Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Lecture 2: Prokaryotes, Archaea and Bacteria > Flashcards

Lecture 2: Prokaryotes, Archaea and Bacteria Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define taxonomy

A

the branch of science concerned with classification, especially of organisms; systematics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define taxon

A

is a group of one or more populations of an organism or organisms seen by taxonomists to form a unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define phylogeny

A

The history of the evolution of a species or group, especially in reference to lines of descent and relationships among broad groups of organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the advantages of the three domain system?

A

3 domain system differentiates better not only in the case of eubacteria and archae but also significantly subdivides protista. Also the 3 domain system is based on differences between rRNA gene as given by Woese et al.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Oxidoreductase

A

oxidation-reduction reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Transferase

A

Transfers functional groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hydrolase

A

Hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lyase

A

Removal of atoms without hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hydrolase

A

Hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Isomerase

A

Rearrangement of atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ligase

A

Joining of molecules; uses ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rybozymes

A

RNA that cuts and splices RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the main factors influencing enzyme activity?

A
  • Temperature
  • pH
  • Substrate concentration
  • Inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does temperature impact enzyme activity?

A

Temperatures that are too high can denature proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does pH impact enzyme activity?

A
  • Most bacteria grow between pH 6.5 and 7.5
  • Molds and yeasts grow between pH 5 and 6
  • Acidophiles grow in acidic environments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the physical requirements of growth for bacteria?

A
  • Temperature
  • pH
  • Osmotic pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the chemical requirements of growth for bacteria?

A
  • Carbon
  • Nitrogen, sulfur and phosphorous
  • Trace elements
  • Oxygen
  • Organic growth factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the minimum, optimum and maximum growth temperatures for psychrotrophs?

A

Minimum - 0 degrees C
Optimal - 15 degrees C
Maximum - 20 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is carbon a chemical requirement?

A
  • Structural organic molecules, energy source
  • Chemoheterotrophs use organic carbon sources
  • Autotrophs use CO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is nitrogen a chemical requirement?

A
  • Found in amino acids and proteins
  • Most bacteria decompose proteins
  • Some bacteria use nitrate or ammonium
  • A few bacteria use N2 nitrogen gas in nitrogen fixation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is sulfur a chemical requirement?

A
  • In amino acids, thiamine and biotin
  • Most bacteria decompose proteins
  • Some bacteria use hydrogen sulfide and sulfate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is phosphorus a chemical requirement?

A
  • Found in DNA, RNA, ATP and membranes

- Phosphate is a source of phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why are trace elements important in growth?

A
  • Inorganic elements are required in small amounts usually as enzyme cofactors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are organic growth factors?

A
  • Organic compounds obtained from the environment

- Vitamins, amino acids, purines and pyramidines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are Capnophiles?

A

Microorganisms that thrive in the presence of high concentrations of carbon dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the rate of microbial death depend on?

A
  • Number of microbes
  • Environment (organic matter, temperature, biofilms)
  • Time of exposure
  • Microbial characteristics (eg. virulence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do microbial control agents kill microbes?

A
  • Alter membrane permeability

- Damage proteins and nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are physical methods of microbial control?

A
  1. Heat
  2. Moist heat
  3. Pasteurization
  4. Dry Heat Sterilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is TDP (Thermal Death Point)?

A

Lowest temperature at which all cells in a culture are killed in 10 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is TDT (Thermal Death Time)?

A

Time during which all cells in a culture are killed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is DRT (Decimal Reduction Time)?

A

Minutes to kill 90% of a population at a given temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does moist heat kill microorganisms?

A
  • Denatures proteins
  • Steam sterilization: steam must contact item’s surface
  • Autoclave: steam under pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are three different types of pasteurization?

A

1) 63 degrees C for 30 min
2) 72 degrees C for 15 sec
3) 140 degrees C for less than one second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the types of dry heat sterilization?

A
  • Dry heat
  • Flaming
  • Incineration
  • Hot air sterilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do we use low temps to inhibit microbial growth?

A
  • Refrigeration
  • Deep-freezing
  • Lyophilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does filtration control microbes?

