Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

504 - Tissue Bio > Lect 1 and book notes > Flashcards

Lect 1 and book notes Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is an immunogen?

A

A substance that induces an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A substance that reacts specifically with the immune system – can be from external or internal source and can be protein, polysaccharides, lipids, organic and inorganic molecules or nucleoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is immunogenicity?

A

The capacity of a substance to react with and activate the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the criteria for immunogenicity?

A

Foreign, molecular size, chemical complexity (increased with larger size and more complexity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are immunodominant epitopes?

A

Epitopes that induce an antibody response in the majority of individuals of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is another name for epitope?

A

Antigenic determinant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How big are epitopes?

A

Usually 5-7 AA for proteins, or 5-7 monosaccharides or polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are haptens?

A

Small, chemically defined molecules that are not immunogenic but can react with antibody of appropriate specificity - univalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an example of an antigen that is not an immunogen?

A

Haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is univalent?

A

A molecule that only has a single epitope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do haptens need to act as a complete epitope?

A

Must be coupled to a protein carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a conformational determinant?

A

Epitope is based on overall structure of a substance such as being globular or helical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a sequential determinant?

A

When a specific sequence of AA or monosaccharides defines the epitope – which may be terminal or internal but usually in the hydrophilic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are sequential determinants usually found?

A

Hydrophilic regions of molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can destroy confirmational determinants but uncover some sequential determinants?

A

Denaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is cross-reactivity?

A

When an antibody made against one antigen or hapten can react with another – usually less strongly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is affinity?

A

A measure of the strength of the interaction between a single antigen epitope and a single antigen binding site of an antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the antigen binding site of an antibody called?

A

Fab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is avidity?

A

The strength of the interaction of antigen molecules with multiple eptiopes with antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the parameters that avidity is dependent on?

A

The affinity of the antibody for the epitope, the valence of both the antibody and antigen, and structural arrangement of the parts of interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an immune complex?

A

Antigen-antibody complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the formation of an immune complex depend on?

A

Nature of the antigen and ratio of the antigen and antibody concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What forms agglutination and what forms precipitation?

A

Agglutination - when antibody interacts with particulate antigens (ex - intact cells)
Precipitation - when antibody binds to soluble antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three zones of precipitation?

A

Antibody excess, equivalence, and antigen excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is antibody excess?

A

When the concentration of antibody is in excess relative to the concentration of antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is antigen excess?

A

When the concentration of antigen is in excess relative to that of the antibody – crosslinking of two antigens to one antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What can form at equivalence?

A

When antigen and antibody concentrations are equivalent - antibodies can bind bivaletly to form insoluble lattice with mutivalent antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How can antibodies lead to tissue damage?

A

If antigen exposure persists - like in autoimmune disease- the formation of immune complexes overwhelms the pagocytic cells causing tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are antibodies or immunoglobulins?

A

Special proteins that recognize and bind foreign substances on invaders known as antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What types of cells produce antibodies?

A

B cells which differentiate into plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the relative sizes of the light and heavy chains of antibodies?

A

Light = 25 kD, and heavy = 50-65 kD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which portion of the antibody is the antigen binding site?

A

The N-terminal region or variable region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are domains?

A

Compact globular regions with 100-110 AAs formed by intra-chain disulfide bonds – light chain has 2 domains and heavy chain has 4 or 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the hinge region of an antibody?

A

Protease-sensitive region that is flexible and is between the first and second constant regions of the heavy chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What enzyme acts in the hinge region and what does it do?

A

Papain – cleaves antibody to give 2 Fab and 1 Fc gragments and Pepsin – then degrades Fc fragment

36
Q

Which portion of the antibody is responsible for antigen binding and which is responsible for biological activity?

A

Antigen binding – Fab

Biological activity – Fc

37
Q

What are the classes of light chains? How do they differ?

A

Kappa and lambda and differ by residues found in constant region

38
Q

What are the classes of heavy chains? How do they differ?

A

Gamma, mu, alpha, delta, epsilon which differ structurally and therefor biologically in activity

39
Q

Which isotypes of antibody has the highest proportion in human serum and what are its subclasses? What is its structure?

