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N5: Pharmacology > ALL LESSONS > Flashcards

ALL LESSONS Flashcards

1
Q

Question 14 Which of the following describes First order elimination?
a. Drug concentration decreases exponentially with time
b. Half-life is not useful in first order kinetics.
c. Rate of elimination is constant
d. Drugs saturate their elimination mechanisms

A

The correct answer is: Drug concentration decreases exponentially with time

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2
Q

Question 15 Which of the following will lead to a shorter half-life
a. Higher initial concentration
b. Decreased clearance
c. Increased volume of distribution
d. Increased rate of elimination

A

The correct answer is: Increased rate of elimination

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3
Q

Question 16 As a nurse, you ensure that you give the right dose of the right drug to the right patient through the right route. Which ethical principle is shown here?
a. Fairness
b. Non-Maleficence
c. Beneficence
d. Autonomy

A

The correct answer is: Beneficence

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4
Q

Question 17 Before an invasive procedure, an informed consent from the patient is secured. This is an example of:
a. Non-Maleficence
b. Confidentiality
c. Respect for Autonomy
d. Justice

A

The correct answer is: Respect for Autonomy

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5
Q

Question 18 A patient had rashes and pruritus after receiving an IV antibiotic. Which of the following should the nurse do?
a. Administer medications for the rashes and pruritus as prescribe
b. d.
c. Write an incident report.
d. Inform the physician about the untoward effect of the medication on the patient.
e. Document patient’s reaction to the IV antibiotics

A

The correct answers are: Administer medications for the rashes and pruritus as prescribed., Document patient’s reaction to the IV antibiotics, Inform the physician about the untoward effect of the medication on the patient., Write an incident report.

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6
Q

Question 19 Upon admission, the patient signs a form that tells the healthcare providers that he does not wish to receive resuscitation measures like intubation and CPR in the event of cardiac arrest. What ethical principle is applied in this situation?
a. Justice
b. Non-Maleficence
c. Respect for Autonomy
d. Confidentiality

A

The correct answer is: Respect for Autonomy

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7
Q

Question 20 What is/are the legal responsibility/ies of a nurse?
a. A nurse must have an updated professional license to practice.
b. A nurse must attend continuing education programs to enhance competencies and upgrade skills in nursing.
c. A nurse must know the laws that affect nursing practice.
d. A nurse must understand the scope of nursing practice, the job description, and agency rules and policies he/she is working in.

A

The correct answers are: A nurse must have an updated professional license to practice., A nurse must know the laws that affect nursing practice., A nurse must attend continuing education programs to enhance competencies and upgrade skills in nursing., A nurse must understand the scope of nursing practice, the job description, and agency rules and policies he/she is working in.

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8
Q

Question 21 The adverse drug events are not fully established by pre-marketing studies because of the following:
a. The period of pre-marketing clinical trials will not reveal long term effects.
b. The effects of concomitant disease and drugs are normally studied.
c. Clinical trials can predict a drug’s use in different clinical settings.
d. Special patient groups are normally included in clinical trials.

A

The correct answer is: The period of pre-marketing clinical trials will not reveal long term effects.

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9
Q

Question 22 The following statement(s) is/are true of adverse drug reactions:
a. All of the above
b. Adverse drug reactions are often apparent.
c. A casualty relationship exists when an event is labeled as adverse drug reaction.
d. Adverse drug reactions usually occur immediately after drug intake.

A

The correct answer is: A casualty relationship exists when an event is labeled as adverse drug reaction.

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10
Q

Question 23 Serious adverse drug reaction is any untoward occurrence that at any dose…
a. Requires inpatient hospitalization
b. All of the above
c. Is life threatening
d. Is a congenital anomaly/birth defect.

