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Functional Human Anatomy > Introduction to Anatomy > Flashcards

Introduction to Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Compare and contract the terms ‘Anatomy’ and ‘Physiology’.

A

Anatomy: observation of the human body
Physiology: focuses on function

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2
Q

Identify the 4 notable figures in the history of anatomy.

A
  1. Herophillis
  2. Galen
  3. Da Vinci
  4. Henry Gray’s anatomy
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3
Q

Identify the 5 structural organizations of the body

A
  1. Molecular (chemical) level:
  2. Cellular level:
  3. Tissue level
  4. Organ level
  5. Organ system level
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4
Q

Identify the 4 types of tissues

A
  1. Muscle
  2. Nerve
  3. Epithelium
  4. Connective
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5
Q

Identify the 11 organ systems

A
  1. Integumentary
  2. Skeletal
  3. Muscle
  4. Endocrine
  5. Cardiovascular
  6. Respiratory
  7. Reproductive
  8. Digestive
  9. Lymphatic
  10. Urinary
  11. Nervous
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6
Q

Compare and contrast macroscopic and microscopic anatomy. What is the common name for macroscopic? What are the 2 study approaches for microscopic anatomy?

A
  1. Macroscopic: aka gross anatomy. Larger, visible structures
  2. Microscopic: require magnification. Histology (tissue) approach and cytology (cell) approach
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7
Q

Identify the 6 approaches to gross anatomy. Briefly explain each approach.

A
  1. Comparative: similarities/differences
  2. Developmental: changes across the lifespan
  3. Embryology: fetal development
  4. Systemic: structures in a specific system
  5. Regional: structures within a single region
  6. Surface: anatomical markings related to skin
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8
Q

What are the 3 specialized branches of anatomy?

A
  1. Pathologica/clinical
  2. Surgical
  3. Radiographic
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9
Q

Identify and describe the 4 anatomical planes?

A
  1. Coronal (frontal): Divide body into front & back
  2. Transverse (horizontal): Divide body into upper & lower
  3. Midsaggital (media): Divide body into left & right
  4. Oblique: Slant/angle; used for convenience
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10
Q

Identify the two anatomic regions. What structures are included in each region?

A
  1. Axial: head, neck, and trunk (vertical axis)
  2. Appendicular: upper and lower limbs
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11
Q

The two main anatomic cavities are the dorsal (posterior) and the ventral (anterior), what are the 2 functions of cavities? What are the 2 dorsal cavities and the 3 ventral cavities?

A

Functions: protect organs, allow size/shape changes
Dorsal: Cranial and spinal cavities
Ventral: Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic cavities.

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12
Q

Identify and describe the 4 regions of the mediastinum. Remembering the mediastinum is not a cavity.

A

Superior: above the heart
Inferior: below heart
Anterior: in front of the heart
Posterior: Behind the heart

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13
Q

Identify the name of cavity membranes. What are the 3 ones found in the body?

A

Serous membrane (serosa)
1. Pleura: surround lungs
2. Pericardium: surround heart
3. Peritoneum: surround digestive organs

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14
Q

Differentiate between the inner and outer serous membranes of a cavity.

A

Visceral (inner): Sits against organs
Parietal (outer): Not against organs
Cavity: space in between visceral and parietal

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15
Q

What is contained in the right upper quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portion of stomach, small/large intestine

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16
Q

What is contained in the right lower quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

cecum, appendix, small intestine portions, reproductive organs (right ovary/spermatic cord), right urether

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17
Q

What is contained in the left upper quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portion of large intestine

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18
Q

What is contained in the left lower quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

Most small intestine, some large intestine, left urether, reproductive organs (left ovary/spermatic cord)

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19
Q

What are the 4 main functions of bones?

A
  1. Support and protection
  2. Movement
  3. Hemopoiesis
  4. Mineral storage and energy reserve
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20
Q

What are the two ways bones are classified?

A
  1. Location (axial vs. appendicular)
  2. Shape (4 classes)
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21
Q

What are the classes of bones? Provide examples

A
  1. Flatbones: cranial bones, sternum, ribs, (sutural bones)
  2. Short bones: wrist and ankle bones (sesamoid bones)
  3. Long bones: humerus, radius, femur)
  4. Irregular bones: vertebrae, ossa coxae
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22
Q

Identify and explain the 6 components of long bones.