A
  • Removes microbes > 0.3 um

- Membrane filtration removes microbes > 0.22 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the different types of radiation uses to control microbial growth?

A
  • Ionizing radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, electron beams) ionizes water to release hydroxide which damages DNA.
  • Nonionizing radiation (UV 260nm) which damages DNA
  • Microwaves Kill by heat, not especially antimicrobial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are chemical methods of microbial control?

A

Factors related to effective disinfection such as:

  • Concentration of disinfectant
  • Organic matter
  • pH
  • Time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Types of disinfectants

A

1) Phenols and phenolics
2) Bisphenols
3) Biguanides
4) Halogens
5) Heavy metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do phenols and phenolics do?

A

Disrupt plasma membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some examples of bisphenols and what do they do?

A
  • Hexachlorophane
  • Triclosan
    They disrupt plasma membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give an example of a biguanide. What does it do?

A
  • Chlorhexidine

Disrupts plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Give some examples of halogens

A

Iodine - in aqueous alcohol or iodophors in organic molecules

Chlorine - found in bleach (hypochlorous acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does iodine do?

A

Alters protein synthesis and membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does chlorine do?

A

It is an oxidizing agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does alcohol (ethanol, isopropanol) do?

A

Denatures protein, dissolves lipids, requires water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Give some examples of heavy metals that can be used to kill bacteria?

A

Ag
- Silver nitrate may be used to treat gonorrhoeal opthalmia neonatorum
- Silver sulfadiazine is used as a topical cream on burns
Cu
- Copper sulfate is an algicide
Hg (in past)
- Mercuric chloride was used to kill pests
- Mercurous iodide kills bacteria on the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Give examples of surfactants (surface-active agents) and what they do.

A

1) Soap is degerming.
2) Acid-anionic detergents are sanitizing
2) Quaternary ammonium compounds (cationic detergent) kill bacteria, denature proteins and disrupt plasma membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is taxonomy and why is it useful?

A
  • The science of classifying organisms
  • It provides universal names for organisms
  • Provides a reference for identifying organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is phylogeny (systematics)?

A

The study of the evolutionary history of organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the three domain system?

A

The three domain system includes bacteria, archaea and eukarya.

52
Q

What is binomial nomenclature?

A
  • Genus

- Specific epithet (species)

53
Q

Honors Edwin Klebs + disease name

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

54
Q

Honors Lois Pfiester + disease in fish

A

Pfiesteria piscicida

55
Q

Salmonella typhimurium

A

Honors Daniel Salmon + stupor (typh) in mice (muri)

56
Q

Chains of cells + pus (pyo)

A

Streptococcus pyogenese

57
Q

Tuftlike (penicill) + produces yellow pigment (chryso)

A

Penicillium chrysogenum

58
Q

Borer, body, honours Oswaldo Cruz

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

59
Q

What is the taxonomic hierarchy?

A

A series of subdivisions developed by Linnaeus to classify plants and animals.

60
Q

Eukaryotic species

A

a group of closely related organisms that breed among themselves

61
Q

Dumb Kings Play Chess On Fine Green Sand (Definitely Kinky People Come Over For Group Sex)

A

Domain Kingdom Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species

62
Q

Prokaryotic species

A

a population of cells with similar characteristics

63
Q

Culture

A

grown in laboratory media like agar

64
Q

Clone

A

a population of cells derived from a single cell

65
Q

Strain

A

genetically different cells within a clone

66
Q

Animalia

A

multicellular, no cell walls, chemoheterotrophic

67
Q

Plantae

A

multicellular, cellulose cell walls, usually photoautotrophic

68
Q

Fungi

A

chemoheterotrophic, unicellular or multicellular, cell walls of chitin, develop from spores or hyphal fragments

69
Q

Protista

A

catchall kingdom for eukaryotic organisms that do not fit other kingdoms (grouped into clades based on rRNA)

70
Q

Classification

A

placing organisms in groups of related species

71
Q

Classification of viral species

A

population of viruses with similar characteristics that occupies a particular ecological position

72
Q

Identification

A

matching characteristics of an “unknown” organism to lists of known organisms

73
Q

Morphological characteristics

A

useful for identifying eukaryotes

74
Q

Bacteria that can ferment lactose and sucrose

A

E. coli O157

75
Q

Bacteria that ferment lactose but not sucrose

A

Escherichia spp.

76
Q

Ferment lactose, citric acid sufficient carbon source

A

Citrobacter

77
Q

Ferment lactose, citric acid sufficient carbon source and produce acetoin

A

Enterobacter

78
Q

Cannot ferment lactose but can use citric acid as sole carbon source

A

Salmonella (produce hydrogen sulfide)

79
Q

Cannot ferment lactose, need other carbon sources besides citric acid

A

Shigella (produces lysine decarboxylase)

80
Q

Slide agglutination test

A

Combine known antiserum plus unknown bacterium and check for agglutination

81
Q

ELISA

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

  • Known antibodies
  • Unknown bacterium
  • Antibodies linked to enzyme
  • Enzyme substrate
82
Q

Western blot

A

identify specific amino-acid sequences in proteins

83
Q

Flow cytometry

A
  • Uses differences in electrical conductivity between species
  • Fluorescence of some species
  • Cells selectively stained with antibody plus fluorescent dye
84
Q

DNA base composition

A

Percentage of guanine + cytosine moles present

85
Q

DNA fingerprinting

A

Electrophoresis of restriction enzyme digests

86
Q

Other types of genetic identification

A
  • rRNA sequencing

- PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

87
Q

FISH

A

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (add DNA probe for S. aureus)

88
Q

Prokaryote with pseudomurein rRNA signature

A

Domain archaea

89
Q

Prokaryote with peptidoglycan rRNA signature

A

Domain bacteria

90
Q

Types of Gram-positive bacteria

A
  1. Firmicutes (low g + c)

2. Actinobacteria (high g + c)

91
Q

Main subtypes of gram negative bacteria

A
  1. Proteobacteria

2. Nonproteobacteria

92
Q

Types of Proteobacteria

A 
A. Alphaproteobacteria
B. Betaproteobacteria
C. Gammaproteobacteria
D. Deltaproteobacteria
E. Epsilonproteobacteria
93
Q

Types of Nonproteobacteria (Gram negative)

A 
A. Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria
B. Bacteroidetes
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Deinococci
E. Planctomycetes
F. Fusobacterium
G. Spirochetes
94
Q

Alphaproteobacteria that are human pathogens

A
  • Bartonella (B. henselae)
  • Brucella (brucellosis)
  • Ehrlichia (tickborne)
95
Q

Alphaproteobacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites

A
  • Ehrlichia: tickborne
  • Rickettsia: arthropod-borne, spotted fevers
  • R. prowazekii; epidemic tyhpus
  • R. typhi; endemic murine typhus
  • R. rickettsii; Rocky Mountain spotted fever
96
Q

Alphaproteobacteria with prosthecae

A

Caulobacter - stalked bacteria found in lakes

Hyphomicrobium - budding bacteria found in lakes

97
Q

Alphaproteobacteria plant pathogens

A

Agrobacterium - inserts a plasmid into plant cells, inducing a tumor

98
Q

Chemoautotrophic Alphaproteobacteria

A
  • Oxidize nitrogen for energy
  • Fix CO2
  • Nitrobacter
  • Nitrosomonas
99
Q

Nitrogen-fixing alphaproteobacteria

A
  • Azospirillum
100
Q

Name as many betaproteobacteria as you can

A
  • Bordetella (chemoheterotrophic; rods, B. pertussis causes whooping cough)
  • Burkholderia (nosocomial infections)
  • Neisseria
  • Aerobic, gram negative cocci (gonorrhea and meningitis)
101
Q

Pseudomonas (Gammaproteobacteria)

A

Gram-negative, aerobic, opportunistic pathogen, polar flagella

102
Q

Pseudomonadales

A
  • Pseudomonas
  • Moraxella (Conjunctivitis)
  • Azotobacter and Azomonas (nitrogen-fixing)
103
Q

