Lecture 9 - Higher Cortical Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the role of the cerebral cortex in the brain.

A

The cerebral cortex acts as the ‘executive suite’ of the brain, responsible for conscious awareness, sensory perception, voluntary motor initiation, communication, memory storage, and understanding.

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2
Q

Explain the composition of the cerebral cortex.

A

The cerebral cortex is a thin layer (2–4 mm) of gray matter composed of neuron cell bodies, dendrites, glial cells, and blood vessels, but it does not contain axons.

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3
Q

How does the cerebral cortex contribute to brain mass?

A

The cerebral cortex constitutes about 40% of the total brain mass.

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4
Q

Define the concept of lateralization in the cerebral cortex.

A

Lateralization refers to the specialization of cortical function that can occur in only one hemisphere of the brain.

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5
Q

What are the three main types of areas found in the cerebral cortex?

A

The three main types of areas in the cerebral cortex are motor areas, sensory areas, and association areas.

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6
Q

Describe the function of the primary motor cortex.

A

The primary motor cortex, located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe, controls voluntary movement.

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7
Q

Explain the significance of pyramidal cells in the primary motor cortex.

A

Pyramidal cells are large neurons that enable conscious control of precise, skilled, skeletal muscle movements.

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8
Q

What is somatotopy in relation to the primary motor cortex?

A

Somatotopy is the mapping of all muscles of the body to specific areas on the primary motor cortex.

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9
Q

Describe the function of the primary somatosensory cortex.

A

The primary somatosensory cortex, located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe, is responsible for the conscious awareness of sensation and receives general sensory information from the skin and proprioceptors.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the somatosensory association cortex?

A

The somatosensory association cortex integrates sensory input from the primary somatosensory cortex to understand the size, texture, and relationship of parts of objects being felt.

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11
Q

Explain the role of the primary visual cortex.

A

The primary visual cortex, located at the extreme posterior tip of the occipital lobe, receives visual information from the retinas.

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12
Q

How does the visual association area function?

A

The visual association area surrounds the primary visual cortex and uses past visual experiences to interpret visual stimuli such as color, form, or movement.

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13
Q

Describe the location and function of the primary auditory cortex.

A

The primary auditory cortex is located on the superior margin of the temporal lobes and interprets information from the inner ear regarding pitch, loudness, and location.

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14
Q

What is the function of the auditory association area?

A

The auditory association area, located posterior to the primary auditory cortex, stores memories of sounds and allows for the perception of sound stimuli.

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15
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16
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17
Q

Explain the role of the vestibular cortex.

A

The vestibular cortex, located in the posterior part of the insula and adjacent parietal cortex, is responsible for conscious awareness of balance and the position of the head in space.

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18
Q

What is the function of the gustatory cortex?

A

The gustatory cortex, located in the medial aspect of the temporal lobes, is involved in the perception of taste.

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19
Q

Describe the role of the olfactory cortex.

A

The olfactory cortex is responsible for conscious awareness of odor and gives meaning to information received, tying it to previous experiences and deciding on actions.

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20
Q

What are the three parts of the association areas in the cerebral cortex?

A

The association areas of the cerebral cortex are broadly divided into the anterior association area, posterior association area, and limbic association area.

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21
Q

Explain the function of the prefrontal cortex.

A

The prefrontal cortex, also known as the anterior association area, is involved with intellect, cognition, recall, and personality, containing working memory needed for abstract ideas and judgment.

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22
Q

Describe the role of the limbic system in memory.

A

The limbic system, which includes structures like the cingulate gyrus, parahippocampal gyrus, and hippocampus, provides emotional impact that makes a scene important and helps establish memories.

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23
Q

Explain the significance of Wernicke’s area in language processing.

A

Wernicke’s area is involved in understanding spoken and written words; patients with lesions in this area can speak but produce nonsensical words.

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24
Q

Define the different types of memory and provide examples.

A

Different kinds of memory include declarative (fact) memory (e.g., names, faces), procedural (skills) memory (e.g., playing piano), motor memory (e.g., riding a bike), and emotional memory (e.g., heart pounding when hearing a rattlesnake).

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25
How does short-term memory differ from long-term memory?
Short-term memory (STM) is a temporary holding of information limited to seven or eight pieces, while long-term memory (LTM) has a limitless capacity for storing information.
26
Do brain waves reflect mental functions?
Yes, brain waves are patterns of neuronal electrical activity that reflect the electrical activity of higher mental functions.
27
Explain the process of memory consolidation.
Memory consolidation involves fitting new facts into categories already stored in the cerebral cortex, with the hippocampus and other areas playing a key role.
28
Describe the characteristics of alpha waves.
Alpha waves (8–13 Hz) are regular, rhythmic, low-amplitude, synchronous waves indicating an 'idling' brain.
29
What is the function of Broca’s area?
Broca’s area is involved in speech production; patients with lesions here can understand words but cannot speak.
30
How do emotional states affect memory transfer from short-term to long-term memory?
Emotional states enhance memory transfer, being best when a person is alert, motivated, surprised, or aroused.
31
Define anterograde amnesia and its effects on memory.
Anterograde amnesia is a condition where consolidated memories are not lost, but new inputs cannot be associated with old ones, causing the person to live in the present without recalling recent events.
32
Explain the role of EEG in brain function assessment.
Electroencephalogram (EEG) records electrical activity accompanying brain function, used for diagnosing conditions like epilepsy and sleep disorders.
33
Describe the impact of age and sensory stimuli on brain wave patterns.
Brain wave patterns change with age, sensory stimuli, brain disease, and the chemical state of the body, making each person's brain waves unique.
34
What are the four classes of brain waves based on frequency?
The four classes of brain waves are alpha, beta, theta, and delta waves, categorized by their frequency in Hertz (Hz).
35
How does damage to the hippocampus affect memory?
Damage to the hippocampus or surrounding temporal lobe structures can result in slight memory loss, while bilateral destruction can cause widespread amnesia.
36
Explain the concept of automatic memory.
Automatic memory refers to subconscious information that is stored in long-term memory without conscious effort.
37
Describe the characteristics of delta waves.
Delta waves (4 Hz or less) are high-amplitude waves associated with deep sleep and indicate brain damage in awake adults.
38
What is the relationship between consciousness and higher mental processing?
Consciousness involves perception of sensation, voluntary control of movement, and capabilities associated with higher mental processing such as memory, logic, and judgment.
39
How do electrodes measure brain activity in an EEG?
Electrodes placed on the scalp measure electrical potential differences between various cortical areas to record brain activity.
40
Define retrograde amnesia and its implications.
Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memories formed in the distant past, affecting a person's ability to recall previous experiences.
41
Explain the significance of functional imaging in brain research.
Functional imaging techniques like PET and MRI show that specific motor and sensory functions are located in discrete cortical areas called domains, while higher functions are spread over many areas.
42
Describe the continuum that grades behavior in response to stimuli regarding consciousness.
The continuum includes alertness, drowsiness (lethargy), stupor, and coma.
43
Explain the current suppositions on consciousness.
Consciousness involves simultaneous activity of large cortical areas, is superimposed on other types of neural activities, and is holistic and interconnected.
44
Define fainting or syncope.
Fainting or syncope is a brief loss of consciousness, most often due to inadequate cerebral blood flow.
45
How can low blood pressure or emotional stress lead to fainting?
Low blood pressure or sudden, severe emotional stress can cause inadequate cerebral blood flow, resulting in fainting.
46
Differentiate between coma and deep sleep.
Coma is an unconscious state for an extended period with lowered oxygen consumption, while deep sleep is a different state of consciousness.
47
What is brain death?
Brain death is defined as irreversible coma, raising ethical and legal issues regarding the determination of death.
48
Describe an epileptic seizure.
An epileptic seizure is characterized by a torrent of electrical discharges by groups of brain neurons, preventing other messages from getting through.
49
How common is epilepsy and what are its potential causes?
Epilepsy occurs in 1 of 100 people and can be caused by genetic factors, brain injuries, stroke, infections, or tumors.
50
Explain absence seizures.
Absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal, are mild seizures where the victim's expression goes blank for a few seconds and typically disappear by age 10.
51
What are tonic-clonic seizures?
Tonic-clonic seizures, formerly known as grand mal, are severe seizures lasting a few minutes, causing loss of consciousness, intense convulsions, and potential injury.
52
What is an aura in relation to seizures?
An aura is a sensory hallucination that may precede a seizure.
53
How is epilepsy controlled?
Control of epilepsy includes the use of anticonvulsive drugs and may involve vagus nerve stimulators or deep brain stimulators.
54
Define sleep in terms of consciousness.
Sleep is a state of partial unconsciousness from which a person can be aroused by stimulation.
55
What happens to cortical activity during sleep?
Cortical activity is depressed during sleep, while brain stem activity remains unchanged.
56
Identify the two major types of sleep based on EEG patterns.
The two major types of sleep are non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
57
Describe the stages of non-REM sleep.
During the first 30-45 minutes of sleep, a person passes through the first two stages (N1 and N2) of non-REM sleep before moving into stage 3, known as slow-wave sleep.
58
What physiological changes occur during slow-wave sleep?
During slow-wave sleep, the frequency of brain waves declines, amplitude increases, and EEG, blood pressure, and heart rate decrease.
59
Explain the characteristics of REM sleep.
REM sleep begins about 90 minutes into the sleep cycle and is characterized by temporary paralysis, increased heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure, with most dreaming occurring during this stage.
60
How is sleep regulated in the body?
Sleep is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus and preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus, which control the timing of the sleep cycle.
61
What role do orexins play in sleep regulation?
Orexins are hypothalamic chemicals that help wake the cortex and regulate sleep.
62
Discuss the importance of sleep for memory and brain health.
During sleep, new memories are consolidated, waste products are cleared from the brain, and sleep is presumed to be restorative.
63
What happens when a person is deprived of sleep?
When deprived of sleep, a person will spend more time in REM and slow-wave sleep in the next sleep episode to catch up.
64
Define narcolepsy.
Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by abrupt lapses into sleep from an awake state.
65
What is the likely cause of narcolepsy related to orexins?
In narcolepsy, orexins, which are wake-up chemicals, are likely destroyed by the patient's immune system.
66
Describe orexin replacement as a possible treatment.
Orexin replacement may be considered as a treatment for conditions like insomnia, which is characterized by a chronic inability to obtain the necessary amount or quality of sleep.
67
Explain the causes of insomnia.
Insomnia can be caused by various factors including depression, anxiety, overuse of caffeine, and excessive use of computers or cell phones close to bedtime.
68
How can insomnia be treated?
Insomnia may be treated by blocking the action of orexin, a neuropeptide involved in regulating wakefulness.
69
Define concussion in the context of traumatic brain injuries.
A concussion is a type of traumatic brain injury that results in a temporary alteration in brain function.
70
What is a contusion?
A contusion is a traumatic brain injury that results in permanent damage to the brain.
71
Explain the risks associated with subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Subdural or subarachnoid hemorrhage can create pressure from blood that may force the brain stem through the foramen magnum, potentially resulting in death.
72
Describe cerebral edema and its association with head injuries
Cerebral edema refers to the swelling of the brain that is associated with traumatic head injuries.
73
What are cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs) commonly known as?
Cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs) are commonly known as strokes.
74
Define ischemia and its effects on brain tissue.
Ischemia is a condition where tissue is deprived of blood supply, leading to the death of brain tissue.
75
How can ischemia occur in the brain?
Ischemia can occur due to the blockage of a cerebral artery by a blood clot.
76
What are the potential outcomes of ischemia in the brain?
Ischemia can result in hemiplegia (paralysis on one side) or sensory and speech deficits.
77
Explain transient ischemic attacks (TIAs).
Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are temporary episodes of reversible cerebral ischemia.
78
Describe Alzheimer's disease and its symptoms.
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive degenerative brain disease that results in dementia, characterized by memory loss, shortened attention span, disorientation, language loss, irritability, moodiness, and confusion.
79
What causes Alzheimer's disease at the cellular level?
Alzheimer's disease is caused by the misfolding of proteins that clump together, forming plaques of beta-amyloid peptides and neurofibrillary tangles that interfere with neuron function.
80
How does Alzheimer's disease affect brain structure?
As brain cells die in Alzheimer's disease, brain functions are lost, and the brain shrinks.
81
What treatments are available for Alzheimer's disease?
Treatment for Alzheimer's disease includes drugs that inhibit the breakdown of acetylcholine, block toxic effects of excess glutamate, or stimulate the destruction of beta-amyloid.
82
Describe Parkinson's disease and its primary cause.
Parkinson's disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to overactivity in the basal nuclei and resulting in tremors at rest.
83
What are some theories regarding the cause of Parkinson's disease?
Theories regarding the cause of Parkinson's disease include mitochondrial abnormalities and protein degradation pathways.
84
What treatments are available for Parkinson's disease?
Treatment for Parkinson's disease includes L-dopa (a dopamine precursor), deep brain stimulation with electrodes, and the implantation of stem cells.
85
Define Huntington's disease and its genetic nature.
Huntington's disease is a fatal hereditary disorder caused by the accumulation of the protein huntingtin in brain cells.
86
What are the initial symptoms of Huntington's disease?
Initial symptoms of Huntington's disease include wild, 'flapping' movements known as chorea.
87
How does Huntington's disease progress over time?
Huntington's disease is marked by mental deterioration and is usually fatal within 15 years of onset.
88
What treatments are available for Huntington's disease?
Treatment for Huntington's disease includes drugs that block the effects of dopamine.
89
How can a knee-jerk reflex test indicate neurological issues?
An abnormal response in a knee-jerk reflex test may indicate conditions such as intracranial hemorrhage, multiple sclerosis, or hydrocephalus.
90
What imaging techniques are used to identify brain issues?
CT and MRI scanning techniques are used for quick identification of tumors, intracranial lesions, plaques, or areas of infarct (dead brain tissue).
91
Explain the purpose of PET scans in brain analysis.
PET scans are used to localize brain lesions that generate seizures, utilizing radioactive tracer dyes to visualize specific areas.