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N5: Pharmacology > LE 3 Reviewer > Flashcards

LE 3 Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

These anesthetics involve injecting the medication at some point along the nerve(s) that run to and from the region to achieve loss of pain sensation or muscle paralysis, except:

A

Topical Anesthesia

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2
Q

It is the stage of anesthesia characterized by loss of pain sensation and with the patient still conscious and able to communicate.

A

Analgesia Stage

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3
Q

It is an example of a medication injected into the skin at the site of the procedure to achieve numbness for procedures like suturing.

A

Lidocaine

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4
Q

It is the phase where anesthetic is discontinued to regain consciousness, movement, and ability to communicate of the patient.

A

Recovery

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5
Q

Which of the following nursing actions should be performed when caring for a patient on general anesthesia? Select all that apply.

A

Prepare the emergency cart.
Raise side rails.
Monitor vital signs and ECG reading.
Check liver and kidney function tests prior to administration.

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6
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding narcotic agents?

A

Diazepam ampules for IV administration can be dispensed using a regular doctor’s prescription

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about Acetaminophen?

A

It can reduce underlying inflammation and swelling of the joint in arthritis.

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8
Q

What should you assess prior to administration of analgesics? Select all that apply

A

PQRST

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9
Q

The following statements are true about pain medications except:

A

Opioids are safe to use in pregnant women and
lactating mothers.

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10
Q

It is an opioid antagonist that can be used during an emergency situation when a person’s breathing slows down due to opioid overdose.

A

Naloxone

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is true about opioid receptor agonists?

A

Opioid receptor agonists produce a dose- dependent respiratory depression.

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12
Q

You’re teaching a 20-year old patient with asthma about the use of bronchodilators. You should teach the patient:

A

to take a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist
for acute bronchospasm

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13
Q

The most effective bronchodilator drugs are:

A

beta2 agonists

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14
Q

Which of the following drugs is a short-acting beta2 agonist:

A

beclomethasone dipropionate

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15
Q

Which of the following drugs is a short-acting beta2 agonist:

A

Salbutamol

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16
Q

Which anticholinergic agent is used to treat patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

Ipratropium bromide

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17
Q

The following statements are true when considering inhalation as route of administration for bronchial asthma drugs, except:

A

The effect is rapid but side effects are more serious

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18
Q

Which of the following types of drugs are prescribed to reduce inflammation of the airways in patients with asthma and COPD:

A

Corticosteroids

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19
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonists are effective in the prophylaxis of which respiratory condition?

A

Exercise-induced asthma

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is true about topical decongestants?

A

Topical decongestants act locally on the alpha- adrenergic receptors of the vascular smooth muscle in the nose, causing the arterioles to constrict.

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21
Q

Which of the following statement about respiratory drugs is false:

A

High doses of expectorant medicines can have an antiemetic effect.

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22
Q

The following drugs are inhalation long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists, except:

A

Terbutaline

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23
Q

What will you assess in patients undergoing treatment with methylxanthines? Select all that apply.

A

Peak Flow readings
Knowledge on drug therapy
Oxygen saturation
Respiratory rate and rhythm

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24
Q

The following drugs are systemic decongestants, except:

A

Tetrahydrozoline

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25
Q

The following the statements is true about administration of calcium except:

A

If extravasation occurs, stop IV infusion immediately and apply cold, moist compress.

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26
Q

A patient with an active liver disease has been admitted to the ward. Patient reported a history of bronchial asthma. Which of the following drug is contraindicated to the patient:

A

Zileuton

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27
Q

This type of drug is anti- inflammatory agents available in both inhaled and systemic formulations for the short- and long-term control of asthma symptoms.

A

Corticosteroids

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28
Q

Which drug is an antagonistic antimuscarinic drug that acts as a bronchodilator by competitively blocking the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the parasympathetic (cholinergic) receptors:

A

ipratropium bromide

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29
Q

Which of the following drugs are mast cell stabilizers? Select all that apply.

A

Nedocromyl
Cromolyn sodium

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30
Q

This type of drug helps make mucus easier to cough up and is used for the relief of symptoms caused by productive coughs from many disorders.

A

Expectorants

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31
Q

Systemic decongestants can cause severe hypertensive crisis when taken with this type of drugs:

A

MAO inhibitors

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32
Q

Which leukotriene modifier’s absorption is decreased by food, requiring that the drug be given 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals?

A

Zafirlukast

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33
Q

This type of drug provides relief from nasal allergies including hay fever:

A

Antihistamines

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34
Q

Which of the following is not true about beta2-adrenergic agonists:

A

Beta2-adrenergic agonists increase levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate through the stimulation of beta2-adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle, resulting in bronchoconstriction.

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35
Q

Which of the following is an example of low molecular weight Heparin?

A

Enoxaparin

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36
Q

Spironolactone is contraindicated in this condition:

A

Hyperkalemia

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37
Q

Which of the following is/are advantages about nasal decongestants? Select all the apply.

A

Rapid symptom relief
Minimal adverse effects

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38
Q

Systemic decongestants should be use cautiously with patients who have the following conditions except:

A

Hyperthermia

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39
Q

An adult patient was rushed to the emergency room due to an acute severe asthma attack. Which of the following drugs should you administer first?

A

Albuterol

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40
Q

Which of the following is/are normal side effects of Albuterol? Select all that apply:

A

Tremors
Insomnia
Tachycardia

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41
Q

A patient with hypertension is taking a new medication and is now reporting continuous dry cough. Which of the following is likely to be the cause?

A

Enalapril

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42
Q

Amlodipine, Verapamil, and Diltiazem belong to which class of drugs?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

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43
Q

Administration of antihypertensive agents to control blood pressure should be accompanied by nonpharmacologic strategies. When you conduct your client teaching, which of the following is least likely to be included?

A

Use of multiviltamins

44
Q

Which is the most important nursing action before you administer any type of antihypertensive medication?

A

Check the patient’s blood pressure.

45
Q

A 55-year old patient is advised
to take Metoprolol 50 mg/tab 1 tab BID p.o.
What should you include in the health teaching?

A

Check the pulse rate before taking the drug.

46
Q

Which of the following diuretics
has hyperkalemia as an adverse effect?

A

Spironolactone

47
Q

Ototoxicity may occur with this
treatment.

A

Furosemide

48
Q

What is/are the recommended
first line of treatment for patients with
hypertension and chronic kidney disease? Select
all that apply.

A

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
ACE inhibitors

49
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about dihydropyridines?

A

They are used more as antiarrhythmic medications and less for HTN treatment compared to non-dihydropyridines.

50
Q

You are about to administer Furosemide 40 mg IV to a patient. Upon checking the patient’s blood pressure, it was 140/90 mmHg. What will you do?

A

Administer Furosemide 40 mg intravenously.

51
Q

You are about to administer Metoprolol 100 mg tab to a patient. Upon checking the patient’s pulse rate, it was 40 beats per minute. What will you do?

A

Withhold the drug and assess further.

52
Q

Which of the following is not true about combination therapy for hypertension?

A

ACE inhibitors and Angiotensin Receptor Blockers make a good combination

53
Q

Which of the following is not a side effect of Furosemide?

A

Pulmonary toxicity

54
Q

When educating a patient on a new beta blocker prescription, which of the following safety information is most critical?

A

Beta blockers can not be stopped abruptly due to risk of severe (even fatal) rebound hypertension

55
Q

What is the antidote for overdose of warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

56
Q

Which of these drugs can be given sublingually to relieve angina?

A

Isosorbide dinitrate

57
Q

The patient is bradycardic and you are asked to administer atropine. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of atropine?

A

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

58
Q

Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for digitalis toxicity?

A

An 80-year old client with CHF.

59
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for digoxin administration?

A

Pulse rate of 108 beats/min

60
Q

When a medication has a positive inotropic effect, what does it mean?

A

Increases force of cardiac contraction

61
Q

These antiarrhythmics increase the refractory period of the AV node by slowing the influx of calcium ions, thus decreasing the ventricular response and decreasing the heart rate.

A

Class IV - Calcium Channel Blockers

62
Q

When administering an antiarrhythmic agent, which of the following assessment parameters is the most important for the nurse to evaluate?

A

ECG

63
Q

What is/are the most common side effect/s associated with nitrates? Select all that apply:

A

headache
Hypotension

64
Q

A 49-year-old woman came to the emergency room complaining of episodes of chest pain on exertion during the last two days. Physical signs were: blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 85 bpm, respiration 15 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation revealed a regular rhythm with no abnormal cardiac sounds or murmurs. An ECG was unremarkable. Diagnosis of exertional angina was made and a therapy with sublingual nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate was ordered. Which of the following adverse effects might most likely occur in this patient?

A

Postural hypotension

65
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet aggregation?

A

Aspirin

66
Q

What drug would likely be prescribed for a patient with atherosclerosis in the legs (intermittent claudication) causing pain, cramping, and weakness in calf muscles when walking?

A

Cilostazol

67
Q

How can heparin be administered? Select all that apply.

A

IV
SQ

68
Q

A pregnant woman needs a lipid-lowering agent. What would be the best class of lipid-lowering agent for pregnant women?

A

Bile acid sequestrants

69
Q

When should statins be taken to maximize its therapeutic effects?

A

At night

70
Q

Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take before administering digoxin?

A

Check serum potassium level.

71
Q

You are the nurse taking care of a patient hospitalized for a deep vein thrombosis. You are reviewing his discharge medications, and counsel him about the benefits and risks associated with Rivaroxaban. Which of the following is a major possible adverse effect associated with this drug?

A

Bleeding

72
Q

You are a nurse in a primary care setting. One of your patients is diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia, and after failing to see cholesterol improvements with diet and exercise, is started on atorvastatin. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibition

73
Q

This drug acts an adrenergic agonist that acts on the alpha-2 receptor and is used to lower blood pressure in patients with hypertension.

