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Oral Bio E2 > Lecture 3 > Flashcards

Lecture 3 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

nondisjunction

A

error in cell division

  • failure of chromosomal pair or 2 chromatids to disjoin
  • may occur in maternal or paternal gametogenesis
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2
Q

down syndrome (trisomy 21)

A
  • extra copy of chromosome 21
  • decreased alpha fetoprotein (AFP) levels
  • error during meiotic division
  • varying levels of mental retardation, craniofacial anomalies, cardiac defects, hypotonia, early onset of Alzheimer’s disease
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3
Q

alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

A

plasma protein produced by the old sac and the liver during fetal life
-though to be a fetal counterpart of serum albumin

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4
Q

menstrual phase

A

day 1-4, the functional layer is sloughed off

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5
Q

proliferative phase

A

day 5-14, the functional layer becomes thicker

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6
Q

secretory phase

A

day 15-28, the functional layer is very thick, the glands are filled with glycogen

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7
Q

ovulation days

A

~day 14-15

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8
Q

2 functions of the ovaries

A
  • oogenesis- production of oocytes (female gamete)

- steroidogenesis- hormone production (estrogen and progesterone)

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9
Q

2 major events happening in the ovary

A
  • maturation of the follicle

- maturation of the oocyte

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10
Q

what structures are ovulated on day 14?

A
  • oocyte
  • zona pellicida- glycoprotein structure surrounding the oocyte
  • corona radiata- specialized cells of the ovarian follicle that surround the zona pellucida
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11
Q

what gives rise to the corpus luteum?

A

granolas cells that stay in the ovary

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12
Q

two systems for dating pregnancies?

A
  • fertilization age

- menstrual age

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13
Q

fertilization age

A

dates pregnancy from the time of fertilization

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14
Q

menstrual age

A

dates pregnancy from the woman’s last normal menstrual period.
- the menstrual age of a human embryo is 2 weeks greater than the fertilization age because usually 2 weeks elapse between the start of the last menstrual period and fertilization

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15
Q

fertilization age pregnancy division

A
  • period of early embryo (3 weeks)
  • period of embryonic organogenesis (8 weeks)
  • fetal period (38 weeks)
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16
Q

menstrual age pregnancy division

A

3 equally dated trimesters

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17
Q

major events of week 1

A
  • cleavage divisions produce smaller daughter cells
  • the morula enters the uterus
  • zona pellucid breaks down and a central cavity is formed (blastocele)
  • developing embryo is called a blastocyst
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18
Q

embryoblast

A

development of embryo

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19
Q

trophoblast

A

involved in maintenance

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20
Q

once the blastocyst attached to the endometrial epithelium the endometrium changes in the following ways

A
  • arteries become elongated and coiled
  • uterine glands secrete nutrients (glycogen)
  • stromal cells become large and filled with glycogen and lipids
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21
Q

implantation induced the trophoblast to proliferate into

A
  • cytotrophoblast

- syncytiotrophoblast

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22
Q

cytotrophoblast layer

A

mitotically active, inner layer of cells

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23
Q

syncytiotrophoblast layer

A
  • many functions
  • always adjacent to maternal blood supply
  • produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
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24
Q

at the end of weeks 1

A
  • the endometrium has proliferated and is full of blood vessels and glands
  • the developing embryo is 7 days post fertilization and has begun migrating into the endometrium (implantation)
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25
Q

what is the period of maximal sensitivity to abnormal development of an embryo

A

3-8 weeks
embryonic period
-susceptibility to teratogens
-tissues and organs are forming and development of a system can be severely impacted

