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Functional Human Anatomy > Lecture 3 Exam > Flashcards

Lecture 3 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of cerebrospinal fluid in brain ventricles?

A
  1. buoyancy
  2. protection
  3. environment stability
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2
Q

How many brain ventricles are there?

A

4

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3
Q

Where are the 2 lateral ventricles located?

A

Above eyeball, one in each hemisphere

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4
Q

Where is the 3rd brain ventricle located?

A

In diencephalon

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5
Q

Where is the 4th brain ventricle located?

A

Between pons and cerebellum

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6
Q

Where in the ventricles is CSF produced?

A

by the choroid plexus

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6
Q

What is a sulcus? What are the 2 sulci in the brain?

A

Groove
1. central sulcus
2. Lateral sulcus

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7
Q

What is the left hemisphere of the brain responsible for?

A

Speech, writing, language, mathematics (analytic)

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8
Q

What is the right hemisphere of the brain responsible for?

A

Touch and spatial visualization (artistic side)

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9
Q

What are gyri (gyrus)? What are the 2 gyri of the brain?

A

Bumps on the brain.
1. Precentral gyrus
2. Postcentral gyrus

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10
Q

What does the central sulcus divide?

A

Divides front and back of brain

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11
Q

What does the lateral sulcus divide?

A

Divides temporal and frontal lobes

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12
Q

What is the longitudinal fissure?

A

Separates right and left sides of the brain

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13
Q

Where is the primary motor cortex located?

A

Precentral gyrus

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14
Q

Where is the precentral gyrus located?

A

Infront of the central sulcusW

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15
Q

Where is the postcentral gyrus located?

A

Behind the central sulcus

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16
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?

A

In the postcentral gyrus

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17
Q

There are 5 lobes of the brain (4 names), what are they?

A
  1. frontal lobe
  2. temporal lobe (X2)
  3. Occipital lobe
  4. The insula
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18
Q

The premotor cortex is located in the frontal lobe, where within this lobe is it located?

A

Directly anterior to the precentral sulcus

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19
Q

What is the occipital lobe associated with?

A

Vision

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20
Q

What is the temporal lobe associated with?

A

Processing hearing information

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21
Q

What is the insula associated with?

A

Taste and storing taste in memory

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22
Q

What is the name of the white tract that links the right and left hemispheres of the brain?

A

Commissural tracts

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23
Q

What are the 2 commissures in the brain?

A
  1. anterior commissure
  2. posterior commissure
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24
Q

where is the cerebral nuclei (basal nuclei) located?

A

Masses of grey matter within the white matter of the cerebrum

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25
Q
A
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26
Q

The dysfunction of what area of the brain is associated with the onset of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dysfunction in the cerebral nuclei

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27
Q

What 4 things does the cerebral nuclei include?

A
  1. Caudate nucleus
  2. Amygdaloid body
  3. Lentiform nucleus
  4. Claustrum
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28
Q

What does the caudate nucleus of the cerebral nuclei do?

A

Coordinates walking

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29
Q

What does the amygdaloid body of the cerebral nuclei do?

A

Participates in emotional expression

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30
Q

What does the lentiform of the cerebral nuclei do?

A

Involved in movement and muscle tone

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31
Q

What does the claustrum of the cerebral nuclei do?

A

Involved in subconscious visual processing

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32
Q

What are the 3 components of the diencephalon?

A
  1. Epithalamus
  2. Thalamus
  3. Hypothalamus
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33
Q

What are the 2 components of the epithalamus?

A
  1. Pineal gland
  2. Habenular nuclei
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34
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland?

A

Secretes melatonin

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35
Q

What is the function of the habenular nuclei?

A

Signals from limbic system to midbrain

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36
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

receives sensory information impulses from senses

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37
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Control autonomic functions, endocrine system, body temp, emotional behaviour, food and water intake, sleep-wake rhythms

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38
Q

Where does the infundibulum attach to from the hypothalamus?

A

From hypothalamus to pituitary gland; where left and right sides of hypothalamus come together

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39
Q

What parts of the brain does the brainstem connect?

A

Forebrain and cerebellum to spinal cord

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40
Q

What does the brainstem contain?

A

Autonomic centers required for survival

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41
Q

What are the 3 brainstem regions?

A
  1. midbrain
  2. pons
  3. medulla oblongata
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42
Q

Where in the brainstem is the midbrain located?

A

Superior portion

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43
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

Processes visual, auditory and motor information

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44
Q

The tectal plate of the midbrain has 2 components, what are they?

A
  1. Superior colliculus
  2. Inferior colliculus
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45
Q

What is the function of the superior colliculus in the midbrain?

A

Process visual stimuli

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46
Q

What is the function of the inferior colliculus in the midbrain?

A

Process auditory stimuli

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47
Q

What are the cerebral penduncles of the midbrain?

A

Motor tracks located on the anterolateral surface of the midbrain

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48
Q

What is the substantia nigra in the midbrain?

A

Neurons that produce dopamine

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49
Q

The tegmentum is located in the midbrain, what two things are located in the tegmentum?

A
  1. Red nuclei
  2. Reticular formation
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50
Q

Where in the brainstem is the pons located?

A

Middle, anterior portion of brainstem

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51
Q

The pons contains autonomic nuclei, what is the function of this?

A

Help regulate breathing (pontine center)

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52
Q

The pons houses sensory and motor cranial nerves for…?

A
  1. Trigeminal (CN V)
  2. Abducens (CN VI)
  3. Facial (CN VII)
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53
Q

Where in the brainstem is the medulla oblongata located?

A

The inferior portion of brainstem

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54
Q

What cranial nerves is the medulla oblongata associated with?

A

VII, IX, X, XI, XII

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55
Q

What portions of the brainstem is the reticular formation locaed in?

A

all 3 regions

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56
Q

What are the motor functions of reticular formation?

A

Regulate muscle tone

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57
Q

What are the sensory functions of the reticular formation?

A

process visual, auditory, and touch stimuli

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58
Q
A
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58
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordinates and fine tunes skeletal muscle movements

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59
Q

There are 3 cerebellar peduncles, where do each of them connect to?

A

Superior: midbrain -> cerebellum
Middle: pons to cerebellum
Inferior: medulla oblongata to cerebellum

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60
Q

What does the limbic system affect?

A

Memory formation through integration of past memories

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61
Q

What are the 6 components of the limbic system?

A
  1. Cingulate gyrus
  2. Parahippocampal gyrus
  3. Amygdaloid body
  4. Fornix
  5. Mamillary body
  6. Olfactory bulb and associated nerves
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62
Q

What many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12 - numbered with roman numerals

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63
Q

What are the 3 possible fibre compositions of the 12 cranial nerves?

A

Motor, sensory or mixed

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64
Q

What is the name of CN I?

A

Olfactory nerve

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65
Q

What is the name of CN ll?

A

Optic nerve

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66
Q

What is the name of CN lll?

A

Oculomotor nerve

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67
Q

What is the name of CN IV?

A

Trochlear nerve

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68
Q

What is the name of CN V?

A

Trigeminal nerve

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69
Q

What is the name of CN VI?

A

Abducens nerve

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70
Q

What is the name of CN VII?

A

Facial nerves

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71
Q

What is the name of CN VIII?

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

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72
Q

What is the name of CN IX?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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73
Q

What is the name of CN X?

A

Vagus nerve

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74
Q

What is the name of CN XI?

A

Accessory or spinal accessory

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75
Q

What is the name of CN XII?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

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76
Q

What is the function of the olfactory nerve?

A

Sensory - smell

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77
Q

What is the function of the optic nerve?

A

Sensory - vision

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78
Q

What is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

A

Motor - extra-ocular and pupillae muscles

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79
Q

What is the function of the trochlear nerve?

A

Motor - controls extra-ocular muscles

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80
Q

What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Sensory - touch, temp, pain
Motor - Muscles of mastication

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81
Q

What is the function of the abducens nerve?

A

Motor - muscles of the eye

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82
Q

What is the function of the facial nerves?

A

Sensory - taste & skin around ear
Motor - muscles of facial expression; salivary glands

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83
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocochlear nerve?

A

Sensory - balance and hearing

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84
Q

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Sensory - taste
Motor: muscles that assist in swallowing

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85
Q

What is the function of the vagus nerve?

A

Sensory: sensation from tongue, throat, heart, and esophagus
Motor: throat muscles, heart and lungs, larynx, trachea, most abdominal organs

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86
Q

What is the function of the spinal accessory nerves?

A

Motor control the SCM, trapezius and some pharynx muscles

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87
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Motor, controls tongue muscles

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88
Q

What is the pathway of the olfactory nerve?

A

Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

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89
Q

What is the pathway of the optic nerve?

A

Optic canal of sphenoid

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90
Q

What is the pathway of the oculomotor nerve?

A

superior orbital fissure of sphenoid

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91
Q

What is the origin of the oculomotor nerve?

A

anterior midbrain

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92
Q

What is the pathway of the trochlear nerve?

A

superior orbital fissure of sphenoid

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93
Q

What is the origin of the trochlear nerve?

A

posterior midbrain

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94
Q

What is the origin of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Pons

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95
Q

What is the origin of the abducens nerve?

A

Pons

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96
Q

What is the pathway of the abducens nerve?

A

Superior orbital fissure

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97
Q

What is the origin of the facial nerves?

A

Pons

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98
Q

What is the pathway of the facial nerves?

A

Internal acoustic meatus to facial canal; styloidmastoid foramen

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99
Q

What is the pathway of the vestibulococholear nerve?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

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100
Q

What is the origin of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Medulla oblongata

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101
Q

What is the pathway of the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Jugular foramen

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102
Q

What is the origin of the vagus nerve?

A

Medulla oblongata

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102
Q

What is the pathway of the vagus nerve?

A

Jugular foramen

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103
Q

What is the origin of the spinal accessory nerve?

A

Medulla oblongata

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104
Q

What is the pathway of the spinal accessory nerves?

A

jugular foramen

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105
Q

What is the origin of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

Medulla oblongata

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106
Q

What is the pathway of the hypoglossal nerve?

A

hypoglossal canal

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107
Q

What is the mnemonic device for the names of the cranial nerves?

A

oh, oh, oh, to touch and feel very good velvet, ah heaven

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108
Q

What is the pneumonic for the functions of the cranial nerves?

A

Some say money matter, but my brother says big brains matter most

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109
Q

What does the SNS work on?

A

Works on consciously perceived or controlled processes

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110
Q

What is the somatic sensory system responsible for?

A

Vision, hearing, touch, proprioception

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111
Q

What is the somatic motor system responsible for?

A

control of skeletal muscles

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112
Q

What is the function of the autonomic system?

A

Motor system, regulates processes below conscious level to maintain homeostasis

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113
Q

What 3 places does the autonomic nervous system send impulses to?

A
  1. Cardiac muscles
  2. Smooth muscles
  3. Glands
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114
Q

What is the parasympathetic division of the ANS responsible for?

A

rest and digest; conserves energy and replenish nutrient stores

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115
Q

What is the sympathetic division of the ANS?

A

fight or flight; make nutrients available for use

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116
Q

Describe the 2 neuron pathway for motor innervation of the ANS?

A
  1. Neuronal convergence
  2. Neuronal divergence
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117
Q

What is neuronal convergence?

A

Numerous preganglionic axons synapse on single ganglionic cell

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118
Q

What is neuronal divergence?

A

Axons from one preganglionic cell synapse onto numerous ganglionic cells

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119
Q

What are myelinated fibres?

A

Single schwanna cell wrapped around axon segment

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120
Q

What is the function of the schwann cell?

A

Allows for neural transmission (salutatory conduction)

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121
Q

What are unmyelinated fibers?

A

single schwann cell wrapped around. multiple axons within superficial grooves

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122
Q

Can unmyelinated fibres perform neural transmission (salutatory conduction)?

A

No

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123
Q

In the ANS division, what are the axon lengths of the parasympathetic nerves (preganglionic and postganglionic)?

A

Pre: Long axons
Post: short axons

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124
Q

In the ANS division, what are the axon lengths of the sympathetic nerves (preganglionic & postganglionic)?

A

Pre: Short
Post: long

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125
Q

Describe the number of preganglionic axon branches (parasympathetic & sympathetic).

A

Parasympathetic: few branches
SYmpathetic: many branches

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126
Q

Describe the location of the ganglia in parasympathetic ganglia?

A

In or close to the effector

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127
Q

Describe the location of ganglia in sympathetic ganglia.

A

Near spinal cord

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128
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system, where are preganglionic neurons housed?

A
  1. Nuclei in brainstem
  2. Lateral gray regions of S2-S4 spinal cord segments
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129
Q

What are the 4 cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers?

A
  1. CNIII
  2. CNVII
  3. CNIX
  4. CNX
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130
Q

Where does CN III go to?

A

Intrinsic eye muscles, pupil, lens

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131
Q

Where does CN VII go to?

A

tear glands and salivary glands

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132
Q

Where does CN IX go to?

A

Parotid salivary glands

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133
Q

Where does the CN X go to?

A

To visceral organs of the thoracic and abdominal cavities

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133
Q

What are the 3 pelvic splanchnic nerves that exit from the sacrum?

A

S2, S3, S4

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134
Q

Describe the location of sympathetic ganglia?

A
  1. on either side of vertebral column
  2. Anterior to the abdominal aorta
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135
Q

Describe the number of sympathetic trunk ganglia (C, T, L, S, Co).

A

C = 3
T = 11-12
L = 2-5
S = 4-5
Co = 1

136
Q

What are the only sympathetic trunk ganglia with white rami communicants?

137
Q

What are the 3 exit pathways of sympathetic preganglionic fibers?

A
  1. spinal nerve
  2. sympathetic nerve
  3. splanchnic nerve
138
Q

Describe dual innervation as a feature of the ANS.

A
  1. antagonistic effects
  2. cooperative effects
139
Q

What are the 4 exceptions to dual innervation?

A
  1. Blood vessels (SNS only)
  2. Sweat glands (SNS only)
  3. Arrector pili muscles (SNS only)
  4. Adrenal medulla (SNS only)
140
Q

Describe the two basic types of vessels

A

Arteries: moves blood away from the heart
Veins: Transport blood back to the heart

141
Q

What is the definition of great vessels?

A

Large diameter arteries or veins entering or leaving the heart

142
Q

What are the 2 circuits of the CV system?

A
  1. Systemic circuit
  2. Pulmonary circuit
143
Q

What are the two parts that compose the pericardium?

A
  1. Fibrous pericardium
  2. Serous pericardium
144
Q

What is the outer portion of the pericardium called? Inner?

A

Fibrous pericardium; serous pericardium

145
Q

What is the function of the pericardium?

A

restricts heart movement; only slightly moves within the thorax

146
Q

Pericardial fats are deposits of fat around the heart; what are the 2 types of pericardial fats?

A
  1. epicardial (within epicardium)
  2. paracardial fat (within serous pericardium)
147
Q

How are the boundaries of the 4 chambers of the heart indicated externally?

A
  1. coronary groove
  2. Interventricular groove
148
Q

What are the 4 great vessels of the heart?

A
  1. aorta
  2. pulmonary trunk
  3. Venae cavae
  4. pulmonary veins
149
Q

What are coronary arteries?

A

only branches of the ascending aorta that arise above aortic valve

150
Q

What is the coronary sinus?

A

Largest venous channel; empties into the right atrium

151
Q

What is the fibrous skeleton?

A

Dense irregular tissue that lies between the atria and ventricles

152
Q

What are the 4 functions of the fibrous skeleton?

A
  1. provide structural support
  2. anchors heart valves
  3. provide rigid framework
  4. electrical insulator
153
Q

What are the consequences of the spiral pattern of the heart?

A
  1. Atria draws blood inferiorly to ventricles
  2. ventricle contraction initiated at the apex to eject blood out of the ventricles
154
Q

What are the 3 layers of the principles blood vessels of the body?

A
  1. tunica interna
  2. tunica media
  3. tunica externa
155
Q

What is the tunica interna composed of? What is its basement membrane composed of?

A

Simple squamous endothelium; areolar connective tissue (subendothelial)

156
Q

Which type of vessel is the internal elastic lamina present in?

A

Arteries only

157
Q

Describe the composition fo the tunica media.

A

Thickest layer of blood vessel, concentric sheets of smooth muscle

158
Q

What type of blood vessel is the external elastic lamina present in?

A

Arteries only

159
Q

What is the tunica externa composed of?

A

Collagen and elastic fibers

160
Q

What are nerve endings?

A

Small blood vessels on the outer layer of the larger blood vessels

161
Q

What is meant by companion vessels?

A

arteries and veins that run side by side to one another

162
Q

Describe the lumen of veins?

A

Large, flat lumen

163
Q

Describe the walls and lumen of arteries?

A

Thicker walls and rounded lumen

164
Q

What is the purpose of valves in veins?

A

Prevent backflow

165
Q

Which vein does not have valves?

A

Venae cavae

166
Q

Why are arteries most elastic?

A

To accommodate BP changes

167
Q

What are capillaries?

A

Smallest blood vessels

168
Q

Capillary walls are composed of tunica intima; what is it?

A

Single layer of endothelial cells and basement membrane

169
Q

Describe the width of capillaries

A

Slightly wider than a red blood cell

170
Q

What is the function of capillaries?

A

To allow for diffusion of gases and nutrients between blood vessels and tissues

171
Q

What is a capillary bed fed by?

A

Metaarteriole

172
Q

What is a “trunk capillary”?

