Lecture 1A: Introduction to Microbial Physiology and Prokaryotic Cell Structure Flashcards

1
Q

What is microbial physiology?

A
  • Study of how microbial cell structures, growth, and metabolism work in microorganism.
  • Study of microbial cell functions which includes the study of microbial growth, microbial metabolism, microbial cell structure .
  • Structure-function relationships in microorganisms, especially how microbes respond to their environment.
  • Foundational to advanced or applied fields such as metabolic engineering and functional genomics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prokaryotic cell structure

A
  1. Cell morphology
  2. The small world
  3. The Cell Membrane and Wall
    - 3A: cytoplasmic membrane
    - 3B: Bacterial Cell Walls: Peptodoglycan
  4. Cell Surface structures and inclusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 6 cell morphology?

A
  1. Coccus
  2. Rod
  3. Spirillum
  4. Spirochete
  5. Budding and appendaged
  6. Filamentous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

typically DOES NOT predict physiology, ecology, phylogeny or other properties of prokaryotic cell.

A

Morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Morphology typically DOES NOT predict ____, _____, ______ or other properties of prokaryotic cell.

A

physiology, ecology, phylogeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

may be ____ ___ involved in setting the morphology

A

selective forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 example of selective forces involved in setting the morphology

A
  1. optimization fornutrient uptake
  2. swimming motility in viscous environments or near surfaces
  3. gliding motility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the size range for prokaryotes

A

0.2 um to >700 um in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two microorganism that are exception the rule of the size range for prokaryotes

A
  1. Epulopiscium fishelsoni
  2. Thiomargarita namibiensis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Width and length of most cultured rod-shaped bacteria

A

between 0.5 and 4.0 µm wide and <15 µm long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the size range for eukaryotic cells

A

0.2 to >600 um in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On the average, what is the limit of resolution of human eye?

A

0.1 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

It is necessary for growth rates and evolution

A

Surface-to-volume ratios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Surface-to-volume ratios is necessary for what?

A

Growth rates and evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADVANTAGES TO BEING SMALL:

A
  1. More surface area relative to cell volume than large cells
  2. Support greater nutrient and waste product exchange per unit cell volume
  3. Tend to grow faster than large cells
  4. Mutation leads to faster evolution
  5. Prokaryotic cell has faster adaptive state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

More surface area means more what

A

Cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why having more cell membrane is advantageous

A

Much faster nutrient uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why high volume with small surface area is disadvantageous

A

Cells cannot cope because of the lower rate of nutrient uptake resulting in slower uptake of nutrients than the metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What will happen if the metabolism is too fast?

A

cell cannot cope since cell membrane is not enough to take up and transport nutrients needed by the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

High volume = high ____ requirement

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lower limits of cell size

A
  1. Cellular organisms <0.15 µm in diameter are unlikely
  2. Need volume to house proteins, nucleic acids, ribosomes, and so on
  3. Open oceans tend to contain small cells (0.2 - 0.4) known as “ultramicrobacteria”
  4. Genomes are highly streamlined, missing functions that must be supplied by other microbea or hosts (plants and animals)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do you call the small cells ( 0.2-0.4 um) found in open oceans

A

ultramicrobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

parasite that depends completely on the host for its habitat, nourishment, reproduction, and survival

A

Obligate parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what habitat do cells typically appears smaller in size than those of comparable higher nutrient habitats

A
  • in low-nutrient habitat (oligotrophic) in marine plankton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T or F: microbial cells in terrestrial is larger than in marine waters due to the rich environment (soil)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

there may be loose relationship between cells ____ and ambient ___ concentration

A

Size ; nutrient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It has greater surface

A

Smaller cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

postulated to be adaptive for low nutrient environments however small cell size does not necessarily imply adaptation to oligotrophic lifestyle

A

Smaller cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Example of microorganism where there is a relationship between minimum size and environment

A
  1. new verrucomicrobiales
  2. Nanobacteria
    3.symbiotic and parasitic bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

new verrucomicrobiales isolates grow well and maintain small cell size under what condition?

A

relatively high nutrient growth condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

isolates grow well and maintain small cell size under relatively high nutrient growth condition

A

new verrucomicrobiales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Nanobacteria dwell (and are cultivated) in a what kind of environment

A

Relatively nutrient-rich environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

dwell (and are cultivated) in a relatively nutrient-rich environment, yet maintain their small cell dimensions.