A

IgG – IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4 – 2 gamma heavy chains and either 2 lambda or 2 kappa light chains with 3 constant region domains in its heavy chains

40
Q

Which antibody isotype has the longest half life by far?

A

IgG has 23 days compared to 2-6

41
Q

What is the structure of IgM?

A

2 mu heavy chains and 2 lambda or kappa light chains – makes up 10% serum, heavy chain has 4 constant regions – has pentameric form

42
Q

What is the structure of IgA?

A

2 alpha heavy chains and 2 lambda or kappa light chains – 15-20% in circulation and exists as monomer or dimer with subclasses IgA1 and IgA2 – also found in mucous secretions

43
Q

Which isotypes are found at the lowest proportions?

A

IgD and IgE

44
Q

What are hypervariable regions of an antibody?

A

Regions within the variable domain that show the greatest difference between Ig of the same class or subclass – 3-4 in heavy chain and 3 in light chain

45
Q

What are framework regions of an antibody?

A

Relatively constant portions of the variable region and are involved in proper orientation of the binding site

46
Q

What is the complementarity-determining region?

A

Same as the hypervariable region because the antigenic determinant and antigen-binding site of antibody must complement each other and bind by noncovalent interactions

47
Q

Which immune cells are most responsible for keeping viruses in check?

A

NK cells that release granules that lyse the cell including viruses and tumors

48
Q

Which immune cell is the key player of the immune system working to control virus, bacteria and parasites?

A

Lymphocytes – which can differentiate to form plasma cells which do the same thing

49
Q

Which immune cells are most responsible for keeping bacteria at bay?

A

Neutrophils - also monocytes that are the precursors for macrophages but these are suicidal in nature

50
Q

Which kind of immune cells are most responsible for keeping parasites at bay?

A

Eosinophils, Basophils and mast cells

51
Q

Which immune cell is the gate keeper that activates the initiation of an immune response?

A

DCs

52
Q

What are some characteristics of innate immunity?

A

Born with, active upon first exposure to a pathogen, similar degree of responses to subsequent exposures, response occurs quickly

53
Q

What are the primary barriers to infectious agents?

A

Physical barriers like the epithelium – mechanical like flow of fluid, mucus, saliva, tears, sloughing off skin – chemical like proteases for acidity in GI tract, lysozyme in nasal secretion and tears to break down cell walls to lyse bacteria and defensins to poke holes in bacterial membranes – microbiological like normal flora of the various organs

54
Q

What is the process of inflammation?

A

Surface wound allows introduction of bacteria before clot can form – immune system recognizes bacteria which sends out cytokines to recruit other immune cells from bloodstream – macrophages open up blood vessels to allow cells through to tissue to kill bacteria – RBCs are able to come through to cause redness in infected area

55
Q

How do macrophages kill bacteria?

A

Engulf bacteria by phagocytosis – lysosome fuses with phagosome to form phagolysosome that breaks down bact.

56
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns – how our cells allow us to distinguish from self – LPS, peptidoglycan cell wall, teichoic acid, double membrane

57
Q

What recognizes PAMPs?

A

Pathogen recognition receptors on cells of immune system (PRRs)

58
Q

What is involved in phagocytosis of bacteria?

A

Specific receptors on macrophages critical for recognition of bacteria by PAMPs

59
Q

What kind of receptors on macrophages are most important for signaling and what does their signaling lead to?

A

TLRs – transcription of genes that encode for cytokines that recruit other kinds of immune system cells

60
Q

Where were TLRs initially discovered?

A

Drosophila - in embryo development and later found to be key in ability to respond to fungi

61
Q

How many TLRs have been discovered now and what is their structure?

A

11 found – structure is a single polypeptide chain that functions as a dimer

62
Q

What is the cellular locations of TLRs?

A

On plasma membrane of immune cells to recognize extracellular pathogens (2,1,6,4,5) and on endosomes to recognize intracellular pathogens (3,7,8,9) – each one recognizes specific PAMPs

63
Q

What is the general signaling pathway of TLRs?

A

PRRs on TLRs recognize PAMPs on pathogen like LPS, binding leads to intracellular signaling cascade which leads to production of cytokines – cytokines react with receptors on other immune cells to lead to signaling within immune cell

64
Q

How does JAK/STAT work with cytokines?