A
  1. Diaphysis: shaft
  2. Metaphysis: neck
  3. Epiphysis (distal and proximal)
  4. Articular cartilage (covers epiphysis @ joint surface)
  5. Endosteum: Covers internal bone surface
  6. Periosteum: covers outer bone surface
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23
Q

Identify and explain the 4 cells of bone connective tissues.

A
  1. Osteoprogenitor: stem cells in endosperm/periosteum
  2. Osteoblasts: formed from ^; add to bone matrix
  3. Osteocytes: differentiate from osteoblasts, maintain bone matrix
  4. Osteoclasts: phagocytic, remove bone matrix (HCl dissolves Ca & P)
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24
Q

What are the two types of bone marrow? Distinguish between the two.

A
  1. Red bone marrow: produce new blood cells
  2. Yellow bone marrow: potential energy storage (lipids)
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25
Q

Name the 4 anatomical terms for articulating surfaces.

A
  1. Condyle: large, rounded
  2. Facet: small, shallow
  3. Head: rounded epiphysis
  4. Trochlea: groove, pulley-like
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26
Q

Name the 3 anatomical terms for depressions.

A
  1. Alveolus: deep pit/socket
  2. Fossa: shallow depression
  3. Sulcus: narrow groove
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27
Q

Name the 9 anatomical terms for projections for tendon/ligament attachment

A
  1. Crest: ridgelike
  2. Epicondyle: adjacent to condyle
  3. Line: low ridge
  4. Process: bony prominence
  5. Ramus: angular extension
  6. Spine: slender and pointed
  7. Trochanter: massive, rough projection
  8. Tubercle: Small, rounded projection
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28
Q

Name the 4 anatomical terms for openings/spaces.

A
  1. Canal: passageway
  2. Fissue: narrow opening
  3. Foramen: rounded passageway
  4. Sinus: cavity/hollow space
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29
Q

Name the bones of the skull (8 cranial and 14 facial)

A
  1. Frontal, temporal, occipital, parietal, sphenoid, ethmoid
  2. zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, vomer, palatine, lacrimal bones, inferior nasal concha, nasal bones
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30
Q

How many C, T, and L vertebrae are there? How many are fused to from the sacrum and coccyx? How many rips are there?

A

C: 7
T: 12
L: 5
Coccyx: 4
Sacrum: 5
Ribs: 24 (2x14)

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31
Q

Name the 4 associated bones of the skull.

A
  1. Hyoid
  2. Incus
  3. Stapes
  4. Malleus
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32
Q

What are the 3 subdivided regions of the axial skeleton?

A
  1. Skull & associated bones
  2. Vertebral column
  3. Thoracic cage
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33
Q

What are the 3 cranial fossa/depression?

A
  1. Anterior cranial fossa
  2. Middle cranial fossa
  3. Posterior cranial fossa
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34
Q

There are 4 major fontanels of the infant skull, what are they? When do these fontanels close?

A
  1. Anterior fontanel (bregma)
  2. Posterior fontanel (lambda)
  3. Sphenoidal fontanel x 2
  4. Mastoid fontanel x2
    Fontanels close around 15 months
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35
Q

What is the functional anatomy of fontanels?

A

Allow flexibility during the birthing process, exposed membranous areas (dura mater)

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36
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary spinal curves.

A
  1. Primary: thoracic and sacral curves during fetal development (concave)
  2. Secondary: cervical and lumbar curve after birth (convex)
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37
Q

Name and explain the 3 abnormal curvatures of the spinal column.

A
  1. Kyphosis: affects primary curvature (humpback - thoracic region)
  2. Lordosis: affects secondary curvature (sway back)
  3. Scoliosis: crooked or curved back (vertebrae rotate)
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38
Q

Name and describe the 3 injuries of the vertebral column.

A
  1. Spondylosis: osteoarthritis of spinal joint
  2. Spondylolysis: defect or fracture of the pars interarticularis
  3. Spondylolisthesis: displacement of vertebrae as a result of spondylolysis
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39
Q

Which vertebrae lack a body and spinous process? What structures are in their place?