A

nanobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

are known that have reduced physiological capacities and reduction(?) sizes

A

symbiotic and parasitic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

*Surrounds cytoplasm
*Separates it from environment
*Main function: selective permeability (nutrients transported in and waste products out)

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cytoplasmic membrane is surrounded by what

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the main function of cytoplasmic membrane

A

selective
permeability (nutrients transported
in and waste products out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the general structure of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane

A

phospholipid bilayer containing embedded proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bacterial cytoplasmic membrane contains what

A

both hydrophobic and hydrophilic components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hydrophobic component of cytoplasmic membrane is composed of what

A

Long chain fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hydrophilic component of cytoplasmic membrane is composed of what

A

glycerophosphate portion with functional group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the linkage in phospholipids of bacteria

A

Ester linkages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  • Thinner than cell wall
  • 8-10 nm
A

Bacterial cytoplasmic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  • mostly extremophile
A

Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Some species of bacteria is strengthened by what

A

hopanoids (sterol-like molecules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

important sterol component of cell and mitochondrial membranes in fungi

A

ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Archaea has embedded proteins including:

A
  1. integral membrane proteins (significantly embedded)
  2. peripheral membrane proteins (loosely attached)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What linkages is in phospholipids of Archaea

A

Ether linkages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What linkages is in the phospholipids of bacteria and eukarya

A

Ester linkages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Instead of fatty acids, what is the archaeal lipids composed of?

A

Isopheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the major lipids of archaeal membrane

A
  1. Phosphoglycerol diethers with phytanyl C20 side chains
  2. Diglycerol tetraethers with biphytanyl C40 side chains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The major lipids of archaeal membrane can form lipid ____

A

monolayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

lipid monolayer is usually observed in what type archaeal organism?

A

Thermophilic Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Other type of archaeal membrane is found in?

A

Crenarchaeol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  • has multiple bonds
  • melts longer at high temperature
A

crenarchaeol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Give the 3 main function of cytoplasmic membrane

A
  • permeability barrier
  • protein anchor
  • energy conservation and consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  • Must be transported
  • need the assistance of transport proteins
A

Polar and charged molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

accumulate solutes against the concentration gradient.

A

Transport proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  • holds transport proteins in place
A

protein anchor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

generation of proton motive force

A

energy conservation and consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In simple diffusion, the movement of solute is driven by what

A

Concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Principle of simple diffusion

A

Rate of solute entry increases as the external concentration of the solute also increases (assuming the membrane is permeable to solute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

States that the rate of diffusion of a substance is directly proportional to the concentration gradient

A

Fick’s law of diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In simple diffusion, the steeper concentration gradient =?

A

the faster the rate of diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the principle of transporter saturated or high affinity transporter

A

there is a linear increases as the external concentration increases (as long as transport protein or the channels are not saturated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Example of transporter saturated (high affinity transporter)

A

Facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Facilitated diffusion move through what

A

Solutes move through membrane proteins (channels or carrier proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What will happen to rate of entry once the protein channels or carriers are saturated

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Low rate of entry levels would result in what

A

plateau even with high external concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Key point of Transporter saturated (high affinity transporter)

A

there is an initial increase in the rate of entry with increasing external concentration but the rate reaches at the maximum when all available transport sites are occupied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

low affinity transporter
Example

A

Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

low affinity transporter
requires what

A

energy in the form of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Whhat influences the rate of solute entry in low affinity transporter?

A
  • external concentration
  • energy available
  • number of active transporters.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

At low concentrations, what happens to the active transport rate

A

Active transport rate increases as the external concentration rises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

At much high concentration, what happens to the active transport rate

A

may become limited by factors like ATP availability or transporter capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

T or F: Active transport doesn’t plateau immediately, it starts to slow down.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Key point of low affinity transporter

A

external concentration affects the transport rate but energy is required and transporter may be saturated or work at maximum capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Species of Bacteria separated into two groups is based on what

A

Gram stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T or F: Gram-positives and gram-negatives have the same cell wall structures.

80
Q

What is the structure of Gram-negative cell wall

A
  • Lipopolysaccharide
  • peptidoglycan
81
Q

serves as an outer membrane

82
Q

What type of carbohydrates is sticking out in outer membrane
of gram negative bacteria

A

oligosaccharides

83
Q

Structure of gram positive cell wall

A

one layer of peptidoglycan

84
Q

Structure of Peptidoglycan

A
  • rigid layer that provides strength
  • typically composed of alternatively modified glucose
  • Amino acids
84
Q

link N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) in peptidoglycan

A

B-1,4 linkages

84
Q

What are the alternatively modified glucose that the peptidoglycan of bacteria are typically composed of

A

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

85
Q

bacterial peptidoglycan is typically composed of 4 amino acids, namely:

A
  1. L-alanine
  2. D- alanine
  3. D- glutamic acid,
  4. either L-lysine ordiaminopimelic acid (DAP)
86
Q