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26
Q

teratogens

A

environmental agents that cause congenital abnormalities

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27
Q

most ectopic pregnancies occur in the …

A

uterine tube/ oviduct

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28
Q

lithopedion

A
  • occurs in less than 2% of pregnancies
  • results from undiagnosed advanced abdominal pregnancy
  • embryo can grow to fetal size then calcifies
  • 40 year old presents with abdominal pain and features of acute intestinal obstruction
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29
Q

complete hydatidiform mole

A
  • fertilization of an empty oocyte by 1 or 2 sperm

- fetus is entirely missing

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30
Q

partial hydatidifrom mole

A
  • oocyte inseminated by 2 sperm
  • female pronucleus and 2 male pronuclei combine to form triploid nucleus
  • evidence of embryonic development usually found
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31
Q

clinical presentations of partial hydatidiform mole

A
  • abnormally high levels of plasma hCG
  • severe nausea and vomiting
  • vaginal bleeding
  • spontaneous abortion
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32
Q

during week 2 embryo blast reorganize into 2 epithelial layers

A
  • epiblast layer

- hypoblast layer

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33
Q

epiblast layer

A

-high, columnar cells related to the amniotic cavity

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34
Q

hypoblast layer

A

small cuboidal cells adjacent to the yolk sac

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35
Q

2 cavities that from during week 2

A
  • amniotic cavity

- primative yolk sac/umbilical vesicle

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36
Q

extraembryonic mesoderm

A

layer of loose connective tissue that forms between the yolk sac and the cytotrophoblast

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37
Q

chorionic cavity

A

space formed when the cavities of the extra embryonic mesoderm become confluent and divides the extra embryonic mesoderm into the

  • extraemrbyonic somatic mesoderm
  • extraembryonic splanchnic mesoder
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38
Q

extraembryonic somatic mesoderm

A

lining trophoblast and the amnion

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39
Q

extraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm

A

lines the yolk sac

40
Q

3 layers of the chorion

A
  • extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
  • cytotrophoblast layer
  • syncytiotrophoblast layer
41
Q

connecting stalk

A

future umbilical cord that suspends the amniotic cavity and yolk sac in the chronic cavity

42
Q

functions of the placenta

A
  • protection and nutrition
  • respiration and excretion
  • hormone production
43
Q

sources of amniotic fluid

A
  • amnion cells
  • maternal tissue
  • fetal urine
44
Q

what is oligohydramnios

A

-disorder of low volumes of amniotic fluid <500ml

45
Q

what causes oligohydramnios

A

-placental insufficiency with diminished placental blood flow (renal agenesis or obstructive uropathy)

46
Q

complications of oligohydramnios

A

-pulmonary hypoplasia, facial defects and limb defects, compression of umbilical cord

47
Q

what is polyhydramnios

A

-disorder of high volumes of amniotic fluid >2000ml

48
Q

what causes polyhydramnios

A
  • fetus does not swallow the usual amount of amniotic fluid
  • esophageal atresia
  • many cases are idiopathic
49
Q

complications of polyhydramnios

A
  • premature rupture of membranes/ premature birth

- IUGR (intra- uterine growth restriction)

50
Q

major event of week 3

A

gastrulation

51
Q

primitive streak

A

formed in week 3 when epiblast cells become motile and converge on the midline of the dorsal disc

52
Q

primitive groove

A

serves as an opening for cells to migrate ventrally

53
Q

primitive node

A

thickening at the end of the primitive streak

54
Q

endoderm

A

formed by epiblast cells that replace the entire hypoblast layer

55
Q

mesoderm

A

formed by epiblast cells that migrate between existing layers

56
Q

ectoderm

A

formed by cells that remain in the epiblast after gastrulation is complete

57
Q

when does the primitive streak disappear

A

by the end of week 4

58
Q

sacrococcygeal teratoma

A
  • remnants of the primitive streak persist in the sacrococcygeal area
  • cells in the streak proliferate and form a tumor
  • often contain tissues of all 3 germ layers
  • most common newborn tumor
59
Q

notochord develops from..and it

A
  • migrating mesoderm cells

- underlies the neural tube and serves as the basis for the axial skeleton

60
Q

neural tube closure occurs first in the …

A

cranial neuropore and then 2 days later in the caudal

61
Q

how does the neural tube close

A

the neural folds elevate, grow closer to the other and eventually fuse

62
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

typically asymptomatic, identified by dimple or tuft of hair
(oculta..)

63
Q

spina bifida with meningocele

A

fura mater missing in the area of the defect, with arachnoid layer bulging beneath the skin

64
Q

spina bifida with meningomyelocele

A

severe neurological defects below the level of the lesion

65
Q

myeloschisis

A

nuerofolds fail to fuse – most severe

66
Q

meroanencephaly

A
  • failure of the rostral neuropore to closer during the 4th week
  • forebrain development is abnormal
  • some or all of the brain stem is intact
  • overlying bone is defective (calvaria)
67
Q

derivatives of surface ectoderm

A
  • epidermis
  • nails
  • hair
  • substaneous glands
  • mammary glands
  • anterior pituitary
  • enamel
  • lens of eye
68
Q

derivatives of neural ectoderm

A
  • CNS
  • retina
  • posterior pituitary gland
  • pineal body
69
Q

neural crest cells

A
  • derived from ectoderm
  • 4th germ layer
  • migrate form their site of origin
  • very vulnerable
  • undergo ectodermal to mesenchymal differentiation
70
Q

paraxial mesoderm

A
  • bilateral mesoderm next to the neural tube
  • organized into somitomers in the head region
  • caudally smoothers organize into somites
  • age of the embryo is correlated to the number of somites
  • each somite forms its own sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
71
Q

sclerotome

A

axial skeleton

72
Q

dermatome

A

dermis of the back

73
Q

myotome

A

developing muscular system: myotome regions of somite that give rise to skeletal muscles

74
Q

intermediate mesoderm

A
  • gives rise to urogenital system

- functionally divided into urinary system and genital system

75
Q

lateral plate mesoderm

A

epithelium lining the cavity (mesothelium)

-somatic mesoderm and splanchnic mesoderm

76
Q

somatic mesoderm

A

with the overlying ectoderm will form the body wall

77
Q

splanchnic mesoderm

A

with the underlying endoderm will form the gut wall

78
Q

body folding occurs in 2 planes

A
  • longitudinal or medial plane (cranial- caudal)

- horizontal plate (lateral body folding)

79
Q

cranial fold/ head folding

A
  • septum transversum
  • primordial heart
  • pericardial cavity
  • oropharyngeal membrane
  • froms the foregut
80
Q

tail folding

A
  • primitive streak
  • cloacal membrane
  • connecting stalk
  • forms the hindgut
81
Q

lateral folding (growth of somites)

A
  • forms body wall

- forms the midgut

82
Q

endoderm is folded into the body cavity and gives rise to

A
  • pharyngeal foregut epithelium
  • foregut proper epithelium
  • respiratory epithelium
  • midgut epithelium
  • hindgut epithelium
  • glands of the respiratory and digestive system
83
Q

splanchnic mesoderm forms

A

the muscle and connective tissue layers, blood vessels and peritoneal components

84
Q

omphalocele

A
  • failure of the intestines to return to the body cavity
  • covered by amnion
  • often associated with other malformations
85
Q

gastroschisis

A
  • protrusion of the viscera into the amniotic cavity due to abnormal closure of the body wall
  • viscera are not covered by amnion
86
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum

A
  • most common congenital defect of the GI system
  • due to persistence of the vitalize duct
  • anti-mesenteric border of the ileum
  • typically no symptoms
  • may contain ectopic gastric or pancreatic mucosa
87
Q

osteoclasts originate from

A

blood cells derived monocytes

88
Q

osteocytes, osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteoprogenitor cells originate from

A

mesenchymal stem cell

89
Q

mesodermal cells give rise to

A

mesenchyme (embryonic connective tissue)

90
Q

neural crest cells give rise to

A

ectomesenchyme

91
Q

embryological sources of bone are

A
  • paraxial mesoderm
  • lateral plate somatic mesoderm
  • neural crest cells
92
Q

paraxial mesoderm in bone development

A

sclerotome forms the majority of the axial skeleton

  • vertebral column
  • ribs
  • base of the skull
93
Q

cells of the sclerotome form..

A

the vertebral body and the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disc

94
Q

the notochondral cells enclosed y the sclerotome …

A

form the nucleus pulpous of the disc

95
Q

lateral plate somatic mesoderm in bone development

A

forms

  • the bones of the limbs
  • sternum
  • pelvic girdle
  • shoulder girdle
96
Q

neural crest cells in bone development

A

they have a critical role in the development of the face

Oral Bio E2 (11 decks)

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