A

C1: Atlas; has an anterior and posterior arch and tubercle

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40
Q

What is unique about the C2: Axis vertebrae?

A

It has an odontoid process (dens)

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41
Q

What are the characteristics of a cervical vertebrae? What are the exceptions to these characteristics?

A
  1. Smallest vertebrae
  2. Has a bifid spinous process
  3. Large vertebral foramen
    C1 & C7 (vertebra prominens) are not bifid
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42
Q

What are the characteristics of a thoracic vertebrae?

A
  • Long slender spinous processes that point down
  • Costal demi facets - transverse process and body
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43
Q

What are the characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • No specialized features
  • Largest vertebrae
  • Short spinous process
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44
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the sacrum?

A
  1. Support the vertebral column
  2. Site of attachment between axial and lower appendicular skeleton
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45
Q

What are the 4 components of the thoracic cage?

A
  1. Sternum
  2. Ribs
  3. Costal cartilages
  4. 12 thoracic vertebrae/intervetebral discs
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46
Q

What are the 2 functions of the thoracic cage?

A
  1. Protection for contents of the thoracic cavity
  2. Support and attachment for pelvic girdle and respiratory muscles
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47
Q

There are 12 sets of ribs. Differentiate and describe each rib based on the 5 rib classifications.

A

True ribs: 1-7; Connect to sternum via costal cartilages
False ribs: 8-10; Don’t directly attach to sternum; cartilage fuse with 7th rib
Floating ribs: 11-12; single connect to vertebral column; no cartilage
Typical ribs: 2-9: 2 demi-facets on rib head and articulates with vertebrae
Atypical ribs: 1, 10-12; no facet on tubercle, doesn’t articulate on transverse process

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48
Q

What ligament are the radius and ulna connected by?

A

Joined by an interosseous membrane (ligament)

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49
Q

Number the metacarpals

A

1st: thumb
5th: pinky

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50
Q

There are 8 carpals that are considered short bones. What type of short bone are they?

A

Sesamoid bone

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51
Q

Rank the carpals (top 3), in terms of how likely they are to fracture.

A
  1. Scaphoid
  2. Hamate
  3. Triquetrum
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52
Q

What 3 things does the os coxae consist of? What is the general term for both the left and right os coxae?

A
  1. Ilium
  2. Ishium
  3. Pubis
    Pelvic girdle
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53
Q

What 3 things does the pelvis consist of?

A
  1. Sacrum
  2. Coccyx
  3. Ossa coxae
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54
Q

What is the ischial tuberosity an attachment point?

A

Attachment point for the hamstrings

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55
Q

Name and describe the 3 features of the pelvis

A
  1. Pelvic brim: continuous bony ridge
  2. Pelvic inlet: enclosed by pelvic brim
  3. Pelvic outlet: bounded by coccyx, ischial tuberosity, inferior border of pubic symphysis
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56
Q

Name and describe the 2 pelvic cavity subdivisions.

A
  1. Greater (false) pelvis: left-right iliac crest to pelvic brim; contains lower digestive organs
  2. Lesser (true) pelvis: pelvic brim to pelvic outlet; contains reproductive organs, bladder, rectum
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57
Q

What are some main differences between the sacrum and pelvis of males and females?

A

Female pelvis is wider and larger, shorter and wider sacrum, and broader subpubic angle

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58
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A

Short, sesamoid bone.

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59
Q

What are the 4 types of tissues? What germ layer does each derive from?

A
  1. Epithelia; all 3
  2. Connective; mesoderm
  3. Muscle; mesoderm
  4. Nervous; ectoderm
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60
Q

What is the general function of epithelia?

A

Covers surfaces; lines organs & body cavities, produce glandular secretions

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61
Q

What is the general function of connective tissue?

A

Protects, binds, and supports organs, stores energy

62
Q

Describe what develops from the 3 primary germ layers.

A

Ecto: epidermis, nervous, endocrine, nasal passage
Meso: dermis, skeletal, muscular, endocrine, cardio, lymphoid, urinary, reproductive
Endo: endocrine, respiratory, digestive, urinary, gametes

63
Q

Define the following terms: Blastocyst, yolk sac, hypoblast, and epiblast.

A

Blastocyst: cells that implant on the wall of the uterus
Yolk sac: contains fat, disappears ~2mo.
Hypoblast: forms endoderm
Epiblast: sits on hypoblast

64
Q

What are the 3 cellular junctions?

A
  1. Tight junctions
  2. Anchoring junctions
  3. Gap junctions
65
Q

Describe tight junctions.

A

Close to the apical surface and allows for teh regulation of the passage of material

66
Q

What are the 3 types of anchoring junctions

A
  1. adhering junctions
  2. Desmosome (cell to cell)
  3. Hemidesmosome (cell to basal lamina)
67
Q

Describe avascularity.

A

W/o blood; nutrients received through slow diffusion between dermis and blood vessel.

68
Q

Describe innervation.

A

When a nerve interacts with a cell

69
Q

Name and describe the 5 fibres of the cell skeleton.

A
  1. Microfilaments; small, common in muscle/epithelia
  2. Intermediate filament: myosin/keratin, in muscle cells
  3. Microvilli: hair-like projections
  4. Cillia: long projections
  5. Microtubules: largest cytoskeleton fibres
70
Q

What are the 3 shapes that are used to classify epithelia?

A
  1. Squamous
  2. Cubodial
  3. Columnar
71
Q

What are the two classifications of epithelia based on layers?

A
  1. Simple
  2. Stratified
72
Q

What are the 2 ‘other’ classifications of epithelial cells?

A
  1. Pseudostratified: false appearance of layered cells
  2. Translational: multiple layers
73
Q

In squamous epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?

A

Simple: reduce friction, control permeability, perform secretions. E.g. linings
Stratified: protect against abrasive pathogens/chemical attack

74
Q

In cuboidal epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?

A

Simple: secretion, production, absorption of nutrients ex. glands
Stratified: protection and secretion ex. sweat gland lining

75
Q

In columnar epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?

A

Simple: Absorption and secretion; lines intestine
Stratified: protection and secretion ex. salivary gland ducts

76
Q

Differentiate between exocrine and endocrine glands. What are the two arrangement classifications?

A

Exocrine: connect to the outside through an epithelial duct.
Arrange. classifications:
1. Simple glands
2. Compound glands

77
Q

What is ground substance?

A

Gelatinous, rubbery consistency composed of sugars and proteins

78
Q

What are the 5 kinds of proteins? Which is the most abundant in the body (provide %)?

A
  1. Collagen *most abundant (25%)
  2. Elastic fibres
  3. Reticular fibres
  4. Fixed cells
  5. Wandering cells
79
Q

What do the reticular fibers form, and where?

A

Form a branching network in the stroma of organs

80
Q

Name and describe the 6 fixed (resident) cells.

A
  1. Fibroblasts: produce CT fibres; young
  2. Fibrocytes: maintain CT fibres/matrix; mature
  3. Fixed macrophages: WBC
  4. Adipocytes: stored lipid reserve (fat cells)
  5. Mesenchymal cells: CT stem cells that differentiate
  6. Melanocytes: synthesize melanin
81
Q

The categories of connective tissue proper is based upon relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground matrix. What are the 3 types of loose CT and 3 dense CT?

A

Loose:
1. Areolar tissue
2. Adipose tissue
3. Reticular tissue
Dense
1. dense regular CT
2. dense irregular CT
3. Elastic CT

82
Q

Name and describe the 4 types of wandering cells.

A
  1. Free macrophages: WBC mobile
  2. Mast cells: stimulate local inflammation
  3. Lymphocytes: WBC
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils: WBC
83
Q

Describe the following terms: Ground substance, perichondrium, proteins, lacuna; in relation to cartilage

A

Ground substance: gel-like matrix, made of complex polysaccharides
Perichondrium: Chondrocyte: prevents the formation of blood vessels
Proteins: collagen and elastic fibers
Lacuna: little space where chondrocytes reside

84
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage? Briefly describe each

A
  1. Hyaline: most common, loosely packed collagen, surrounded by perichondrium
  2. Fibrous: little ground substance, lack perichondrium
  3. Elastic: resilient and flexible, surrounded by perichondrium
85
Q

What are the 4 types of body membranes?

A
  1. Mucous
  2. Serous
  3. Cutaneous
  4. Synovial
86
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissues?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Smooth muscle
87
Q

What are the two types of neural tissue cells?

A
  1. Neurons: specialized to conduct electricity
  2. Neuroglia: supporting framework, smaller and more abundant
88
Q

Fascia is the layer of connective tissue that can be seen during gross dissection. What are the 3 types of fascia?

A
  1. Superficial fascia
  2. Deep fascia
  3. Subserous fascia
89
Q

What is superficial fascia?

A

The layer of loose CT between the skin and underlying organs/ Provides padding/movement between skin and underlying structures.

90
Q

What is deep fascia?

A

Dense CT that forms a strong fibrous internal network. Passes between muscles forming compartments

91
Q

What is subserous fascia?

A

Areolar tissue between the serous membrane and deep fascia

92
Q

What are the 2 layers of the cutaneous membrane?

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
93
Q

There are 4-5 layers in the epidermis. What is unique about the superficial layer? How long does it take cells to go from deep to superficial?

A

Superficial layer: multiple dead cells that lack nuclei and organelles and contain lots of keratin. 15-30 days for cells to move from deep to superficial

94
Q

Describe the dermis. Include both the superficial and deep layers.

A

Superficial: made of areolar connective tissue
Deep: made of dense irregular CT (mostly collagen)

95
Q

What is meant by the term aponeurosis?

A

A broad, flat tendon. Attaches angle of ribs to

96
Q

What are the 2 general classifications of joints? Briefly explain each.

A
  1. Structural: based on the type of CT
  2. Functional: based on ROM of joint
97
Q

What are the 3 structural classifications of joints? Briefly describe each.

A
  1. Fibrous: Bones held together by dense regular CT
  2. Cartilaginous: Bones held together by cartilage
  3. Synovial: Fluid-filled joint cavity separating cartilage-covered bone surfaces
98
Q

What are the 3 functional classifications of joints? Briefly explain each.

A
  1. Synarthrosis: immovable joint
  2. Ampiarthrosis: slightly moveable joint
  3. Diarthrosis: freely moveable
99
Q

Relate the 3 structural classifications with the 3 functional classifications

A
  1. Fibrous; synarthrosis
  2. Cartilagineous; amphiarthroses
  3. Synovial; diarthrosis
100
Q

What are the 3 synarthroses joints? (

A
  1. Suture: joints in skull (fibrous)
  2. Synostosis: fusion of bones in any type of joints (fibrous)
  3. Synchondrosis: Connecting medium, hyaline cartilage (cartiligenous)
101
Q

What are the 3 amphiarthroses joints?

A
  1. Gomphosis: teeth and bone joint
  2. Syndesmosis: connected by interosseous membrane (radio/ulnar; tib/fib)
  3. Symphysis: connected by fibrocartilage pad (pubic bone and vertebrae)
102
Q

What percents of water, albumen, and salts are in diarthroses joints?

A

95% water, 3.5% albumen, 1% salts

103
Q

What are the 4 components of Diarthroses joints? Briefly explain the function of each

A
  1. Articular cartilage: assists in ‘sliding’
  2. Joint capsule: boundary to joint; resists ROM
  3. Joint cavity
  4. Synovial membrane: Lubricates, protects, and distribute nutrients
104
Q

What are the 5 accessory components of diarthroses joints?

A
  1. Cartilage
  2. Fat pads
  3. Ligaments
  4. Tendons
  5. Bursae
105
Q

What is the function of cartilage in diarthroses joints?

A

Cushions the joint and provides stability with a fibrocartilage pad

106
Q

What is the function of fat pads in diarthroses joints?

A

Protect articular surfaces (superficial and deep)

107
Q

What is the function of ligaments in diarthroses joints?

A

Reinforces selected portions both intrinsic and extrinsic to the joint

108
Q

What is the function of tendons in diarthroses joints?

A

Attach to muscles around joint and are required for movement

109
Q

What is the function of bursae in diarthroses joints?

A

Synovial fluid pocket that limits frictions and cushions the areas where tendons or ligaments rub

110
Q

What are 4 factors that affect ROM or stability of the joint?