A

Branch from a metarteriole that forms bulk of the capillary bed

173
Q

What happens when capillary sphincters constrict?

A

blood flow bypasses completely and flows through metarterioles

174
Q

What is vasomotion?

A

Intermittent blood flow through metarterioles and precapillary sphincters

175
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries?

A
  1. Continuous
  2. Fenestrated
  3. Sinusoids
176
Q

Describe continuous capillaries

A

Endothelial cells form a complete lining aided by tight junctions

177
Q

Describe fenestrated capillaries

A

endothelial cells contain pores that allows fluid exchange between blood and interstitial fluid

178
Q

Describe sinusoid capillaries

A

Large gaps between endothelial cells and a discontinuous/absent basement membrane

179
Q

What is the most common type of capillary?

A

Continuous

180
Q

Provide an example of fenestrated capillaries

A

small intestine and kidney

181
Q

Provide an example of sinusoid capillaries

A

bone marrow and liver

182
Q

T/F Veins have thin tunica externa

183
Q

T/F veins have a thin tunica media

184
Q

What are the smallest veins?

A

Postcapillary venules

185
Q

Describe the typical circulatory route

A

Heart -> arteries -> capillaries -> veins -> heart

186
Q

What are the 2 exceptions to the typical circulatory route?

A
  1. Portal systems
  2. Anastomoses
187
Q

Describe a portal system

A

Route in which blood flows through 2 capillary beds before returning to the heart

188
Q

Describe anastomoses

A

Point where veins and/or arteries merge without intervening capillaries to provide an alternate route for blood flow

189
Q

What are the 3 types of anastomoses?

A
  1. Arteriovenous anastomoses
  2. Arterial anastomoses
  3. Venous anastomoses
190
Q

Describe arteriovenous anastomoses

A

shunt to reduce heat loss by bypassing exposed areas

191
Q

Describe arterial anastomoses

A

Two arteries join to provide collateral routes of blood supply

192
Q

Describe venous anastomoses

A

One vein empties into another, providing alternative routes for drainage

193
Q

What are the 3 branches of the aortic arch?

A
  1. Brachiocephalic trunk
  2. Left common carotid a.
  3. Left subclavian
194
Q

What is the largest branch of the aortic arch?

A

Braciocephalic trunk

195
Q

What does the brachiocephalic trunk divide into?

A

Into right common carotid and right subclavian arteries

196
Q

What are the 8 arteries of the upper extermities?

A
  1. right subclavian
  2. right axillary
  3. humeral circumflex
  4. right brachial
  5. right radial
  6. right ulnar
  7. right deep palmar arch
  8. right superficial palmar arch
196
Q

What is the principal division of the external carotid artery?

A

Into maxillary artery and superficial temporal artery

197
Q

What forms the right deep palmar arch?

A

right radial artery

198
Q

what forms the right superficial palmar arch?

A

Right ulnar artery

199
Q

What does the brachial artery divide into?

A

radial a. and ulnar a.

200
Q

What are palmar branches

A

Come off palmar arches and unite at cleft between fingers

201
Q

Where are the digital arteries located?

A

run down the adjacent side of the fingers into small vessels at the fingertips

202
Q

What does the external iliac a. pass underneath?

A

Inguinal ligament

203
Q

What does the externall iliac a. become?

A

Femoral a.

204
Q

What do the branches of the femoral artery provide blood to?

A

The skin and muscles of the thigh

205
Q

What does the femoral a. turn in to?

A

Popliteal a.

206
Q

What does the popliteal a. divide into?

A
  1. anterior tibial a.
  2. posterior tibial a.
207
Q

What does the posterior tibial a. divide into on the sole of the foot?

A
  1. Medial plantar a.
  2. Lateral plantar a.
208
Q

What is the plantar arch?

A

Joins the medial and lateral plantar

209
Q

What does the anterior tibial a. become?

A

dorsalis pedis a.

210
Q

Where is the dorsalis pedis a. located?

A

Infront of the ankle; artery of the foot

211
Q

What does the dorsalis pedis a. branch into

A

Arcuate a.

212
Q

What are the 6 major dural venous sinuses?

A
  1. superior & inferior saggital sinuses
  2. Straight sinus
  3. left & right transverse sinuses
  4. left & right sigmoid sinuses
  5. cavernous sinus
  6. superior & inferior petrosal sinuses
213
Q

What does cranial venous blood drain through?

A

dural venous sinuses

214
Q

Why are there no valves in the dural venous sinus system?

A

So the blood can flow in multiple directions

215
Q

Where is the internal jugular vein located in proximity to the external jugular vein?

