Lecture 7 (DSA): GI Clinical Correlations Flashcards

1
Q

What are things that need to considered/asked when a patient presents w/ nausea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain?

A
  • What medications they are taking, including NSAIDs, herbal supplements, and birth control
  • If they are a women of childbearing age, pregnancy should ALWAYS be a differential diagnosis
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2
Q

What is Oropharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Someone is having difficulty swallowing. After chewing food they are having a hard time transferring food from their mouth to esophagus and initiating swallowing.

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3
Q

What are causes of Oropharyngeal dysphagia?

A
  • Neurological disorders: MS, Parkinsons, Huntingtons
  • Muscular and rheumatologic disorders: myopathies
  • Metabolic disorders: thryrotoxicosis, Cushing disease, Wilson’s
  • Infectious disease: polio, botulism, lyme’s, diptheria, syphilis
  • Structural disorders: Zenker’s diverticulum, oropharyngeal tumor
  • Motility disorders: UES dysfunction
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4
Q

What is Esophageal dysphagia?

A

Patients will complain of chest pain/discomfort and feel like food is getting stuck. This more of a mid- to lower-esophagus dysphagia.

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5
Q

What are causes of Esophageal dysphagia and which ones are linked to problems with swallowing solids vs. liquids or both?

A

Mechanical obstruction: solid foods worse than liquids

  • Schatzki ring
  • Peptic stricture
  • Esophageal cancer
  • Eosinophilic esophagitis

Motility disorder: probelms w/ both solids and liquids

  • Achalasia
  • Diffuse esophageal spasm
  • Scleroderma
  • Ineffective esophageal motility
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6
Q

What is primary acahlasia?

A
  • Progressive dysphagia (months –> years) for solids and liquids due to impaired relaxation of the LES resulting from loss of nitric oxide-producing inhibitory neurons in the myenteric plexus
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7
Q

How is primary achalsia diagnosed (hint: there are 3 steps)?

A
  • Barium esophagogram w/ “birds beak” distal esophagus
  • After barium esophagram, EDG (endoscopy) is always performed to evaluate distal esophagis and gastroesophageal junction to exclude a mechanical obstruction (stricture or cancer)
  • Esophageal manometry CONFIRMS the diagnosis
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8
Q

What is Secondary Achalasia?

A
  • Chagas disease caused by the parasite = Trypansoma cruzi
  • Should always be considered in patients from endemic regions
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9
Q

How is Secondary Achalasia diagnosed?

A

A peripheral blood smear w/ parasitic evidence

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10
Q

What can Secondary Achalasia lead to years later?

A
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Megacolon
  • Megaesophagus
  • Romaña sign (peri-orbital swelling)
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11
Q

What are the alarm features and red flags of concern in dyspepsia and epigastric pain that indicate further workup needed?

A
  • Progressive Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia: painful swallowing
  • Hematemesis: blood in vomit
  • Melana: black tarry sticky stools
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Constant/severe pain
  • Unexplained iron deficiency anemia
  • Family hx of upper gastrointestinal cancer
  • Palpable mass
  • Lymphadenopathy
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12
Q

What are the symptoms of a peptic ulcer?

A
  • Epigastric pain that is: gnawing, dull, sharp, burning, aching, or “hunger-like”
  • Most patients have sympotmatic periods lasting up to several wees w/ intervals of months to years in which they are pain free (periodicitiy)
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13
Q

What are the signs of GI bleeding?

A

“Coffee grounds” emesis, hematemesis, melena, or hematochezia

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14
Q

What is H. pylori associated with, which is more common, and which strain significantly increases risk of ulcers?

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease (duodenal > gastric)
  • Chronic gastritis
  • Gastric adenocarcinoma
  • Gastric mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma
  • Cag-A toxin positive strains significantly increase risk of ulcer
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15
Q

Where in stomach is chronic gastritis most common and what levels are increased?

A

Antrum of stomach –> increased gastrin (not above 1000 like Zollinger Ellison) –> increase in HCL production by parietal cells -> increased risk of duodenal ulcer

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16
Q

What 2 tests are used in the detection of H. pylori and what are the features of each?

A

1) Urea breath test: great first line test, used to confirm eradication
2) Fecal antigen test: great first line, non-invasive test, sensitive, specific, and inexpensive. Can be used to confirm eradication

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17
Q

What is it important to have the patient do before testing for H. pylori?

A

Stop proton pump inhibitor medication (PPI) x 14 days before fecl and breath tests or high chance of a false negative test

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18
Q

What part of stomach are gastric ulcers typically found in, symptoms description, and treatment?

A

Location: lesser curvature of the antrum of stomach

Symptoms: sharp and burning epigastric pain, worsens with 30 min - 1 hour after eating

Tx: Proton pump inhibitor, eradicate H. pylori

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19
Q

What part of duodenum are duodenal ulcers typically found in, symptoms description, and treatment?

A

Location: proximal duodenum, if distal to 2nd portion (think ZES)

Symptoms: gnawing epigastric pain that worses 3-5 hrs after eating, may be temporarily relieved by food/eating

Tx: proton pump inhibitors, eradicate H. pylori

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20
Q

Differentiate a Cushing ulcer from a Curling ulcer

A

Cushing ulcer: secondary to intracranial lesion, injury

Curling ulcer: seoncdary to severe burns

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21
Q

When should ZES be considered?

A
  • Ulcers in atypical locations
  • Enlarged gastric folds
  • Diarrhea
  • Steatorrhea
  • Weight loss
  • Significantly elevated fasting gastrin level and positive secretin stimulation test
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22
Q

What is the most common location of gastrinomas?

A
  • Most commonly in the duodenum (primary gastrinoma)
  • Sometimes pancreatic
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23
Q

25% of gastrinomas are associated with?

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN 1)

24
Q

What is likely suggestive of ZES when GI imaging or endoscopy is performed?

A

Large mucosal folds

25
Q

What is confirmatory of ZES/gastrinomas?

A
  • Serum gastrin >1000 ng/L
  • Positive secretin stimulation test (will be negative in the other causes of hypergastrinemia)
26
Q

What are differential Dx of epigastric pain (dyspepsia)?

A
  • Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
  • Functional dyspepsia
  • Atypical gastroesophageal reflux
  • Gastric cancer
  • Food poisoning
  • Viral gastroenteritis
  • Biliary tract disease
27
Q

Esphagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)/Upper endoscopy is the study of choice for evaluating what pathologies?

A
  • Persitent heartburn
  • Dyshphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • Structural abnormalities detected on barium esophagography
28
Q

Why is upper endoscopy considered diagnostic and therapeutic?

A
  • Direct visualization
  • Allows biopsy of mucosal abnormalities and of normal appearing mucosa
  • Allows for dilation of strictures
29
Q

Barium esophagography is useful for differentiating?

A
  • Between mechanical lesions and motility disorders
  • More sensitive for detecting subtle esophageal narrowing due to rings, achalasia, and proximal esophageal lesions
30
Q

What pathology is shown here and what kind of study is this?

A

Lower esophageal ring on a barium x-ray

31
Q

What pathology is shown here and what kind of study is this?

A

“Bird beak” in Achalasia from a barium x-ray

32
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Zenker’s Diverticulum

33
Q

What tests can be done for reflux and how can you test for both acid and nonacid liquid reflux?

A
  • pH within the esophageal lumen may be monitored continously for 24-48 hours
  • pH only recording provides info about the amount of esophageal acid reflux but NOT nonacid reflux

- Techniques using combined pH and multichannel intraluminal impedence allow assessment of acid and nonacid liquid reflux

34
Q

What does esophageal manometry assess and when is it used?

A
  • Assesses esophageal motility
  • Manometry cathether measures pressure
  • Establshed the etiology of dysphagia in patients in whom a mechanical obstruction cannot be found, especially if a diagnosis of achalasia is suspected by endoscopy or barium study
35
Q

What is the X-ray showing?

A

Free-air due to possible perforated organ

36
Q

What is shown by this X-ray?

A

Constipation and scoliosis

37
Q

What is shown here on x-ray?

A

Air-fluid levels, dilated loops of small bowel, constipation = small bowel obstruction (SBO)

38
Q

What is shown here?

A

Air lining the gallbladder wall = emphysematous cholecystitis

39
Q

What is shown here?

A

Porcelain gallbladder from chronic cholecystitis

40
Q

CT has no part in the primary detection of gastric ulcers, what is its role?

A

Detection of subphrenic and other collections that may occur after a perforation of a gastric ulcer

41
Q

What is endoscopic ultrasound used for?

A

Visualizing and biopsying pancreatic masses

42
Q

What is endoscropic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) used for?

A
  • Invasive way to visualize the hepatobiliary and pancreatic ducts; can provide intervention via: diagnostic and therapeutic techniques
  • Can help us visualize where stones may be lodged
43
Q

What is a non-invasive way to visualize the hepatobiliary and pancreatic ducts?

A

Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatograhy (MRCP)

44
Q

What are true liver function tests?

A
  • PT/INR
  • Albumin
  • Cholesterol
45
Q

What does a CBC w/ differential give us that a CBC doesn’t?

A

Percent and absolute differential counts (PMN, lymph, baso, eos, mono)

46
Q

What can a comprehensive metabolic panel tell us that a BMP can’t?

A
  • Albumin:Globulin (A:G) ration
  • Albumin
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Aspartate amino transferase (AST)
  • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
  • Bilirubin, total
  • Globulin, total
  • Protein, total
47
Q

What GI labs to consider when looking for pancreatitis?

A
  • Lipase
  • Amylase
48
Q

What GI labs to consider when assessing the liver?

A
  • Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
  • Fractionate bilirubin (conjugated vs. unconjugated)
  • PT/INR (helpful to know bleeding risk before procedure)
49
Q

What are the sympathetic spinal levels for: appendix, esophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, small intestine, colon, and pancreas?

A

Appendix: T12

Esophagus: T2-T8

Stomach: T5-T9

Liver, Gallbladder: T6-T9

Small intestine: T5-T9, T9-T12

Colon: T9-L2

Pancreas: T5-T11

50
Q

What are the PNS levels for the upper portion and lower portion?

A

Upper: Esophagus - Transvers colon

  • OA, AA (vagus n.)

Lower: descending colon, sigmoid, rectum

  • S2-S4 (pelvic splanchnic n.)
51
Q

What are common etiologies of abdominal pain in the LUQ?

A
  • Gastric ulcer
  • Ruptured spleen
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Perforated colon
52
Q

What are common etiologies of pain in the RUQ?

A
  • Hepatitis
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Gallstone disease
  • Duodenal ulcer
53
Q

What are the common etiologies of pain in the RLQ?

A
  • Appendicitis
  • Perforated cecum
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Strangulated hernia
  • Chron’s disease
  • Renal colic
  • Meckel’s Diverticulum
54
Q

What are the common etiologies of pain in the epigastric region?

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Peptic ulcer
  • Perforated esophagus
  • MI
  • Gallstone disease
55
Q

What are common etiologies of pain in the umbilicus/peri-umbilical region?

A
  • Intestinal obstruction
  • Pancreatitis
  • AAA
  • Mesenteric thrombosis
  • Early appendicitis
56
Q

Differential Dx’s for severe epigastric pain?

A

Atypical for peptic ulcer disease: unless there has been perforation

  • Acute pancreatitis, cholecystitis
  • Choledocholithiasis
  • Esophageal rupture
  • Gastric volvulus
  • Gastric or intestinal ischemia
  • Ruptured aortic aneurysm
  • Myocardial ischemia
57
Q

Differential Dx of Upper GI bleed; where are these?

A
  • Proximal to the Ligament of Treitz
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Erosive gastritis
  • Arteriovenous malformations/angioectasis
  • Mallory-Weiss tear
  • Esophageal varices