A

Clonidine

74
Q

Carisoprodol is an antispasmodic agent. Which of the following should be excluded in the health teaching of a patient taking this drug?

A

Tell client that the drug may cause
gastrointestinal upset so it should be taken on an empty stomach.

75
Q

Phenylephrine is an adrenergic drug that is used as a nasal decongestant. Which receptor does it act on?

A

Alpha-1

76
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about activated charcoal?

A

Decreases the absorption of oral medications so give the medication within 2 hours after giving the drug

77
Q

When administering digestive drugs, is it necessary for the nurse to?

A

If dairy products are consumed, take enzymes 15 minutes prior to meal.

78
Q

Which of the following drug/s is/are antidiarrheals?

A

Loperamide, Diphenoxylate, Kaolin and pectin

79
Q

A 70 year old debilitated patient is receiving kaolin and pectin. Which of the following is a common side effect of this type of antidiarrheal to elderly patients?

A

Constipation

80
Q

A 70 year old debilitated patient is receiving kaolin and pectin. Which of the following is a common side effect of this type of antidiarrheal to elderly patients?

A

Constipation

81
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Dehydrocholic acid is used to stimulate defecation

A

FALSE

82
Q

A female elderly patient is receiving laxative due to chronic constipation. A nurse should implement the following procedure, except?

A

Crush enteric coated tablets to increase absorption of the drug.

82
Q

A female elderly patient is receiving laxative due to chronic constipation. A nurse should implement the following procedure, except?

A

Crush enteric coated tablets to increase absorption of the drug.

83
Q

The following drug/s is/are used to decrease nausea thus reducing the urge to vomit?

A

Cannabinoids, Antihistamines

84
Q

When giving instruction to an adult patient on giving antiemetics for motion sickness, it is important to tell the patient to?

A

Take the drug at least 30 to 60 minutes before travel.

85
Q

Which of the following drugs prevents peptic ulcers caused by NSAIDs in patients at high risk for complications resulting from gastric ulcers?

A

Misoprostol

86
Q

You are taking care of a 17-year old patient who is taking an antacid for his treatment of peptic ulcer. The following are important nursing considerations except?

A

Administer antacids along with H2-receptor antagonists for better patient outcome.

87
Q

Which antiulcer drug works by binding gastrin, acetylcholine, and histamine to receptors on the parietal cells, thus secretion of acid is reduced?

A

Cimetidine

88
Q

H2 receptor antagonists should be used cautiously with which of the following?

A

60 year old male patient with acute kidney disease

89
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Proton pump inhibitors increase secretion of gastric acid.

A

FALSE

90
Q

Which of the following statements is true about proton pump inhibitors?

A

Prolonged use has been associated with higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia.

91
Q

This antiulcer drug is given orally in enteric coated formulas to bypass the stomach because they’re highly unstable in acid

A

Omeprazole

92
Q

Misoprostol should be used cautiously with whose patient?

A

25 year old married patient

93
Q

Which of the following is the principal extracellular fluid electrolyte necessary for homeostasis?

A

Sodium

94
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Potassium is the major positive charge ion in the ECF

A

FALSE

95
Q

Hypokalemia is a normal occurrence in conditions that increase potassium excretion or depletion. Select all conditions that increase potassium excretion or depletion.

A

Chronic kidney disease

96
Q

Some medications can increase potassium levels in the blood and should be used cautiously with patients taking these drugs, except?

A

Furosemide

97
Q

Which of the following patients may have increased inability to use vitamins in the body thus needing supplementation? Select all that apply.

A

50-year old male patient with liver cirrhosis, 40-year old female with acute glomerulonephritis

98
Q

You are assigned to a 65-year old patient admitted due to multiple electrolyte imbalances secondary to severe dehydration. The patient is receiving IV magnesium upon handover and your notice that the IV is tender and warm to touch. Which of the following is your best action?

A

Stop infusion immediately.

99
Q

This fat-soluble vitamin is essential for protection of fatty acids and promotes formation and functioning of RBCs, muscles and other tissues.

A

Vitamin E

100
Q

What is the recommended daily allowance for calcium in male and female patients?

A

800-1,200 mg

101
Q

A 25 year old male patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was prescribed with anti-TB drugs is assigned to you. Knowing the possible side effects of isoniazid and other TB drugs, which supplement is necessary to include in his treatment plan:

A

Vitamin B6

102
Q

A 25 year old male patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was prescribed with anti-TB drugs is assigned to you. Knowing the possible side effects of isoniazid and other TB drugs, which supplement is necessary to include in his treatment plan:

A

Vitamin B6

103
Q

This enteral formula has predigested nutrients and is easier to digest therefore better tolerated in patients with GI disease.

A

Oligomeric and monomeric formulas

104
Q

Which of the following is a metabolic complication to parenteral nutrition? Select all that apply.

A

Refeeding syndrome, Hepatic steatosis

N5: Pharmacology (7 decks)

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