A

The correct answer is: All of the above

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11
Q

Question 24 The type of adverse drug reaction which is predictable, dose-related and is not related to goal of treatment is:
a. Type B
b. Type A, side-effect
c. Type A, extension
d. Type E

A

The correct answer is: Type A, side-effect

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12
Q

Question 25 In drug interactions, characteristic(s) of an object drug is/are:
a. Decreases the metabolism of object drug resulting in a decreased efficacy of object drug
b. Low protein binding capacity
c. Has a low toxic: therapeutic ratio
d. All of the above

A

The correct answer is: Has a low toxic: therapeutic ratio

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13
Q

Question 26 This type of drug interaction involves interaction due to the same cellular mechanisms acting in concert or opposition.
a. Physiologic pharmacodynamic drug interaction
b. Pharmacologic pharmacodynamic drug interaction
c. Indirect pharmacodynamic drug interaction
d. Pharmacokinetic drug interaction

A

The correct answer is: Physiologic pharmacodynamic drug interaction

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14
Q

Question 27 A commonly encountered pharmaceutical drug interactions is:
a. Food-drug interaction
b. Formulation of an active drug substance
c. Drug-container interaction
d. IV incompatibilities

A

The correct answer is: IV incompatibilities

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15
Q

Question 41
True statement about Herbal Supplements:
a. They help the consumer attain their nutritional requirements.
b. Clinical trials proving their efficacy are required for registration.
c. They can be used as substitutes for synthetic drugs.
d. The claimed application is based on more than 50 years of clinical use.

A

The correct answer is: They help the consumer attain their
nutritional requirements

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16
Q

Question 42
The herbal medicine Lagundi (Vitex negundo) tablet or syrup formulated by NIRPROMP/IHM approved indication is for:
a. Treatment of hyperuricemia
b. Cough of non-bacterial origin and asthma
c. Treatment of urinary tract stones
d. Treatment of hyperglycemia

A

The correct answer is: Cough of non-bacterial origin and asthma

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17
Q

Question 43
The herbal medicine Sambong (Blumea balsamifera) formulated by NIRPROMP/IHM approved indication is for:
a. Treatment of hyperuricemia
b. Treatment of hyperglycemia
c. Treatment of urinary tract stones
d. Cough of non-bacterial origin and asthma

A

The correct answer is: Treatment of urinary tract stones

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18
Q

Question 44
The herbal medicine Ulasimang bato (Pepperomia pellucida) tablet formulated by NIRPROMP/IHM approved indication is for:
a. Treatment of hyperglycemia
b. Treatment of urinary tract stones
c. Cough of non-bacterial origin and asthma
d. Treatment of hyperuricemia

A

The correct answer is: Treatment of hyperuricemia

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19
Q

Question 45
The herbal medicine Tsaang gubat (Ehretia microphilia) tablet or syrup formulated by NIRPROMP/IHM approved indication is for:
a. Treatment of hyperuricemia
b. Cough of non-bacterial origin and asthma
c. Treatment of diarrhea and biliary colic
d. Treatment of urinary tract stones

A

The correct answer is: Treatment of diarrhea and biliary colic

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20
Q

Question 46
What will you do if a previously well two-year-old child presents at the ER with seizures of unknown etiology?
a. Give Pyridoxine at 80 mg/kg IV
b. All the above
c. Give Diazepam at 3mg/kg IV bolus
d. Give dextrose 50 at 1cc/kg IV

A

The correct answer is: Give Pyridoxine at 80 mg/kg IV

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21
Q

Question 47
What will you recommend for coma of unknown etiology?
a. Give Pyridoxine IV
b. Give a trial of naloxone
c. All the above
d. Give Diazepam IV

A

The correct answer is: Give a trial of naloxone

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22
Q

Question 48
The following poisons may have delayed manifestations:
a. Ferrous sulfate
b. Acute alcoholic(ethanol) intoxication
c. All the above
d. Thyroxine hormone

A

The correct answer is: Thyroxine hormone

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23
Q

Question 49
Which of the following signs and symptoms refer to the INH toxidrome?
a. Pinpoint pupils, seizures, metabolic acidosis
b. Seizures, hyperthermia, respiratory alkalosis
c. Coma, seizures, metabolic acidosis
d. None of the above

A

The correct answer is: Coma, seizures, metabolic acidosis

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24
Q

Question 50
When a flat film of the abdomen is requested, the information may point to which of the following as a cause of poisoning except?
a. Ferrous (Iron) tablets
b. Chloral hydrate
c. Ferrous (Iron) syrup
d. Heavy metals

A

The correct answer is: Ferrous (Iron) syrup

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25
Q

Question 51
In the clinical evaluation of a poisoned patient, emergency stabilization procedures include the following:
a. Maintenance of adequate airway and ventilation
b. Ensuring adequate circulation
c. ion of metabolic acidosis
d. All the above

A

The correct answer is: All the above

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26
Q

Question 52
Which of the following substance(s) will not be effectively absorbed by activated charcoal?
a. Methamphetamine
b. Paracetamol
c. Cyanide
d. Salicylates

A

The correct answer is: Cyanide

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27
Q

Question 53
The presence of insomnia,hypertension, dilated pupils, diaphoresis and flushing is the toxidrome associated with:
a. Datura Metel poisoning
b. Opiate overdose
c. Methamphetamine toxicity
d. INH poisoning

A

The correct answer is: Methamphetamine toxicity

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28
Q

Question 54
TRUE OR FALSE: In accidental poisoning in children, child abuse is not a common consideration.
a. False
b. True

A

The correct answer is: False

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29
Q

Question 69
After several cycles of chemotherapy, the patient was found to have a high resting pulse rate. A noninvasive radionuclide scan revealed evidence of cardiomyopathy. The drug that is most likely responsible for the cardiac toxicity is?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Doxorubicin
c. Fluorouracil
d. Methotrexate

A

The correct answer is: Doxorubicin

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30
Q

Question 70

Which of the following therapies utilize modified effector cells to treat tumors?

a. Cytokines
b. Cancer vaccines
c. Adaptive cell therapy
d. Immunoconjugates

A

The correct answer is: Adaptive cell therapy

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31
Q

Question 71

The chemotherapy undertaken by the Mr. Makabayan caused his urine to turn reddish with blood tinge. Which of the following statement describes this complication?

a. Is associated with ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide administration
b. Can be prevented or treated with acrolein
c. Is caused by excretion of tumor cell breakdown products
d. Is caused by administration of mesna

A

The correct answer is: Is associated with ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide administration

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32
Q

Question 72

Prevention of toxicities from chemotherapy include the following:

a. Complying with the dose scheduling
b. Adequate hydration
c. All of the above
d. Giving of anti-emetic drugs

A

The correct answer is: All of the above

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33
Q

Question 73

Ways to assure safety during chemotherapy institution include

a. Statement B: Monitoring laboratory parameters of patient
b. A and B only
c: Statement C: Immediately provide chemotherapy as
instructed on day of admission
d. Statement A: Verifying doses with another independent
oncologic nurse

A

The correct answer is: A and B only

34
Q

Question 74

A drug used to reverse toxicity from methotrexate is

a. Leucovorin
b. Acrolein
c. Mesna
d. Ondansetron

A

The correct answer is: Leucovorin

35
Q

Question 75

This statement is correct about Passive Immunity.

a. Passive immunity is acquired following administration of immunoglobulins and immunity is relatively permanent.
b. Passive immunity is acquired following vaccination and immunity is relatively permanent.
c. Passive immunity is acquired following transfer of maternal antibodies and immunity is relatively temporary.
d. Passive immunity is acquired following clinical infection and immunity is relatively permanent.

A

The correct answer is: Passive immunity is acquired following transfer of maternal antibodies and immunity is relatively temporary.

36
Q

Question 76

This statement is correct about active immunity.

a. Active immunity is acquired following administration of immunoglobulins and immunity is relatively temporary.
b. Active immunity is acquired following transfer of maternal
antibodies and immunity is relatively temporary.
c. Active immunity is acquired following vaccination and
immunity is relatively temporary.
d. Active immunity is acquired following clinical infection and
immunity is relatively permanent.

A

The correct answer is: Active immunity is acquired following clinical infection and immunity is relatively permanent.

37
Q

Question 77

A type of vaccine which uses weakened microorganisms.

a. RNA vaccine
b. Subunit Vaccine
c. Live Attenuated Vaccine
d. Toxoid

A

The correct answer is: Live Attenuated Vaccine

38
Q

Question 78

A type of vaccine which uses antigenic protein or purified protein

a. RNA vaccine
b. Live Attenuated Vaccine
c. Toxoid
d. Subunit Vaccine

A

The correct answer is: Subunit Vaccine

39
Q

Question 80

The following are components of a vaccine. Which one enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen and helps the vaccine works.

a. Stabilizer
b. Antibiotics
c. Adjuvant
d. Preservative

A

The correct answer is: Adjuvant

40
Q

Question 79

The following are components of a vaccine. Which one triggers immune responses that provide protection?

a. Preservative
b. Stabilizer
c. Antigen
d. Adjuvant

A

The correct answer is: Antigen

41
Q

Question 55

TRUE OR FALSE: Increased mobility and curiosity among toddlers may contribute to accidental poisoning in this age group.

A

The correct answer is: TRUE

42
Q

Question 80

The following are components of a vaccine. Which one enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen and helps the vaccine works.

a. Stabilizer
b. Antibiotics
c. Adjuvant
d. Preservative

A

The correct answer is: Adjuvant

43
Q

Question 56

TRUE OR FASLE: 3. In cases of intentional overdose, it is important to refer the patient for psychological support or a psychiatric consult.

A

The correct answer is: TRUE

44
Q

Question 81

Vaccines mediate protection by…

a. inducing both the memory cells and the effector cells or molecules
b. inducing effector cells or molecules only
c. inducing memory cells only
d. inducing antibodies only

A

The correct answer is: inducing both the memory cells and the effector cells or molecules

45
Q

Question 57

TRUE OR FALSE: 4. It is important to correct hypoglycemia and acidosis among poisoned patients.

A

The correct answer is: TRUE

46
Q

Question 58

What is the addictive component in tobacco or cigarettes?

a. tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
b. methamphetamine
c. nicotine
d. morphine

A

The correct answer is: nicotine

47
Q

Question 59

A characteristic group of physical effects or symptoms that emerge as amount of substance in the body decreases.

a. tolerance
b. withdrawal
c. addiction
d. dependence

A

The correct answer is: withdrawal

48
Q

Question 60

Alcohol is classified as:

a. hallucinogen
b. stimulants
c. depressants
d. narcotics

A

The correct answer is: depressants

49
Q

Question 61

Aside from Marijuana, what are the street names of Cannabis sativa

a. Roofies and “forget pill”
b. Shabu and ice
c. Crack and coke
d. Weed and grass

A

The correct answer is: Weed and grass

50
Q

Question 62

Involuntary teeth clenching is an initial manifestation of intoxication with

a. methamphetamine (shabu)
b. tetrahydrocannabinol (marijuana)
c. MDMA (ecstasy)
d. alcohol

A

The correct answer is: MDMA (ecstasy)

51
Q

Question 63

A hallucinogenic agent usually in the form of blotted paper placed in the tongue

a. Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD)
b. Gamma Hydroxy Butyric Acid (GHB)
c. Ketamine
d. Flunitrazepam

A

The correct answer is: Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD)

52
Q

Question 64

The characteristic “High” experienced with the use of Ketamine

a. bright colors and distorted shapes in visual hallucinations
b. out-of-body experience
c. heightened senses, feelings of closeness to others
d. elevated mood, heightened energy, appetite suppressant