Amino acid that is unique only to bacteria

87
Q

The amino acid is in __-form in prokaryotes and __-form in eukaryotes

A

D-form = prokaryotes
L- form = eukaryotes

88
Q

Connection from one peptidoglycan to the next peptidoglycan is called

A

interbridges or tetrapeptide bridges

89
Q
  • can destroyed the peptidoglycan
  • cuts at the beta 1,4 linkages
90
Q

How many distinct peptidoglycans have been described

91
Q

NAG and NAM varies in where

A

carbon number 3

92
Q

perpendicular to the peptidoglycan molecule

A

Tetrapeptide bridges

93
Q

Is a gram negative

A

Escherichia coli

94
Q

Is a gram positive

A

Staphylococcus aureus

95
Q

What does peptide bonds connect

96
Q

Glycosidic bonds connect what

97
Q

do not attack the tetrapeptide bonds, it attacks glycosidic bonds

98
Q

How many % of gram positive cell wall is peptidoglycan

99
Q
  • The other 10% of gram positive cell wall
    -Acidic substance
  • generally negatively charged
A
  • teichoic acids
100
Q

What is the reason why cell wall attracts basic dyes

A

Because teichoic acids are generally negatively charged so they kind of confer a negative charge to the cell wall

101
Q

Teichoic acid bind what kind of metal ions prior to transport

A

divalent metal ions (ex: Ca+2 and Mg +2)

102
Q
  • it is when teichoic acid is covalently bound to membrane lipids
A

Lipoteichoic acid

103
Q

Example of teichoic acid in Gram positive

A

Ribitol teichoic acid

104
Q

Few example of prokaryotes lack cell walls

A
  1. mycoplasma
  2. thermoplasma
  3. have tough cytoplasmic membranes (ex: steroids or lipoglycans)
105
Q

group of pathogenic bacteria related to gram-positives

A

mycoplasma

106
Q
  • Archaea
  • No cell wall - have additional components in cell membrane to make cell membrane tougher
A

thermoplasma

107
Q

enhances the integrity of membrane

A

Lipoglycans

108
Q

____ amount of total gram negative cell wall contains peptidoglycan

A

Small amount

109
Q

Most of gram negative cell wall is composed of what

A

outer membrane or the Lipopolysaccharide layer

110
Q

acts as barrier against antibiotics and other harmful agents

A

Outer membrane

111
Q

LPS are consists of?

A
  • Core polysaccharide
  • O polysaccharide
  • Lipid A
112
Q

What replaces most of phospholipids in outer half of outer membrane

113
Q

What makes the outer membrane different from cell membrane?

A

LPS replacing most of phospholipids in outer half of outer membrane

114
Q
  • endotoxin
  • the toxic component of LPS
  • Never released
  • Natural part of gram negative
115
Q

a sugar unique to bacteria

116
Q
  • consist of 7 carbon sugar
  • same to all species
A

Core polysaccharides

117
Q
  • repeating units
  • its number is where gram negative species to species differs
A

O-specific polysaccharides

118
Q

space located between cytoplasmic and outer membranes

119
Q

transmembrane protein channels for entrance and exit of solutes

120
Q

connects the outer membrane to peptidoglycan

A

Braun lipoprotein

121
Q

T or F: All archaeal Cell Walls

122
Q

T or F: not all cell wall of Archaea is Pseudomurein

123
Q

Archaeal cell walls has no ____

A

peptidoglycan

124
Q

Archaeal Cell Walls does not have peptidoglycan but has what

A

Pseudomurein

125
Q

Pseudomurein is found in
cell walls of certain what kind of Archaea

A

methanogenic Archaea

126
Q

Pseudomurein is polysaccharide similar to what

A

Peptidoglycan

127
Q

What are Pseudomurein composed of

A

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N- acetyltalosaminuronic acid (NAT)

128
Q

What kind of bond do archaeal cell wall have

A

B-1,3 glycosidic bonds

129
Q

What is the amino acid of Archaeal cell wall

A

L-stereoisomer

130
Q

Cannot be destroyed by lysozyme and penicillin

A

Pseudomurein

131
Q

Pseudomurein is insensitive to what

A

lysozyme and penicillin

132
Q
  • most common cell wall type of Archaea
133
Q

S-layers are consist of what

A

protein or glycoprotein

134
Q

Structure of S-layers

A

paracrystalline structure

135
Q

T or F: S-layers are always outermost layer

136
Q

T or F: in many organisms, S-layers present in addition to other cell wall components, usually polysaccharides

137
Q

They are not considered part of
cell wall because these
do not confer significant
structural strength

A

Capsules and slime
layers

138
Q

Capsules and slime
layers are made up of what

A

polysaccharides ( maybe thick or thin,
rigid or flexible)

139
Q

if tightly
attached, tight matrix:
visible if treated with
india ink

140
Q

loosely
attached, easily
deformed (Leuconostoc)

A

slime layer

141
Q

They assist in attachment to
surfaces

A

Capsules and slime
layers

142
Q

Capsules and slime
layers have a role in what?

A

development and
maintenance of biofilms

143
Q

Virulence factors of Capsules and slime
layers

A

protect against
phagocytosis
*

144
Q

What do capsules and slime
layers prevent

A

dehydration/desiccation

145
Q
  • Filamentous
    protein structures
    about 2-10 nm
    wide
146
Q

Fimbriae Enable organism to
stick to ___ or form ____

A

stick to surface or
form pellicle

147
Q

thin
sheets of cells on a
liquid surfaces

148
Q

typically longer and
fewer (1 or few)
found per cell than
fimbriae

149
Q

2 types of pili

A
  1. Conjugative/sex
    pili
  2. Type IV pili
150
Q

Function of conjugative/sex pili

A

facilitate genetic
exchange between cells
(conjugation)

151
Q

Function of type IV pili

A

adhere to host
tissues and support
twitching motility

152
Q

Example of type IV pili

A

Pseudomonas
and Moraxella

153
Q

cell surface structure usually associated with Archaea

A

Hamus/hami

154
Q

Where is hamus/hami found

A

SM1 archaeal
group only

155
Q

Hamus/hami is an acrhaeal “______ ____” assist in surface
attachment, forming
biofilms

A

“grappling
hooks

156
Q

Hamus/hami is an archaeal “grappling
hooks” that assist in what

A

surface
attachment, forming
biofilms

157
Q

What do hamus structurally resemble

A

type
IV pili

158
Q

hamus structurally resemble type
IV pili expect for what

A

barbed
terminus, which attaches
cells to surfaces or each
other.

159
Q

What are the three cell surface structure

A
  1. Capsule and slime layer
  2. Fimbriae and pili
  3. Hamus (singular) /hami
160
Q

What are the 4 cell inclusion

A

Polyphosphate granules
Sulfur globules
Carbonate minerals
Magnetosomes

161
Q

inorganic
phosphate

A

*Polyphosphate
granules

162
Q

elemental sulfur found in
periplasm, oxidized to
sulfate

A

Sulfur globules

163
Q

Formed during the
endosporulation or
sporogenesis

A

Endospores

164
Q

Endospores are formed during what

A

endosporulation or
sporogenesis

165
Q

Endospore are highly what

A
  • Highly differentiated
  • Highly resistant to
    heat, harsh
    chemicals, and
    radiation
166
Q

Why endospore has survival structures

A

to endure
unfavorable growth
conditions

167
Q

Endospore behave as dormant
structure as long as what

A

conditions remain
harsh or
unfavorable for
vegetative cell

168
Q

T or F: there are
endospore that
remained dormant
for hundred of
year

169
Q

dormant stage of
bacterial life cycle

A

Endospores

170
Q

endospore is ideal for what

A

dispersal via
wind, water, or animal
gut

171
Q

Where is endospore present

A

only in some
gram-positive bacteria,
(e.g., Bacillus and
Clostridium)

172
Q

vegetative cell
converted to what

A

nongrowing
(dormant),
heat-resistant, light
refractive structure

173
Q

Formation of endospore only occurs when?

A

growth ceases due
to lack of essential
nutrients such as
carbon or nitrogen

174
Q

What sre the 3 process of endospore

A

Activation, germination, outgrown

175
Q

Activation process

A

heated for
several minutes at
elevated but sublethal
temperature but high
enough to activate
endospore

176
Q

It must be
present (just like
an activated
imbibition) during activation

177
Q

Its is the
first step in germination and is
defined by a rapid
increase in the
uptake of water by
a seed

A

imbibition

178
Q

Process of germination

A

rapid
(minutes), loss of
refractility and loss of
resistance to heat and
chemicals

179
Q

Process in outgrown

A

swelling
from water uptake and
synthesis of RNA,
proteins, and DNA

180
Q

Layers of endospore

A

exosporium (outermost),
spore coats, cortex, core

181
Q

Where is DNA protected in the layers of endospore

182
Q

Endospore contains what

A

dipicolinic acid
(DPA)

183
Q

is partly
responsible for the
resistant nature of
endospore
because it
contributes the
highly dehydrated
nature of
endospore

A

dipicolinic acid
(DPA)

184
Q

What is water to the cell

A

universal solvent in
cell

185
Q

Endospore is enriched in what

186
Q

Responsible for
highly dehydrated
nature of
endospore due to
its ability to
intercalate DNA

A

Ca2+ DPA complex

187
Q

What is core made up of

A

contains small
acid- soluble spore
protein (SASP)

188
Q

small
acid- soluble spore
protein (SASP) function

A

carbon
and energy source
outgrowth

189
Q
  • complex series of
    events
  • 200+
    spore-specific genes
A

sporulation cycle

190
Q

Diversity and
phylogenetic aspects of
endospore

A
  • Nearly 20 genera
    form endospores.
  • diverse
    physiologies
191
Q

master sporulator
regulator protein

192
Q

T or F: ALL species produce 1
endospore