A
  1. Structure of bones involved
  2. Strength of joint capsule and ligaments
  3. Surrounding musculature and tendons
  4. Menisci (stability not ROM)
111
Q

What are the two common injuries associated with diarthroses joints? Briefly describe each

A
  1. Dislocation: separation or luxation
  2. Subluxation: partial separation
112
Q

What 4 things are the types of diarthrosis joints based on?

A
  1. Shape of the articulating surface
  2. Type of movement they permit
  3. Type of dynamic movement (linear, angular, rotation)
  4. Planes of motion (uni, bi, multiaxial)
113
Q

What are the 6 types of diarthrosis joints?

A
  1. Gliding/plane or arthrodia
  2. Hinge or ginglymus
  3. Pivot or trochoid
  4. Condyloid or ellipsoid
  5. Saddle or reciprocal reception
  6. Ball and socket or enarthrosis
114
Q

What are the two movement terminologies for describing movement?

A
  1. Refers to a bone or region
  2. Refers to a joint
115
Q

There are two types of movements of diarthrosis joints: angular and rotational movements. What are the 4 angular movements? Identify the planes of motion for each.

A
  1. Abduction/adduction: frontal plane
  2. Flexion/extension: Saggital plane
  3. Lateral flexion: head moving along frontal plane
  4. Circumduction: cone shape; both abductor/adductor and flexion/extension
116
Q

There are two types of movements of diarthrosis joints: angular and rotational movements. What are the 2 rotational movements? What 2 types of diarthrosis joints are required for rotation?

A
  1. Medial/lateral rotation
  2. Supination/pronation
    Joints: pivot or diarthrosis
117
Q

Describe medial and lateral rotation in terms of the scapula.

A

Lateral rotation: inferior angle away from the midline
Medial rotation: inferior angle toward midline

118
Q

What are the 4 special movements at diarthrosis joints?

A
  1. Inversion/eversion
  2. Dorsiflexion/plantar flexion
  3. Protraction/retraction
  4. Depression/Elevation
119
Q

What are the 3 thumb movements?

A
  1. Abduction/adduction
  2. Extension/flexion
  3. Opposition/reposition
120
Q

What are the 4 suture of the skull called? What bones do each

A
  1. Coronal suture
  2. Lambboid suture
  3. Saggital suture
  4. Squamous suture
121
Q

What is the pterion?

A

The junction between the frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal bones. Middle mingeal artery passes under this weakspot

122
Q

What type of joint in the temporomandibular (jaw) joint?

A

Hinge and gliding joint (ginglymo-plane)

123
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint? What movements does this joint perform? What are the 2 supporting ligaments of this joint?

A

Synovial joint; flexion/extension and slight lateral motion; anterior & posterior atlantooccipital ligament

124
Q

What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint? What 2 movements does this joint perform? What are the 4 supporting ligaments of this joint?

A

Diarthroses; Pivot and plane; anterior & posterior atlantoaxial lig., zygopophysial lig., and transverse lig.

125
Q

What are the two types of joints in the vertebral column? Where are each located?

A
  1. Diarthrosis plane; between facet joints
  2. Amphiarthrosis symphysis; between vertebral bodies
126
Q

What are the 5 intervertebral ligaments and where do they connect?

A
  1. Anterior longitudinal lig.; connects bodies anteriorly
  2. Posterior longitudinal lig.; connects bodies posteriorly
  3. Ligamentum flavum; connects laminae
  4. Interspinous lig.; connects spinous processes
  5. Supraspinous lig.; connects tips of C7-sacrum
127
Q

What are the 2 types of joints between the ribs and vertebrae? What type of joints are they? Where do they connect?

A

Diarthrosis joints
1. Costovertebral: rib head to vertebrae body
2. Costotranverse: rib tubercle w/ transverse process

128
Q

What are the 3 types of joints between the cartilages of the ribs and the sternum? What type of joint is each?

A
  1. Costochondral joints: synarthrosis
  2. Interchondral joints: diarthrosis
  3. Chondrosternal: synarthrosis (rib 1); diarthrosis (rib 2-7)
129
Q

What type of joint is the sterno-calvicular joint? What are the 3 ligaments associated with this joint?

A

Diarthrosis saddle
1/2. Joint capsule (ante/post sternoclavicular lig.)
3. Interclavicular lig.

130
Q

What are the 2 ligs. of the acromioclavicular (AC) joint? What type of joint is the AC joint?

A
  1. Trapezoid lig.
  2. Conoid lig.
    Diarthrosis plane joint
131
Q

What type of joint is the glenohumeral (GH) joint? What are the 3 bursa of this joint?

A

Diarthrosis ball-and-socket
1. Subacromial bursa
2. Subdeltoif bursa
3. Subcoracoid bursa

132
Q

What structure provides stability to the shoulder joint?

A

The glenoid labrum fibrocartilage pad

133
Q

There are two sub-joints in the elbow joint. What type of joint are they?

A

Diarthrosis hinge
1. Humeoulnar
2. Humeoradial

134
Q

What are the 3 sub-joints of the radio-ulnar joint? What type of joint is each?

A
  1. Superior radio-ulnar joint (diarthrosis pivot)
  2. Middle radio-ulnar joint (amphiarthrosis syndesmosis)
  3. Inferior radio-ulnar joint
135
Q

Describe the radiocarpal joint. What type of joint is it?

A

Fibrocartilage pad between the radius and the proximal row of the carpal bones. Diarthrosis condyloid joint.

136
Q

There are 5 diarthrosis joints of the hand; name each and indicate the type of diarthrosis joint.

A
  1. Carpometacarpal joint fo thumb (saddle)
  2. Intercarpal (plane)
  3. Metacarpophalangeal joints (condyloid)
  4. Carpometacarpal joints (plane)
  5. Interphalangeal joints (hinge)
137
Q

What are the 2 ligaments of the hand?

A

Superficial (back) transverse metacarpal lig.
Deep (front) transverse metacarpal lig.

138
Q

What type of joint is the sacroiliac joint currently classified as?

A

Diarthrodial synovial plane joint

139
Q

What type of joint is the pubis symphysis? What 3 joints are associated with this joint?

A

Amphiarthrosis symphysis, cartilaginous.
1/2. Superior/inferior pubic ligaments
3. Inguinal ligament

140
Q

What type of joint is the coxal joint?

A

Diarthrosis ball and socket joint; synovial

141
Q

Define the following terms: coxa vara, coxa valga, genu valga, and genu vara

A

Coxa vara: femur angle in (<120)
Coxa valga: femur angle out (>140)
Genu valga: tin/fib angle out
Genu vara: tib/fib angle in

142
Q

What are the 3 types of torsion angles of the femur? What direction do the feet point in each case?

A
  1. Retroversion - feet point out
  2. Normal ante version - feet neutral
  3. Excessive anteversion - pigeon-toed
143
Q

What type of acetabular depth is ideal for either runners or weight lifters?

A

Runners: deep hip socket
Weight lifter: shallow socket

144
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint? What are the 2 points of contact in this joint?

A

Complex hinge joint
1. Patella and femur
2. Femur and tibia

145
Q

Where does the patellar retinacula lig. connect?

A

The medial and lateral sides of the patella to the tibia

146
Q

What movements do the ACL and PCL’s prevent?

A

ACL: prevents hyperextension
PCL: prevent hyperflexion

147
Q

There are 3 articulations between the tibia and fibula, what are the names and types of each?

A
  1. Superior articulation; diarthrosis plane
  2. Middle articulation; amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
  3. Inferior articulation; amphiarthrosis, syndesmosis
148
Q

What type of joint is the ankle joint? What 2 articulations are in the ankle joint? What is the main ligament in this joint?

A

Diarthrosis hinge, synovial
1. Tibiotalar articulation
2. Fibulotalar articulation
Medial (deltoid) lig.

149
Q

What are the 2 joints of the foot that inversion/eversion are a result of?

A
  1. Subtalar (talocalcaneal joint)
  2. Transverse tarsal joint (medio-tarsal joint)
150
Q

What are the 3 ligaments of the intertarsal joints? Which bones do these each connect?

A
  1. Long plantar ligament - calcaneus and cuboid
  2. Short plantar ligament - calcaneus and cuboid
  3. Spring ligament - calcaneus and navicular

Functional Human Anatomy (7 decks)

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