A

The correct answer is: out-of-body experience

53
Q

Question 65

Mrs. Del Prado, 46 years old Female, has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. Answer the following questions. Choose the best answer. The different modalities of treatment for cancer include the following EXCEPT:

a. Aromatherapy
b. Gene therapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Surgery

A

The correct answer is: Aromatherapy

54
Q

Question 66

Factor/s that affect/s response to treatment of cancer with chemotherapy would include:

a. functional capacity of patient
b. stage of tumor
c. all of the above
d. type and size and tumor

A

The correct answer is: All of the above

55
Q

Question 67

Which anticancer agent that works by depolymerization of microtubules?

a. Methotrexate
b. Prednisone
c. Azatidine
d. Vinblastine

A

The correct answer is: Vinblastine

56
Q

Question 68

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of anticancer action of cellular metabolites of fluorouracil?

a. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis
b. Cross-linking of double-stranded DNA
c. Irreversible inhibition of thymidylate synthase
d. Interference with the activity of topoisomerases I

A

The correct answer is: Irreversible inhibition of thymidylate synthase

57
Q

Question 19 Upon admission, the patient signs a form that tells the healthcare providers that he does not wish to receive resuscitation measures like intubation and CPR in the event of cardiac arrest. What ethical principle is applied in this situation?
a. Justice
b. Non-Maleficence
c. Respect for Autonomy
d. Confidentiality

A

The correct answer is: Respect for Autonomy

58
Q

Question 1 Which of the following describes a drug?
a. Chemical substance of known structure that produces a biologic effect.
b. All of the above
c. Synthetic chemicals, extract from plants or animals
d. Addictive, narcotic, mind altering substance

A

b. All of the above

59
Q

Question 2 Clinical phase of investigational drug study in which a
small number of healthy subjects are used.
a. Phase III
b. Phase I
c. Phase IV
d. Phase II

A

b. Phase I

60
Q

Question 3 Which of the following is part of the pharmaceutical phase of drug activity?
a. Dissolution of drug
b. Absorption of drug
c. Metabolism of drug
d. Excretion of drug

A

a. Dissolution of drug

61
Q

Question 4 Which of the following would improve absorption of a drug when taken orally?
a. Reduced gastric acidity
b. Diarrhea
c. Medication dissolves readily
d. Decreased blood flow to the small intestine

A

c. Medication dissolves readily

62
Q

Question 5 Which of the following terms is defined as the ratio between the drug’s therapeutic benefits and it toxic effects?
a. Therapeutic index
b. Tolerance
c. Dependence
d. Peak and Trough levels

A

a. Therapeutic index

63
Q

Question 6 A diabetic patient has renal kidney disease. Care has to be exercised when giving medications to this patient because of changes in which of the following?

a. Biotransformation
b. Distribution
c. Absorption
d. Excretion

A

d. Excretion

64
Q

Question 7 A drug has a high first pass effect and the route was changed to oral from intravenous. The oral dose to be given will
most likely be which of the following?
a. Lower than the intravenous dose.
b. Cannot be determine
c. d.
d. Higher than the intravenous dose.
e. The same as the intravenous dose.

A

d. Higher than the intravenous dose.

65
Q

Question 8 Deals with sources of drugs derived from plants and animals.
a. Chemotherapy
b. Pharmaceutics
c. Pharmacotherapeutics
d. Pharmacognosy

A

d. Pharmacognosy

66
Q

Question 9 Which of the following are most significant concerns in Pharmacotherapeutics?
a. Timeliness and Equity
b. Drug Cost and Suitability
c. Pharmacogenetics and Pharmacogenomics
d. Drug Efficacy and Safety

A

d. Drug Efficacy and Safety

67
Q

Question 10 Most receptors are what type of molecule?
a. Regulatory proteins
b. Transport proteins
c. Polysaccharide
d. Enzymes

A

a. Regulatory proteins

68
Q

Question 11 Which of the following is a characteristic of a competitive antagonist?

a. It will increase the EC50 of the full agonist.
b. It will permanently prevent binding of the agonist to its receptor.
c. It has affinity and can produce intrinsic activity.
d. It will increase the TD50 of the full agonist.

A

a. It will increase the EC50 of the full agonist.

69
Q

Question 12 Which of the following is true about ED50?
a. It is inversely proportional to the therapeutic index.
b. It is equal to Kd.
c. It is derived from the graded dose-response curve.
d. It corresponds to the concentration that elicits 50% of maximal response.

A

a. It is inversely proportional to the therapeutic index.

70
Q

Question 13 Which field of Pharmacology deals with the relationship between drug dose and drug concentration

a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Medical Pharmacology
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Clinical Pharmacology

A

c. Pharmacokinetics

71
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true of medication errors:
a. It is generally the fault of prescribers.
b. All medication errors cause harm to patients.
c. It is beyond the control of health professionals.
d. It is a preventable event.

A

The correct answer is: It is a preventable event.

72
Q

Memory-based errors are considered:
a. Lapses
b. Mistakes
c. Slips
d. Bad rules

A

The correct answer is: Lapses

73
Q

A medication error that occurred and harm is observed is referred to as:
a. Potential ADE
b. Drug Toxicity
c. Ameliorable ADE
d. Preventable ADE

A

The correct answer is: Preventable ADE

74
Q

When a patient received Diazepam 5 mg IV every 8 hours instead of 5 mg tablet orally every 8 hours, the type of medication error is:
a. Improper dose error
b. Unauthorized drug error
c. Wrong drug preparation error
d. Wrong dosage-form error

A

The correct answer is: Wrong dosage-form error

75
Q

The type of medication error wherein the nurse erroneously transferred the doctor’s drug order to a request form is referred to as:
a. Prescribing Error
b. Adherence Error
c. Dispensing Error
d. Transcribing Error

A

The correct answer is: Transcribing Error

76
Q

When a patient received Morphine 30 mg tablet every 4 hours instead of 10 mg every 4 hours, the type of medication error is:
a. Wrong drug-preparation error
b. Wrong dosage-form error
c. Wrong administration-technique error d. Improper dose error

A

The correct answer is: Improper dose error

77
Q

When the patient receives phenytoin as a bolus instead of a push, the type of medication error is:
a. Unauthorized drug error
b. Wrong dosage-form error
c. Wrong administration-technique error d. Wrong drug-preparation error

A

The correct answer is: Wrong administration-technique error

78
Q

Common cause of medication errors that involves procedures is:
a. Inadequately trained personnel
b. Misuse of zeroes and decimal points c. Excessive workload
d. Unavailability of medication

A

The correct answer is: Misuse of zeroes and decimal points

79
Q

drug information as a safety net means:
a. Identify high-alert medications b. Check for expiration dates
c. All of the above
d. Maintain drug references

A

The correct answer is: All of the above

80
Q

Bevazucimab, a newly discovered VEGF inhibitor for cancer, just finished FDA approval November 2010 and began marketing to doctors and patients early 2011. Dr. Bueno, a medical oncologist, wanted to show safety of this new drug to her patients with metastatic ovarian cancer. Roche, a pharmaceutical company, granted her a grant to gather all adverse events of the said drug.
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 1

A

The correct answer is: Phase 4

81
Q

A new drug, AB704, just got approval from FDA. A clinical trial is being designed to measure its pharmacologic properties. The design includes giving 25 mg of the tablet daily to 25 healthy patients. Results of the study showed that the t1/2 is 30 minutes, and a bioavailability of 85%.
a. Phase 3
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 1

A

The correct answer is: Phase 1

82
Q

Dr. Ramos and his group of scientists wanted to study the newly discovered molecule GA101 on breast cancer patients. They used rat models showing the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug, and were able to prove that the new molecule was able to decrease the size of the mass by 10% in rat tissues.
a. Phase3
b. Phase 1
c. Pre-clinical
d. Phase 2

A

The correct answer is: Pre-clinical

N5: Pharmacology (7 decks)

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