lecture 8: pediatric ortho problem solving Flashcards

1
Q

PTG: what does it stand for

A

Patient first (needs of pt, family)
Task of orthosis (ambulation vs stretch)
Goal for the device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What else does PTG stand for?

A

Prioritize the goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When evaluating a patient,
what should you take into account?

A

age
Dx
Functional level/ability
family needs

previous history also included in one slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 4 ROM considerations with the LE when evaluating the patient

A
  1. DF with knee flexed or extended
  2. difference between R1, R2
  3. midfoot
  4. knee and hip contractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What other physical things do you need to take into account with patient evaluation regarding their deformity?

A
  1. correct or accommodate
  2. fixed or flexible
  3. force to correct
  4. LLD
  5. motor control (spasticity, dystonia or ataxia?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You take ROM of your patient. What else needed?

A
  1. strength MMT
  2. mm length issues
  3. rotational profile issues
  4. sensation/pain
  5. vascular issues/girth
  6. cognition
  7. environment/fam/social situation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Besides orthoses, what are other treatment plan considerations

A
  • botox
  • serial casting
  • surgery (ortho: mm length or transfer, bony intervention or neuro: dorsal rhizotomy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Your patient is a 8 year old boy with spastic, diplegic CP functioning at GMFCS 3. Trouble walking, wears bilateral solid AFOs.
bright red spot over right heel, left navicular.
what do you want to do?

A

Probably it is too tight, need new bilateral solid AFOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are 5 tasks of an ambulatory AFO?

A
  1. stability in stance
  2. foot clearance in swing
  3. preposition foot for IC
  4. adequate step length
  5. energy conservation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are 3 tasks of a non ambulatory AFO?

A
  1. contracture management
  2. wound healing, protection, prevention
  3. positioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are examples of orthotic goals

A
  1. correct joint alignment
  2. assist walking, standing
  3. improve upright stability
  4. prevent or reduce contractures

non-ambulatory AFO: prolonged LLLD (low load stretch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Therapeutic benefit of the
force application may be to do what 4 things:

A
  1. resist motion
  2. assist motion
  3. transfer force
  4. protect a body part
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Patient has quad paralysis:
The KAFO w/ mechanical lock
stabilizes the knee by preventing knee flexion at
IC and limiting knee flexion during LR

what example of force application is this?

A

resist motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pavlick Harness for DHD
hip orthosis for Legg-Calve-Perthes
Cranial Shaping orthosis
wrist-hand orthosis to minimize ulnar deviation

These are examples of orthoses to -____

A

improve alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Orthoses that can provide mechanical assistance of
weak or paralyzed muscles to enable the wearer to
perform a specific function.
These have a force application of ____

A

assist motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peroneal nerve injury- prevent foot drop or toe drag
Gastroc stretch – nighttime orthoses
What force application do these orthoses do?

A

assist motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a women with metatarsalgia will be more comfortable with a FO that includes a pad underneath
the metatarsal shafts. The pad does what from the
painful metatarsal heads to the less sensitive shafts.

A

transfers force

load transfer is often used in FOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

helmet for s/p craniotomy
patient with insensitive/unstable ankle due to neuropathy
burn patient needing shield from secondary trauma to newly grafted skin

What do these orthoses do?

A

protect body parts, preventing deformity or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can we improve uncomfy AFOs at nighttime?

A

Let them wear one at night at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 2 ways of improving comfort of an orthosis design?

A
  1. maximize area to min pressure
  2. longer longitudinal segment for less pressure exerted at end (sufficient leverage through which longitudinal segments apply force)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The most common basic pressure system for most orthoses is a

A

3 point system
*principle force acting in 1 direction
*2 counterforces acting in opposite direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The parapodium (THKAFO) exerts a __ system

A

4 point pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

▪elastic sleeve for burn pt.
▪Sure Step SMO
▪Sensory Dynamic Pressure Garment
▪Theratogs – Beverly Cusick
These exert a ____ system

A

circumferential or total contact pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Winters Gait Classification
Group 1

A
  • foot drop during swing
  • flat foot/forefoot contact in IC
  • excessive hip and knee flexion during swing
  • adequate DF during stance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Winters Gait Classification
Group 2

A

more constant PF throughout gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Winters Gait Classification
Group 3

A

progressing to knee hyperextension & increased lumbar
lordosis

27
Q

Winters Gait Classification
Group 4

A

most severe pattern, characterized by limited hip movement
and significantly increased lumbar lordosis

28
Q

Winters Group 0 was discussed in Case 4: hemipolymicrogyria for ____ children

A

higher functioning children

29
Q

case study 4 highlights that not addressing atypical mvmt patterns/compensations leads to…

A
  1. increased energy expenditure
  2. MSK deformities
  3. need for Sx intervention
30
Q

common compensations in gait of children with hemiplegia include….

A
  1. hemi-pelvis retraction
  2. increased push-off on unaffected side
  3. early firing of fib longus
31
Q

What are the 4 PT and orthotic goals for case study 4: hemipolymicrogyria

A
  1. improve gait pattern
  2. minimize gait deviations
  3. minimize structural impact of atypical WB
  4. strengthening
32
Q

What are the 4 outcome measures of case 4: hemipolymicrogyria

A
  1. Gait Deviation Index (GDI)
  2. Salfort Gait Tool (SF-GT)
  3. Visual Gait Assessment
  4. GMFM
33
Q

What is the Surestep SMO

A

designed for kids with Downs syndrome
wrap around design
shorter toe-plate and trimlines than typical SMOs
promote high level activities (jumping, hopping) by improving subtalar joint alignment

34
Q

Surestep SMOs address the ____ issue at the STJ level

A

coronal plane issue

35
Q

Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder (trisomy 21) characterized by:

A
  1. hypotonia
  2. ligament laxity
  3. flatfeet
  4. cognitive limitations
  5. delayed milestones
36
Q

Approximately __ % of people with Downs syndrome present with

A

15%
Atlantoaxial instability

take x-rays between 3-5 years

37
Q

Patients with Down Syndrome present with what co-morbidities?

A

AA instability
cardiac issues
thyroid issues
hip issues (DHD, acetabular dysplasia)

38
Q

What exam signs may be associated with a 15 month old girl with Down Syndrome

A
  1. excessive ROM 2ndary hypotonia, ligamentous laxity
  2. pronation of STJ in standing
39
Q

An SMO with PLS extension is designed for patients that have

A

sagittal plane TC joint issues
coronal subtalar joint issues

40
Q

What clients could benefit from an SMO with PLS extension?

A

ITW
spastic hemiplegic CP GMFCS level 2

41
Q

Solid AFOs come with 3 types of trimlines. What are they?

A
  1. solid
  2. semi-solid
  3. PLS
42
Q

the 4th type of trimline is what? a lateral/medial flange, which controls hindfoot varus/valgus, known as a

A

SABOLICH TAB

43
Q

GFR AFOs were originally designed for patients with what DX

A

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

44
Q

the GFR AFO provides a ___ moment during ambulation

A

knee extension

45
Q

▪Most common inherited muscular dystrophy and muscle
disease of childhood

A

Duchenne MD

46
Q

Duchenne MD is an x-linked recessive, inherited neuro-MSK disorder with typical life expectancy between _ and _ years

A

20-30 years
fatal –> progressive weakness of skeletal and respiratory mm

47
Q

Duchenne’s is an x-linked recessive disease. Do all cases have a family history?

A

No-1/3 cases arise from new mutation

48
Q

Duchenne’s is due to an absence of protein ___

A

dystrophin
**presents normally in skeletal, smooth mm and brain

49
Q

Boys with DMD are clumsy, may walk on toes, show gross motor REGRESSION.
What will clue you in to it being DMD?

A
  1. Patient history (new onset?)
  2. pseudohypertrophy of calf
  3. Gower’s sign
50
Q

What will gait look like for DMD?

A
  1. wide BOS
  2. lumbar lordosis
  3. knee hyperextension
  4. toe walking

ambulation usually lost by 12 years old

51
Q

What can improve mm mass, strength, and function within first 6 months of treatment for DMD?

A

corticosteroids
*interventions = PT, steroids

52
Q

scoliosis affects ___ % of non-ambulatory children with DMD.
What can delay scoliosis?

A

75-90% develop scoliosis

PROLONGED WALKING/STANDING can delay onset of scoliosis

53
Q

When is surgical intervention considered for a patient with DMD + scoliosis

A

curve reaches 30 degrees, esp if kid is under 14 yrs

54
Q

DMD muscular progression
__ to __

A

proximal to distal
*Gower’s sign!

55
Q

order of mm involvement for DMD

A

early: neck flexors, abs
later: pelvic girdle (hip extensors, abductors) and knee extensors
finally: distal mm UE/LE

56
Q

▪Gene disruption characterized by degeneration of anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, muscle atrophy,
wide spread muscle weakness, and absent deep tendon reflexes

A

Spinal Muscular atrophy

57
Q

spinal muscular atrophy is an inherited neuro-MSK disorder that is autosomal ____

A

recessive
1: 10,000 live births

58
Q

What are the 3 types of SMA

A

type 1: most severe
appears before 6 mo, death by 2 yeras
type 2: 7-18 months onset, live into adulthood with pulmonary function/treatment
type 3: mildest: after 18 months, independent walking with AD into early adulthood/adolescence

59
Q

What are progressive MSK issues associated with SMA

A
  1. scoliosis
  2. hip subluxation
  3. joint contractures
  4. talipes equinovarus
60
Q

All 3 types of SMA are characterized by:

A
  1. significant limb, trunk weakness
  2. mm atrophy proximally and in LEs
  3. hypotonia
  4. areflexia
  5. progressive MSK issues
61
Q

What is a PRAFO or Multi-podus

A

pressure relieving AFO, which is lined with furry stuff for comfort and has an opening at heel for pressure injury

62
Q

What are types of resting or non-ambulatory AFOs?

A

PRAFO or multi-Podus
Custom nighttime or resting AFO
*they may include a derotational bar for positioning

63
Q

5 types of ankle joints on an AFO

A
  1. overlap
  2. tamarack
  3. gaffney
  4. oklahoma
  5. insert stirrup