-granules containing platelet secretions
-open canalicular system
-no nucleus
47
Q

Describe the function of platelets.

A 
secrete vasoconstrictors
secrete clotting factors
platelet plugs
dissolve blood clots
phagocytize and destroy bacteria
attract neutrophils & monocytes
secrete growth factors
48
Q

Outline the 4 cellular phases of thrombopoiesis.

A

1) hemopoietic stem cell (HSC)
2) megakaryoblast
- has receptors for thrombopoietin
3) megakaryocyte
- numerous mitotic divisions with cytokinesis
4) platelets
- form when cytoplasm breaks
- 25-40% stored in spleen, rest circulate in blood

49
Q

Define hemostasis and describe its 3 mechanisms.

A

cessation of bleeding; hemostatic response is quick, localized, and carefully controlled
1) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

50
Q

Explain vascular spasm. What 3 things trigger it?

A

immediate contraction to constrict vessel (reduces blood flow)

1) direct injury to vascular smooth muscle
2) chemicals from platelets and endothelial cells
3) stimulation of local pain receptors

51
Q

Explain the process of platelet plug formation.

A

broken vessel: damaged collagen fibers exposed;
platelet adhesion occurs via pseudopods;
degranulation of platelets
-release 5-HT, ADP, and thromboxane A2
thromboxane A2 promotes platelet aggregation, degranulation, and vasoconstriction;
positive feedback cycle

52
Q

Describe coagulation.

A

most effective defense against bleeding;
complex: over 30 chemical rxns;
converts fibrinogen to fibrin;
2 pathyways:
-extrinsic (clotting factors external to blood); faster
-intrinsic (clotting factors in blood itself); slower

53
Q

Describe clotting factors.

A

a.k.a. procoagulants or coagulation factors b/c they enhance clotting;
plasma proteins made by liver, numbered I to XIII (order of discovery), circulate in inactive form

54
Q

Explain the initiation of coagulation via both the extrinsic and intrinsic mechanism.

A

Extrinsic: thromplastin released from vessels or tissues
Intrinsic: Factor XII released from platelets causes a cascade of events
*both lead to activation of Factor X

55
Q

Explain the completion of coagulation.

A

Activated Factor X activates prothombin;
prothrombin converted to thrombin;
thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

56
Q

Explain the process of clot retraction.

A

spinous pseudopods of platelets adhere to fibrin and contract, compacting the blood clot

Temple A&P (15 decks)

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