A

Larger and deeper

216
Q

Where the the external jugular vein receive its tributaries from?

A

Scalp, deep parts of the face, area supplied by the external carotid artery

217
Q

Where is the vertebral vein formed?

A

In the suboccipital triangle

218
Q

Where does the superficial vein lie in proximity of the sternocleidomastoid muscles?

A

Superficial and lateral

219
Q

What is the only tributary of the subclavian vein?

A

External jugular vein

220
Q

What two veins form the brachiocephalic vein?

A
  1. internal jugular vein
  2. subclavian vein
221
Q

where do the brachiocephalic veins drain into?

A

Superior vena cava

222
Q

T/F: In the upper extremities, deep veins have more valves than superficial veins

223
Q

Where are the superficial veins of the hand principally situated?

A

On the dorsal surface

224
Q

Which side of the dorsal network is the basilic vein formed?

A

Medial side

225
Q

Which side of the dorsal network is the cephalic vein formed on?

A

Lateral side

226
Q

Once over the first rib, what does the axillary vein divide into?

A

the subcalvian v.

227
Q

What are the tributaries of the brachiocephalic v.?

A

subclavian v. and internal jugular v.

228
Q

T/F deep veins of the lower extremities have less valves than superficial veins

229
Q

What are the 7 deep veins of the lower extremity?

A
  1. femoral v.
  2. popliteal v.
  3. anterior tibial v.
  4. posterior tibial
  5. peroneal v.
  6. dorsalis pedis
  7. plantar venous arch
230
Q

What are the 2 important superficial veins of the lower extremities?

A
  1. Great saphenous vein
  2. Small saphenous vein
231
Q

What side of the leg does the great saphenous vein ascend on?

A

Medial side

232
Q

What side of the achilles tendon does the small saphenous vein ascend on?

A

Lateral side

233
Q

What is the largest blood vessel in the body?

A

Inferior vena cava

234
Q

What forms the inferior vena cava?

A

Common iliac veins

235
Q

What are the 3 functions of the lymphatic system

A
  1. immune system
  2. alternate route for blood bound substances
  3. return lymph to the venous system
236
Q

Compare how much fluid is filtered out to how much is absorbed per day

A

24 litres out, 20.4 litres in; excess enters lymphatic vessels

237
Q

What are the 2 anatomical divisions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. upper respiratory tract
  2. lower respiratory tract
238
Q

What are the 4 things included in the upper respiratory tract?

A
  1. Nose
  2. Nasal cavity
  3. Sinuses
  4. Pharynx
239
Q

What 5 things are included in the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

240
Q

What are the 2 functional divisions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Conducting zone
  2. Respiratory zone
241
Q

What are the 4 functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Gas exchange
  2. Blood pH regulation
  3. Sound protection
  4. protect against invading pathogens
242
Q

What is pulmonary ventilation?

A

Air movement between environment and lungs

243
Q

What is external respiration?

A

gas exchange between atmosphere and blood

244
Q

What is internal respiration?

A

Gas exchange between blood and body’s cells

245
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

use & production of gases in metabolism

246
Q

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses?

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoidal
  3. sphenoidal
  4. maxillary
247
Q

What are paranasal sinuses?

A

air spaces that make bones lighter in weight

248
Q

What 2 tracts share the pharynx?

A

Respiratory and digestive tracts

249
Q

What are the 3 regions of the pharynx?

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
250
Q

There are 9 cartilage rings in the larynx, what are the 3 single structures?

A
  1. epiglottic
  2. thyroid
  3. cricoid
251
Q

There are 9 cartilage rings in the larynx, what are the 3 paired structures?

A
  1. arytenoid
  2. corniculate
  3. cuneiform
252
Q

What does the trachea divide into?

A

Left and right primary bronchi

253
Q

What are the 2 fissures identifiable in the gross anatomy of the right lung?

A
  1. Horizontal fissure
  2. Oblique fissure
254
Q

What does each primary bronchi divide into?

A

Secondary (lobar) bronchi

255
Q

How many segmental bronchi supply each lung?

256
Q

What are bronchopulmonary segments?

A

Distinct region of the lung separate by a septum

257
Q

What is a pulmonary lobule?

A

Functional unit of the lung where gas exchange occurs

258
Q

What is an acinus?

A

round cluster of alveoli

259
Q

How many alveoli does each lung hold?

A

300-500 million

260
Q

What are the 3 functional classifications of the skeletal muscles of breathing?

A
  1. Quiet breathing
  2. Forced inhalation
  3. Forced exhalation
261
Q

What are the 2 muscles of quiet breathing?

A
  1. diaphragm
  2. external intercostals
262
Q

What are the 5 muscles of forced inhalation?

A
  1. sternoicleidomastoid
  2. scalenes
  3. serratus posterior superior
  4. pectoralis major
  5. erector spinae
263
Q

What are the 5 muscles of forced exhalation?

A
  1. transversus thoracis
  2. serratus posterior inferior
  3. Internal intercostal
  4. external oblique
  5. transverses abdominis
264
Q

What are the 6 digestive tracts of the digestive system?

A
  1. Oral cavity
  2. pharynx
  3. esophagus
  4. stomach
  5. small intestine
  6. large intestine
265
Q

What are the 4 accessory organs of the digestive system?

A
  1. liver
  2. gall bladder
  3. pancreas
  4. salivary gland
266
Q

What are the 6 general functions of the digestive system, in order?

A
  1. ingestion
  2. secretion
  3. motility
  4. digestion
  5. absorption
  6. elimination of wastes
267
Q

What is the general function of the liver?

A

secretion of bile, storage of nutrients

268
Q

What is the general function of the gall bladder?

A

Storage and concentration of bile

269
Q

What is the general function of the pancreas?

A

Buffers, digestive enzymes, secretion of hormones

270
Q

What is the general function of the large intestine?

A

Dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials to excrete

271
Q

What is the general function of the small intestine?

A

Enzymatic digestion of water, organic substrates, ions, and vitamins

272
Q

What is the general function of the stomach?

A

Chemical breakdown via acid and enzymes

273
Q

What is the general function of the esophagus?

A

Transport materials to the stomach

274
Q

What is the general function of the pharynx?

A

Transport of materials to the stomach

275
Q

What is the enzymes secreted by the salivary glands that begins to breakdown sugar?

276
Q

What is a bolus?

A

Food mixed with saliva

277
Q

What are the 3 glands that produce saliva?

A
  1. Parotid glands
  2. Sublingual glands
  3. Submandibular glands
278
Q

What are the 2 phases of swallowing (deglutition)?

A
  1. Voluntary phase
  2. Involuntary phase
279
Q

What is the esophageal hiatus?

A

Opening in diaphragm that the esophagus passes through just before it connects to the stomach

280
Q

What does the stomach turn the bolus into?

281
Q

Why is the small intestine shorter in living individuals compared to cadavers?

A

Muscle tone

282
Q

What are the 3 components of the small intestine?

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
283
Q

What are the 2 serous membranes of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A
  1. parietal periteoneum
  2. visceral peritoneum
284
Q

What does the parietal peritoneum of the abdominopelvic cavity cover?

A

Lines surface of the body wall

285
Q

What does the visceral peritoneum of the abdominopelvic cavity cover?

A

Covers the surface of internal organs within the cavity

286
Q

What is the peritoneal cavity?

A

Space between parietal and visceral surface

287
Q

What is the general function of the peritoneal cavity?

A

Provides essential lubrication that allows sliding without friction

288
Q

What are the organs called that lie within the peritoneal cavity?

A

Intraperitoneal organs

289
Q

What are the 5 intraperitoneal organs?

A
  1. stomach
  2. liver
  3. spleen
  4. small intestine
  5. most of large intestine
291
Q

What are the 5 retroperitoneal organs?

A
  1. Kidneys
  2. pancreas
  3. duodenum
  4. ureters
  5. major abdominal blood vessels
292
Q

What are mesentaries?

A

Double sheet of peritoneum that supports and stabilizes intraperitoneal GI tract organs

293
Q

What are the 4 types of mesentaries?

A
  1. Lesser omentum
  2. Greater omentum
  3. Mesentary proper
  4. Mesocolon
294
Q

What is a peritoneal ligament?

A

Peritoneal fold that attaches one organ to another

295
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the right lobe of the liver?

A
  1. Caudate
  2. Quadrate
296
Q

What are the 4 peritoneal ligaments?

A
  1. Falciform ligament
  2. Round ligament
  3. Coronary ligament
  4. Ligamentum venosum
297
Q

What does the falciform ligament separate?

A

Right and left lobes of the liver

298
Q

Where is the round ligament found?

A

Base of the falciform ligament

299
Q

What is the coronary ligament?

A

Division of falciform that suspends liver from diaphragm

300
Q

What is the ligamentum venosum located between?

