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Law Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Final Approach Speeds (Cat A)

A

70-100

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of runway centreline lights?

A

Must be white until 900m from runway end; Alternating white and red from 900m to 300m from runway end; Red from 300m to runway end

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3
Q

When does a SID terminate?

A

When established on cleared route.

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4
Q

Circling Distance (Cat A)

A

1.68

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5
Q

Max Speed on SID (Cat B)

A

165

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6
Q

Circling - Minimum Obstacle Clearance Provided (Cat C)

A

394ft

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7
Q

Outbound timing in a hold

A

1 minute if at 14,000ft or below, 1.5 minutes if above 14,000ft or until appropriate limiting distance is reached.

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8
Q

Angle of bank for missed approach turns:

A

Minimum of 15 degrees angle of bank is assumed

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9
Q

Initial Approach Speeds (Cat C)

A

160-240

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10
Q

Is it possible to hold at speeds faster than standard speed restrictions?

A

Yes, provided ATC are advised, subject to clearance (may result in increased minimum holding altitude).

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11
Q

When may an aircraft be issued a descent restriction on an approach prior to reporting visual reference?

A

Reporting or known cloud base is at least 1000ft above the altitude specified in the descent restriction; AND Visibility is equal to or greater than 8km; AND the reason for the descent restriction is passed onto the pilot.

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12
Q

Category II precision approach procedure

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft, and a RVR not less than 350m.

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13
Q

Vat (Cat D)

A

141-165

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14
Q

Close in obstacles above departure end of runway may not be taken into account if the height is ___ ft/___m or less.

A

200ft/60m

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15
Q

Entry flown if entering a holding pattern on DME arc?

A

Sector 1 or 3

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16
Q

Part 121 how much of runway can be used by propeller powered aircraft?

A

A full stop landing on a dry runway from a point 50ft above threshold within 70% of the landing distance available at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome for a propeller powered aerodrome.

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17
Q

Initial Approach Speeds (Cat A)

A

90-150 (110)

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18
Q

Category IIIC precision approach procedure

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with no DH and no RVR limitations.

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19
Q

Outbound timing for 45 degree procedure turn Cat A/B/C/D

A

1 minute for Cat A and B, 1 minute 15 seconds for Cat C, D

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20
Q

Holding speeds under normal conditions:

A

14,000ft and below: 230 knots (170 Cat A/B); Above 14,000ft up to 20,000ft: 240 knots; 20,000ft up to 34,000ft: 265 knots; Above 34,000ft: M0.83

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21
Q

Actions required if missed approach is initiated prior to MAPt:

A

Track to the missed approach point then follow the missed approach procedure. MAPt may be overflown above MDA.

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22
Q

When using evaluated climb sector for departure, what climb gradient is required and what is minimum turn altitude after take-off?

A

Climb gradient as required by departure for track being flown, 400ft.

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23
Q

What does minimum net climb gradient on an instrument departure ensure? What don’t they ensure?

A

Provide terrain and obstacle clearance, but do not ensure flight is contained within controlled airspace (except dedicated RADAR SID).

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24
Q

Max Speed on SID (Cat C)

A

265

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25
Q

Max Speed Missed Approach (Cat A)

A

110

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26
Q

Maximum speed circling (Cat D)

A

205

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27
Q

Vat (Cat A)

A

<91

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28
Q

Final Approach Speeds (Cat D)

A

130-185

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29
Q

If adequate terrain clearance cannot be obtained in IMC on a departure, in the event of an engine failure prior to MSA, what action is required?

A

Turn toward departure aid until either MSA is reached or approval is granted to rejoin for approach and landing (considering terrain over which reversal will need to be completed).

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30
Q

Part 135

A

Air operations, excluding SEIFR pax operations, using an aeroplane that has 9 seats or less, excluding any required crew member seat, and a MCTOW of 5700kg or less, or using a helicopter

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31
Q

Requirements to be cleared a visual approach/arrival

A

Pilot states ‘request visual approach’; AND can maintain visual reference to the terrain; AND reported ceiling is not below the approved initial approach level for the aircraft so cleared (or if at initial approach or during instrument approach provided met conditions permit a visual approach). For visual approach at night, pilot must have runway lights in sight, ABN, REIL and ALS is not sufficient.

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32
Q

Requirement for overflying terrestrial nav aids on departure.

A

Aircraft must fly over nav aid unless otherwise instructed, FMS must be coded appropriate to ensure this.

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33
Q

Conditions for using reduced take-off minima

A

0-800 may be used provided runway has centreline marking or lighting AND vis is confirmed by pilot by observing centreline AND AD 2 allows for reduced take-off minima on runway to be used AND any obstacles on take-off flight path are taken into account AND if aircraft is twin, propeller driven, must have auto coarse or auto feather. Conditions worse than these are allowed if approved and secondary power supply and automatic switchover is available.

34
Q

What climb gradient is used to evaluate airspace containment requirements for a departure?

A

5%

35
Q

How is minimum initial approach altitude determined?

A

Higher of MPCA or MSA for route sector (MSA/Distance Steps/VORSEC/25MSA/TAA)

36
Q

Circling Distance (Cat D)

A

5.28

37
Q

Initial Approach Speeds (Cat D)

A

185-250

38
Q

Conditions to descend below MDA/DA/DH

A

Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within touchdown zone; AND if circling maintain aircraft within circling area; AND Vis not less than min required by approach; AND At least one of following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: ALS, threshold markings, RTHL, REIL, VASI, TDZ, TDZ lights, Runway or runway markings or runway lights.

39
Q

What do minimum altitudes specified on DME arcs and holding procedures ensure? What don’t they ensure?

A

Provide terrain and obstacle clearance, but do not ensure flight is contained within controlled airspace.

40
Q

Formula for calculating climb gradient percent:

A

VSI (ft/min) divided by Groundspeed x 1.013

41
Q

Final Approach Speeds (Cat B)

A

85-130

42
Q

Part 125

A

Air operations, including SEIFR pax operations, using an aeroplane that has 10 to 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or a payload of 3410kg or less and a MCTOW of greater than 5700kg

43
Q

Classes of Dangerous Goods

A

1: Explosives; 2: Gases; 3: Liquids; 4: Solids; 5: Oxidising substances; 6: Poisonous substances; 7: Radioactive materials; 8: Corrosives; 9: Miscellaneous goods

44
Q

Circling Distance (Cat B)

A

2.66

45
Q

Vat (Cat C)

A

121-140

46
Q

Formula for calculating feet per nautical mile:

A

VSI x 60 / Groundspeed

47
Q

Approved portable electronic equipment

A

Hearing aids; Pacemakers; Portable voice recorders; electric shavers; electronic watches; any other device approved by the operator

48
Q

Circling Distance (Cat C)

A

4.2

49
Q

ASDA

A

Length of the take-off run available plus the length of any stop way

50
Q

Actions required if visual reference is lost while circling:

A

Missed approach for approach flown prior to circling must be flown. Transition from circling to missed approach to be initiated by climbing turn toward runway to return to circling altitude immediately followed by interception and execution of missed approach procedure.

51
Q

Part 121

A

Air operations using an aeroplane with more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or a payload of more than 3410kg.

52
Q

Category IIIA precision approach procedure

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a DH lower than 100ft or no DH, and a RVR not less than 200m.

53
Q

Angle of bank requirement for SID

A

Average 15 degrees is assumed

54
Q

Circling - Minimum Obstacle Clearance Provided (Cat A)

A

295ft

55
Q

Max Speed Circling (Cat A)

A

100

56
Q

Restrictions on operating within an aircraft category

A

Aircraft may not reduce category because of reduced operating weight but must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those for the category.

57
Q

Max Speed Missed Approach (Cat B)

A

150

58
Q

Initial Approach Speeds (Cat B)

A

120-180 (140)

59
Q

Prior to leaving an evaluated climb sector, the aircraft must be:

A

Established on track OR Established above VORSEC OR under radar OR at or above area MSA.

60
Q

Terrain clearance provided in a hold

A

At least 1000ft above obstacles in the holding area or 2000ft over seas designated as mountainous zones.

61
Q

Final Approach Speeds (Cat C)

A

115-160

62
Q

Angle of bank used for calculating circling minima:

A

Lesser of rate 1 or 20 degrees

63
Q

Vat (Cat B)

A

91-120

64
Q

Holding speeds under turbulent conditions:

A

14,000ft and below: 280 knots (170 Cat A/B); Above 14,000ft up to 20,000ft: lesser of 280 knots or 0.8 Mach; 20,000ft up to 34,000ft: lesser of 280 knots or 0.8 Mach; knots; Above 34,000ft: M0.83

65
Q

Max Speed on SID (Cat A)

A

120

66
Q

Maximum speed missed approach (Cat D)

A

265

67
Q

Max Speed SID (Cat D)

A

290

68
Q

Max Speed Circling (Cat B)

A

135

69
Q

When must a missed approach be executed?

A

If at MAPt/DA/DH visual reference has not been established with runway or visual landing aids; OR identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling manoeuvre at or above MDA; OR as instructed by ATC

70
Q

Max no. of flight hours in a two pilot air operation

A

Pilot shall not be rostered to fly in excess of 8 hours in any one duty period (may be extended to 8.5 hours to complete a disrupted schedule). Pilot shall not fly, or be rostered to fly in excess of 35 hours in any 7 consecutive days; 100 hours in any 28 consecutive days; 300 hours in any 90 consecutive days

71
Q

Max Speed Missed Approach (Cat C)

A

240

72
Q

Take-off distance available

A

Length of any take-off run available plus the length of an clearway.

73
Q

May alternate minima lower than those used in IFR Alternate aerodrome minima table be used?

A

Yes, in accordance with standard alternate aerodrome rules.

74
Q

Documents required for international air operations

A

AROW+T; General radio user’s licence issued by ministry of business, innovation and employment; certificate of registration or certified copy; evidence that flight crew hold appropriate and current licence and medical

75
Q

Supplemental Oxygen for crew and pax in pressurised aircraft.

A

Each crew member must use supplemental oxygen any time the cabin pressure altitude is above 10,000ft AMSL. Each pax to use supplemental oxygen during any time cabin pressure is above 14,000ft AMSL, unless the aircraft can descend to 14,000ft AMSL or below within 4 minutes.

76
Q

Category IIIB precision approach procedure

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a DH lower than 50ft or no DH, and a RVR less than 200m but not less than 50m.

77
Q

Terrain clearance provided by missed approach

A

Designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of 98ft to an aircraft climbing along the specified missed approach path at a gradient of 2.5% (150ft/nm) from the MAPt/DA/DH. If climb gradient can’t be achieved, MDA/DA/DH should be increased.

78
Q

Circling - Minimum Obstacle Clearance Provided (Cat C)

A

394ft

79
Q

If instructed to track outbound on an approach or on a DME arc with a descent restriction, if a clearance isn’t issued prior to the aircraft intercepting the final approach track, the pilot should:

A

Maintain assigned level until established on final approach track then commence approach.

80
Q

Circling - Minimum Obstacle Clearance Provided (Cat B)

A

295ft

81
Q

Cat I precision approach procedure

A

Precision instrument approach and landing with a DH not lower than 200ft, and a RVR not less than 550m.

82
Q

Terrain clearance provided on an arc

A

Not less than 1000ft terrain or obstacle clearance within an area extending 2.5nm each side of arc

Pilot Prep (6 decks)

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