Legionellales (Gammaproteobacteria)

A
  • Legionella (Found in streams, warm-water pipes, cooling towers)
  • L. pneumophilia
  • Coxiella: Q fever transmitted via aerosols or milk
104
Q

Vibrionales (Gammaproteobacteria)

A
  • Found in coastal water
  • Vibrio cholerae (cholera)
  • Vibrio parahaemolyticus causes gastroenteritis
105
Q

Enterobacteriales (enterics)

A
  • Peritrichous flagella; facultatively anaerobic
  • Enterobacter
  • Escherichia
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Yersinia
106
Q

Pasteurellales

A
  • Pasteurella (causes pneumonia and septicemia)

- Haemophilus (requires X heme group and V NAD/NADP factors)

107
Q

Deltaproteobacteria

A

Desulfovibrionales (use Sulfulr instead of O2 as final electron acceptor)

108
Q

Epsiolonproteobacteria

A
  • Campylobacter (one polar flagellum, gastroenteritis)

- Helicobacter (multiple flagella, peptic ulcers, stomach cancer)

109
Q

Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria

A
  • Purple sulfur
  • Purple nonsulfur
  • Green sulfur
  • Green nonsulfur
110
Q

Bacteroidetes

A

Anaerobic, found in the mouth and large intestine

Cytophaga degrade cellulose in soil

111
Q

Chlamydia (Nonproteobacteria)

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
    (Trachoma, STI, urethritis)
  • Chlamydophila pneumoniae
  • Chlamydophila psittaci (psittacosis)
112
Q

Deinococci

A 
Deinococcus radiodurans
(more resistant to radiation than endospores)
Thermus aquaticus (found in hot springs, source of Taq polymerase)
113
Q

Planctomycetes

A

Gemmata obscurglobus (double internal membrane around DNA)

114
Q

Fusobacterium

A
  • Found in the mouth

- May be involved in dental disease

115
Q

Spirochetes - types

A
  1. Trepanoma pallidum - pathogenic bacteria that causes syphilis
  2. Borrelia - causes Lyme disease, transmitted by ticks
  3. Leptospira - leptospirosis disease spread to humans by contaminated water
116
Q

Spirochetes - general characteristics

A
  • Obligate intracellular parasites
  • Helically coiled
  • Corkscrew shaped cells with flagella
117
Q

Firmicutes

A

Low G + C Gram-positive bacteria - includes spore forming bacteria

118
Q

Lactobaccilus

A

Type of firmicute that is not pathogenic

119
Q

Types of Firmicutes

A

A. Lactobacillales
B. Bacillales
C. Clostridiales
D. Mycoplasmatales

120
Q

Lactobacillales

A

Generally aerotolerant anaerobes; lack an electron transport chain

  • Lactobacillus
  • Streptococcus
  • Enterococcus
  • Listeria
121
Q

Bacillales

A

Gram-positive rods and cocci

  1. Baccilus (endospore producing rods)
  2. Staphylococcus (S. aureus)
122
Q

Clostridiales

A

Clostridium - endospore producing, obligate anaerobes

123
Q

Mycoplasmatales

A
  • Lack cell wall, pleomorphic
  • Small size (0.1 - 0.24um)
  • M. pneumoniae
124
Q

Types of actinobacteria

A

Draw diagram

  • Actinomyces
  • Corynebacterium
  • Frankia
  • Gardnerella
  • Mycobacterium
  • Nocardia
  • Propionibacterium
  • Streptomyces
125
Q

Domain Archaea

A
  1. Hyperthermophiles
    - Pyrodictium
    - Sulfolobus
  2. Methanogens
    - Methanobacterium
  3. Extreme halophiles
    - Halobacterium
126
Q

Microbial Diversity

A

Bacteria size range (Thiomargarita 750 um)

Metagenomics (study of genetic material recovered from environmental sample)

127
Q

Why have many bacteria not been identified?

A
  • Have not been cultured
  • Need special nutrients
  • Part of complex food chains requiring the products of other bacteria
  • Need to be cultured to understand their metabolism and ecological role

Microbiology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions