Lecture 14: 80 - Reproduction 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Hormones are only from the _____ (not prostate or seminal vesicles)

What value is classified as oligospermia?

Testes are normally ____ core temperature.

What type of mechanism allows the heat flow to decrease in the testes but increase near the body? What hormone uses this mechanism but in reverse?

A
  1. testes
  2. oligospermia is 20 million or less
  3. 1-2 degrees Celsius below
  4. Countercurrent
  5. Testosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define the following:

  1. Spermatogensis
  2. Spermiogenesis
    - cellular remodeling of what?
  3. Spermeation

What is found right next to the area that sperm are produced?

What cells provide nutrients for the sperm?

A
  1. Spermatogenesis - Process of sperm production, includes:
  2. Spermiogenesis- cellular remodeling of spermatids into spermatozoa (round to tadpole)
  3. Spermeation- extrusion of flagellated spermatozoa into the lumen of the tubule.
  4. Right where sperm cells produced, the Leydig cells are right next to it producing Testosterone
  5. Sertoli cells make the structure of seminiferous tubule
    - support the gametes with nutritional elements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Events in Normal Spermatogenesis:

  1. Stems cells that develop into ______ lie along basement membrane of seminiferous tubule (basal compartment)
  2. Where are they located?
  3. Majority undergo continuous ____ division
  4. Minority – committed to further differentiation, undergo ______
A
  1. spermatogonia
  2. Spermaotgonia are outside the blood/testis barrier
    - Spermatogonia serve as a pool of undifferentiated cells committed to differentiation
  3. mitotic
  4. meiosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens to the minority of spermatogonia cells that undergo meiosis?

Where does differentiation occur?

A

After meiosis → mature to spermatozoa

Differentiation to spermatozoa occurs in the INNER (adluminal) compartment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spermatids:

  1. Lie near what?
  2. Attached to adjoining SERTOLI cells by?
  3. Connected to secondary spermatocytes by?
    - what is the purpose of these structures?
A
  1. Lie near lumen of seminiferous tubules
  2. Attached to adjoining Sertoli cells by specialized “tight” junctions
  3. Connected to secondary spermatocytes by intercellular bridges
    - Synchronizes development of a group of cells, allows sharing of resources. Large enough to pass organelles by microtubule-based transport.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens in the first division? What type of spermatocytes? What is produced?

What happens in the second division? What is yielded?

A

First division, occurs in - primary spermatocytes,

***producing daughter cells (secondary spermatocytes) with 23 chromosome pairs

***Second division, occurs in secondary spematocytes yielding

SPERMATIDS with 23 single chromosomes each

  • cytoplasmic bridges connect the spermatids
  • left as residual bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the progression from spermatogonium to mature spermatozoa?
(7)

When does Meiosis I and II occur?

A
  1. Spermatogonium
  2. Spermatogonia
  3. Primary spermatocyte
    * * meiotic division I
  4. Secondary Spermatocytes
    * * Meiotic Division II
  5. Spermatids
  6. Differentiating spermatids (loss of residual bodies)
  7. Mature Spermatozoa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SPERMIOGENESIS

  1. Period of extensive remodeling produces _____, which differentiate into flagellated _______.
  2. what is condensed?
  3. Shrinkage of the ____
  4. Formation of the ______**
  5. Development of _____
A

1.spermatids

spermatozoa

  1. Nuclear condensation
  2. cytoplasm
  3. acrosome
  4. tail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the cap of membranes containing digestive enzymes called?

What is spermeation?
Where does this occur?

What is removed and what forms?

A

ACROSOME

  • war head of torpedo
  • as sperm hits the egg, dumps digestive enzymes and can burrow through

Spermeation:

  1. Process of extruding flagellated spermatozoa in LUMEN of the tubule
  2. Most remaining cytoplasm is removed and “residual body” is formed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What provides the energy for movement?

What forms as a result of Spermatogenesis?

What forms as a result of Spermeation?

What protects the sperm from the immune system?

A

Mitochondria

  1. 4 spermatids - immature haploid gametes
    - remodeling
  2. 4 SPERMATAZOA
    - haploid gametes
    - extruded from lumen

Sertoli cells and their TIGHT JUNCTIONS

Spermiogenesis = making 4 spermatids
SPERMATOGENESIS = whole process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the following:

  1. Epididymus
  2. Prostate
  3. Seminal Vesicles

Which is responsible for alkaline secretions?

Which stabilizes acrosome

Which secretes prostaglandins? What does this do?

A

Epididymus;

a) sperm maturation, gain motility, lose cytoplasm
b) reservoir for sperm
c) STABILIZE ACROSOME

Prostate:
2. alkaline secretions to neutralize acidic vaginal secretions

Seminal Vesicle:

  1. secretions of PROSTAGLANDINS
    - allow for contraction of uterus and fallopian tubes considered important in sperm movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is prostatic specific antigen? What is it often used for?

A

PSA –> used for determining prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is the paracrine and endocrine function of inhibit and Activin different.

State both.

What is the neuroendocrine axis?

What is the affect of dopamine and Endorphins on the hypothalamus and GnRH?

A

INHIBIN
Endocrine:
inhibits the pituitary
paracrine: stimulates testosterone secretion

Activin

endocrine: activates the pituitary
paracrine: inhibits testosterone secretion

  1. Hypothalamus
    - GnRH on pituitary
    - release FSH and LH
    male: testosterone
    - negative feedback at PITUITARY and HYPOTHALAMUS
  2. Dopamine & Endorphins have a NEGATIVE affect on GnRH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is GnRH released from?

What is its function?

How do dopamine, endorphins, NE and stress (CRH) affect GnRH?

What type of release is GnRH? (constant/pulsatile)

How can one inhibit FSH and LH secretion knowing the type of secretion pattern?

A
  1. Arcuate N. and Preoptic Area
  2. Increases synthesis and secretion of gonadotropics in ANTERIOR pituitary
  3. Dopamine, Endorphins, NE, stress INHIBIT GnRH
  4. Release of GnRH is pulsatile
    – 8 to 14/24 hrs
  5. continuous exposure to GnRH is inhibitory to FSH and LH release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GnRH receptors on gonadotrophs… activation triggers _____ of stored trophic hormones and stimulates transcription of _____ and ___

What is the major regulator of LH?

What is this hormone converted to in the hypothalamus?

Why do steroid abusing bodybuilders shut down GnRH release? How do they do this?

A
  1. exocytosis
  2. LH and FSH -subunit genes
  3. testosterone
  4. estrogen
  5. inject hCG to mimick LH action after finishing T doses to recover endogenous steroidogenesis.
    - stimulates testes to make more testosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What stimulates Leydig cells to secrete TESTOSTERONE?

What does this hormone bind?

What does it activation?

What does it increase expression of? (important in steroidogenesis)

A
  1. LH
  2. binds G protein coupled receptor
  3. activates PKA = increase gene transcription to support testosterone synthesis
  4. increases expression of sterol-carrier protein & sterol activating protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sertolli cells are stimulated by ____ and ____ to facilitate the development of what?

Describe the actions of FSH on the cell:

What is the effect?

A
  1. Androgens & FSH
  2. Sperm development
  3. binds G protein
    - PKA increeases gene transcription
    - increased proteins (ABP - androgen binding proteins)
  4. Keeps testosterone high near developing sperm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State the major functions of FSH. (6)

Sertoli cells? (3)

A
  1. increase ABP
  2. keeps T high near developing cells
  3. increases androgen receptors
  4. activates AROMATASE (T to E2)
  5. increases growth factors to stimulate spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, motility
  6. increases INHIBIN synthesis

Sertoli:

  1. Mechanical support
  2. Secrete anti-mullerian hormone
  3. Contributes to the blood testes border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What makes aromatase and increases inhibit synthesis?

A

FSH

20
Q

How does FSH influence Leydig cell function indirectly?

How does action & inhibit affect T secretion?

What cells do the Leydig cell TESTOSTERONE stimulate?

Describe the positive feedback of testosterone?

A

Via Inhibin, Activin

  1. Activin - inhibits secretion
    Inhibin - activates secretion
    (opposite endocrine)
  2. Peritubular myoid cells
  3. Sertoli cells
    - both stimulated by testosterone

As testosterone increases, inhibin increases
- Activin and E2 from Sertoli cells decreases T from Leydig cells

  • inhibin activates leydig cells
  • activin inhibits
21
Q

What happens if spermatogenesis is too fast?

What is released? By what cells?

A

The developing germ cells release signals to the SERTOLI cells which increase INHIBIN RELEASE

-

22
Q

Decreased inhibin leads to an increase in what?

A

If spermatogenesis is too slow then the “brake” is relieved. Signaling from spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatazoa is decreased…

decreased inhibin leads to an increase in FSH, resulting in an increase spermatogenesis

23
Q

Erection is primarily under control of what?

What is relaxed?

Blood flow is increased in what?

Engorgement compressed what?

What do parasympathetic post-ganglionic nerves release? Describe how this works.

A
  1. Parasympathetic
  2. smooth muscle (corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum)
  3. increased flow in cavernous tissue
  4. engorgement compresses the DORSAL vein and creates swelling
  5. Parasympathetic nerves release Ach and NO
    - Ach binds to muscarinic receptors, activates PLC and increases Calcium which activates NO synthase –> increases NO

OR directly released from nerve terminals

24
Q

NO stimulates guanylyl cyclase, producing ______ that leads to vasodilation
(the action of sildenafil [Viagra] is to inhibit specific _________)

What nerve activity is decreased?

Somatic nerves stimulate striated penile muscles causing greater ______ (ischiocavernosus muscle and bulbospongiosus)

A
  1. cGMP
  2. phosphordiesterases that break down cGMP
  3. PREASURE
25
Q

What two muscles are important in creating tumescence?

Which surrounds the urethra?

A
  1. Corpus cavernosum and corpus spongiosum
  2. Corpus spongiosum surrounds the urethra
    - keeps the urethra open to allow sperm to enter
26
Q

Emission is primarily under control of what?

What is emission?

Direct innervation of what receptors

A
  1. Sympathetic control
  2. Emission – movement of ejaculate into the prostatic/proximal part of urethra
  3. Alpha- adrenergic receptors

** some parasympathetic contribution to secretions**

27
Q

What are 4 types of PRIMARY goal abnormalities in HYPERGONADOTROPIC HYPOGONADISM?

A
  1. Acquired (irradiation/orchitis/castration)
  2. Chromosomal
    a) Klinefelter’s and variants
    b) true hermaphrodism
  3. Defective Androgen Synthesis
    (5a - reductase 17a - hydroxylase)
  4. Testicular Agenesis
28
Q

What are the levels of LH, FSH and testostrone/DHT in Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism?

A
  1. Increased LH
  2. Increased FSH

decreased testosterone, DHT

29
Q

What type of gonadal abnormality is Klinefelter’s syndrome?

What are the symptoms?

What are the levels of FSH, LH, and testosterone?

A

XXY syndrome
HYPERGONADOTROPIC hypogonadism

destruction of testes
- hard scar tissue = no testosterone therefore FSH AND LSH IS HIGH since testosterone is low

30
Q

What are the levels of LH and FSH and testosterone/DHT IN HYPOGONADOTROPIC HYPOGONADISM?

State 6 examples

A
  1. decreased LH
  2. Decreased FSH

decreased testosterone, DHT

  1. panhypopituitarism (congenital or acquired)
  2. hypothalamic syndrome
  3. LH or FSH deficiency (KALLMAN’S syndrome)
  4. hyperprolactinemia
  5. Malnutrition and anorexia nervosa
  6. Drug induced suppression of LH
    ( androgens, estrogen, tranquilizers, antidepressants)
31
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

low LH or FSH

HYPOGONADOTROPIC HYPOGONADISM

32
Q

What are two reasons Pseudohermaphroditism might develop?

A
  1. Complete androgen insensitivity
    * male pseudohermaphrodism*
  2. Incomplete androgen insensitivity

a) testosterone receptor defect
b) testosterone post receptor defect
c) 5a-reductase deficiency

33
Q

What is male infertility?

What is it most likely due to?

Causes? (2)

What is impotence?

A
  1. condition of decreased fertility w/o any clinical manifestations of androgen deficiency. 5-10% of males
  2. Due to androgen deficiency
  3. altered testosterone biosynthesis in TESTES
  4. defects in seminal tract or plasma (more sperm maturation or motility)

~ impotence is the persistent inability for functional erection

34
Q

The fundamental reproductive unit of the ovary is the _____

Consists of one oocyte surrounded by a cluster of ______

A
  1. follicle

2. ranulosa cells.

35
Q

The following describes functions of what?

When fully developed it will:

  1. Maintain and nurture the resident oocyte
  2. Mature the oocyte and release it at the appropriate time
  3. Prepare the vagina and fallopian tubes for fertilization (ENDOCRINE FUNCTION)
  4. Prepare the uterine lining to accept and implant a zygote
  5. Maintain hormonal support for the fetus until the placenta achieves this capability
A

GRANULOSA CELLS

36
Q

The number of oocytes continuously _______ from birth (in contrast to male)

Through the first 20-24 weeks gestations, germ cells produce oogonia by ____.

Some of these oogonia begin prophase of ______ and become PRIMARY oocytes.

Prophase will last until just before _____ – 12-40 years later

At 6 months after birth, all oogonia become ______

What happens in prophase?

A
  1. declines
  2. mitosis
  3. meiosis
  4. ovulation
  5. primary oocytes

In prophase no other divisions occur, atresia begins and numbers steadily decline.

37
Q

What are the stages of development?

What is the secondary follicle under the influence of?

What defines the grafiaan follicle?

What is the zone pellucida?

A
  1. Primordial follicle
  2. Primary follicle
    - differentiate into granolas cells
    - oocyte enlarges
  3. Secondary follicle
    - under influence of FSH cohort
    - ONE BECOMES GRAAFIAN FOLLICLE

ANTRUM in center –> fluid filled space

Zona pellucida – mucopolysaccharide immediately around the oocyte formed by granulosa cells (egg shell protecting egg)

38
Q

Graafian Follicle:

  1. How many?
  2. What is the the stem of granulosa cells that connect the cell to the wall of the ovary?
  3. What happens once the mucopolysaccharides begin to depolymerize?
A
  1. SINGLE follicle becomes dominant
  2. Cumulus oophorus
  3. Osmotic pressure increases
    - granolas cells of cumulus ephors loosen
39
Q

What structure does the following:

  1. Connects the egg to the wall of the ovary
  2. surrounds and protects the egg
  3. provides nutrients
A
  1. cumulus oophorus
  2. zona pellucida
  3. granulosa cells
40
Q

OVULATION:

Rupture of the ______ - release of oocyte to peritoneal cavity

Proteolysis of _______.
Oocyte is drawn into the fallopian tubes by the actions of _____.

Initial _____ division is completed

Remaining recruited follicles that failed to dominate undergo _____

Granulosa and Theca cells remain in the follicular cavity as_____

A
  1. follicle
  2. basement membrane
  3. fimbriae
  4. meiotic
    (first polar body degenerates, secondary oocyte prevails)
  5. Meiotic
  6. atresia
  7. corpus luteum
41
Q

What is the function of corpus luteum?

A

makes progesterone and estradiol

42
Q

____ and _____ cells undergo leutinization – differentiate, hypertrophy and accumulate large lipid droplets giving characteristic yellow-brown color

What does the corpus lute secrete?

What happens if no fertilization, corpus luteum regresses, becomes necrotic?

What is the name of the fibrous scar tissue that forms?

A
  1. Theca & granulosa
    - progesterone
  2. Luteolysis
  3. Corpus Albicans: fibrous scar tissue formed.
43
Q

What makes Inhibin B?

What makes Inhibin A?

A

B = DOMINANT FOLLICLE

A = corpus luteum

  • Inhibin: Always 1 subunit + A or B
    Produced by granulosa cells of
    follicle, pituitary, brain, adrenal
    Kidney, bone marrow.
44
Q

_____ stimulates granulosa cells.

______ inhibit FSH release by gonadotrophs

Follistatin – neutralizes ______

A
  1. FSH
  2. inhibin
  3. activin
45
Q

What enzyme produces estradiol?

What converts testosterone to DHT?

A

Aromatase

5a - reductase

46
Q

How are estrogens metabolized?

Describe it for estradiol & progesterone

A
  1. Mainly hepatic processing

Estradiol/Estrone - Estrone Sulfate for biliary and urinary excretion

Progesterone - Pregnanediol - glucoronide conjugation - excretion

47
Q

How is estrogen transported?

How is progesterone transported?

A
  1. SHBG
    - estradiol increases SHBG
  2. Progesterone via CBG
    - illustrate the point that HYDROPHOBIC THINGS CANNOT EASILY DISSOLVE AND FLOAT AROUND