A

posteriorly: porta hepatis and coronary ligament

301
Q

What are the liver cells called?

A

Hepatocytes

302
Q

Describe the 3 components of the portal triad composition.

A
  1. Bile ductule
  2. Branch of hepatic portal vein
  3. Branch of hepatic artery
303
Q

What are the 3 units (anatomical and functional) that hepatocytes, bile ducts, and sinusoids can be organized in to?

A
  1. Hepatic lobule (anatomical model)
  2. Portal lobule (exocrine function model)
  3. Hepatic acinus (functional model)
304
Q

What does the gall bladder to the bile that was produced in the liver?

A

Stores and modifies it; 40-70ml max

305
Q

T/F: the pancreas has exocrine function but no endocrine functions

A

False; both endo and exocrine functions

306
Q

What performs the endocrine functions in the pancreas?

A

Pancreatic islets that secrete insulin and glucagon

307
Q

What performs the exocrine functions of the pancreas?

A

acinar cells secreting pancreatic juice

308
Q

What are the 7 functions of the urinary system?

A
  1. Remove waste from blood
  2. Storage of urine
  3. Excretion of urine
  4. Regulate blood vol.
  5. regulate erythrocyte production
  6. Regulation of ion levels
  7. regulate acid-base balance
309
Q

What vertebrae segment are the kidneys located between?

310
Q

What is the right kidney 2 cm lower than the left kidney?

A

To accommodate for the liver

311
Q

What are the superior & inferior portions of the kidneys referred to as?

A

Poles or extremities

312
Q

What components of the nephron is contained within the cortex?

A
  1. Corpuscles
  2. Proximal tubules
  3. Distal tubules
313
Q

What components of the nephron are located within the medulla?

A
  1. Loop of Henle
  2. Collecting duct
314
Q

Describe glomerular filtration of the kidneys.

A

Move substances from blood in glomerulus into capsular space

315
Q

Describe tubular reabsorption.

A

Movement of substances from tubular fluid back into blood

316
Q

Describe tubular secretion in the kidneys?

A

Movement of substances from the blood into the tubular fluid

317
Q

What are the 6 arteries that supply blood to the kidneys?

A
  1. Renal artery
  2. suprarenal artery
  3. Segmental artery
  4. Interlobar arteries
  5. Corticol radiate arteries
  6. Arcuate arteries
318
Q

What are the 4 veins that contribute to the blood supply of the kidneys?

A
  1. Renal vein
  2. Interlobar vein
  3. Arcuate vein
  4. cortical radiate veins
319
Q

Where does the ureter conduct urine to and from?

A

From kidney to urinary bladder

320
Q

Where does the ureter originate from?

A

Renal pelvis at the hilum of the kidney

321
Q

The ureters are composed of 3 concentric tunics, what are they?

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Muscularis
  3. Adventitia
322
Q

What does the peristalis allow for?

A

Movement of urine

323
Q

Where is the urinary bladder located?

A

Immediately posterior to the pubic symphysis

324
Q

What is the urachus? What does it become?

A

Canal connecting bladder to umbilical cord. Becomes the median umbilical ligament

325
Q

What is the trigone of the urinary bladder?

A

triangular area formed by ureteral openings

326
Q

What is the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder?

A

Smooth muscle that allows for uniform contraction of the bladder

327
Q

How many smooth muscle layers compose the detrusor muscle?

328
Q

What is the internal urethral sphincter?

A

Smooth muscles encircling the urethral opening

329
Q

What is micturition?

A

Expulsion of urine from the bladder

330
Q

Where in the brain is the micturition center that stretch receptors send signals to?

A

Micturition centre in the pons

331
Q

At roughly how many ml does an individual first have the urge to pee?

332
Q

When will the internal urethral sphincter start to open?

A

Over 200 ml; involuntary

333
Q

When will the external urethral sphincter open? Is it voluntary or involuntary?

A

500-800ml; voluntarily opens

334
Q

Describe the composition of the ureter.

A

A fibromuscular tube

335
Q

What is the outermost layer of the urethra?

A

Adventitia

336
Q

What is the 2nd outer layer of the urethraa?

A

Circular muscle

337
Q

What is the 3rd outtermost layer of the urethra called?

A

Longitudinal muscle

338
Q

What is the second innermost layer of the urethra called?

339
Q

What is the innermost layer of the urethra called?

340
Q

What are the 3 partitioned sections of the male urethra?

A
  1. Prostatic urethra
  2. Membranous urethra
  3. Spongy urethra

Functional Human Anatomy (7 decks)

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