A

Cytokines bind to JAK and bridge together allowing for authophosophylation – leads to recruitment of STATS which also leads to phosphorylation and the new dimer can interact with promoter site to induce transcription and lead to response

65
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Proteins produced by different cell types that mediate immune responses – interact with specific receptors on specific cell – they are the prinicipal mediators of communication in immune response

66
Q

What do the cytokines IL-1B and TNF-a do?

A

Induce blood vessels to become more permeable to allow effector cells and molecules to enter infected tissue

67
Q

What does the cytokine IL-6 do?

A

Induces fat and muscle cells to metabolize to make heat and raise the temperature in the infected issue

68
Q

What does the chemokine CXCL8 do?

A

Recruits neutrophils from the blood and guides them to the infected tissue

69
Q

What does the cytokine IL-12 do?

A

Recruits and activates NIK cells that in turn secrete cytokines to strengthen macrophage response to infection

70
Q

What are the cytokines and chemokines associated with inflammation?

A

TNFa, IL-1B, IL-6, CXCL8, IL-12

71
Q

What is autocrine, paracrine and endocrine and examples?

A

Autocrine - cytokine binds to cytokine receptors on same cell (ex. IL-2 on T cells to activate)
Paracrine - how cells talk to eachother - cell produces cytokine to induce change in nearby cells such as INF-y between T-cells and macrophages - can give mutual activation
Endocrine - cytokines produced during an immune response which makes its way into the circulatory system where it’s carried towards distant target organs (fever or IL-6 inducing liver to synthesize acute-phase proteins to lead to phagocyte enhancement and complement activation)

72
Q

What do neutrophils do and how?

A

Get rid of bacteria by engulfing them and destroying with lytic granules

73
Q

Where are neutrophils stored and how do they get into infection site?

A

Stored in bone marrow – attracted to chemokines during immune response – bind weakly through selectins – but anchor to ICAMs with LFA-1 (leukocyte functional antigen) where they are able to get inside blood vessel

74
Q

Is the process of chemokine binding energy dependent on independent?

A

Dependent relies on GTP for signaling

75
Q

What facilitates humoral immunity of the adaptive immune response?

A

B cells respond to presence of microbes and generate plasma cells to secrete antibodies that bind microbe and block infection

76
Q

What facilitates cell-mediated immunity of the adaptive immune response?

A

Phagocytosed microbes in macrophages get bound by helper T cells to activated macrophages to kill phagocytosed microbes, and intracellular microbes replicating within infected cell get bound by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected cell

77
Q

What is clonal selection-expansion?

A

Each lymphocyte has a very specific cell surface receptor and can interact with specific pathogens that signal to only those clones to differentiate into effector cells and expand

78
Q

What are the four functional units of the adaptive immune response?

A

Recognition - amplification/differentiation - effector mechanism by which foreign substances are eliminated and regulation/control

79
Q

What are the 3 components of blood and how do they relate to immune responses?

A

Plasma at the top is responsible for humoral immune response, white blood cells and plateletes in the middle are important for cell-mediated response by T-cells, and RBCs sit at the bottom

80
Q

What are the antigenic receptors?

A

Immunoglobulins for B-cells and T-cell receptors or TCRs

81
Q

How do B cells differentiate into plasma cells and why?

A

B cells bind to antigen of bacteria and wait to become activated by helper T cell through cytokines – activation signals to differentiation of plasma cells and memory cells and plasma cells are able to release antibodies to bind bacteria and recruit macrophages to engulf

82
Q

Where in lymph nodes do B and T cells reside?

A

Lymph node is compartmentalized, B cells aggregate in germinal centers where they can differentiate and T-cells have their own area

83
Q

What are the T-helper subsets?

A

TH1 - help enhance phagocytes
TH2 - help with parasites
TFH (folicular) - make antibodies more effective and generate memory B cells

84
Q

Which subset of T-helper subsets get to enter germinal center?

A

TFH to help make memory cells during differentiation - other subsets remain inside T cell area

85
Q

What do dendritic cells do?

A

Pick up pathogen and break down into components in inflammed site and transfers to lymphoid tissue where antigen naive cells of adaptive immune response reside, DC uses scaffolding molecule (major histocompatability complex MHC) to present antigen to T cells and activate them to respond to infection site – they are transient

504 - Tissue Bio (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions