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ATPL Refresher > Latest Pilot Jobs Tech Quiz PDF EK > Flashcards

Latest Pilot Jobs Tech Quiz PDF EK Flashcards

1
Q

What are the forces acting on an aircraft in flight?

A

Drag. Thrust. Lift and Weight

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2
Q

What is direct lift control?

A

The elevator / stabilizer provide the direct lift control

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3
Q

What are high lift devices?

A

Trailing edge flaps. Leading edge flaps. Slots

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4
Q

Define the two major types or Drag.

A

Profile and induced drag which equals total drag

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5
Q

What are high drag devices?

A

Trailing edge flaps, spoilers, landing gear, revere thrust, braking parachute.

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6
Q

How do you prevent span-vise airflow on a wing especially swept wing?

A

Fences, vortex generators

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7
Q

What is the purpose vortex generators and fences?

A

To reduce spanwise airflow and thereby reduce its effects

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8
Q

What are winglets and how do they work?

A

Winglets are aerodynamically efficient surfaces located at the wing tips. They are
designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the spanwise airflow from the upper
and lower surfaces at different points.

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9
Q

How does a forward center of gravity affect the stall speed?

A

A center of gravity forward of the center of pressure will cause a higher stall speed

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10
Q

What advantages does an aircraft gain from a swept swing?

A

High mach cruise speeds, stability in turbulence.

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11
Q

Where does a swept wing stall first?

A

A simple swept or tapered wing will stall at the wing tip first.

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12
Q

Explain speed stability.

A

It’s the behavior of the speed after a disturbance at a fixed power setting

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13
Q

What is Mach Number?

A

Mach number is a true airspeed indication, given as a percentage relative to the local
speed of sound.

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14
Q

What is the critical Mach number (mcrit)?

A

Mcrit is the aircraft’s mach speed at which the airflow over a wing becomes sonic.

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15
Q

What is Mach tuck?

A

Is the nose down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes it’s critical mach
number

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16
Q

What is the purpose of a mach trimmer?

A

A Mach trimmer is to automatically compensate for Mach tuck above Mcrit

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17
Q

What are the affects of compressibility?

A

The effect of air being compressed onto a surface resulting in an increase in density
and thus dynamic pressure rises above its expected value.

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18
Q

What changes the aircrafts angle of attack at the stall?

A

The movement of the center of pressure point at the stall causes a change in the
aircraft’s angle of attack

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19
Q

What happens to the stall speed at very high altitudes?

A

Mach number compressibility effect on the wing results in a higher EAS (actual
equivalent airspeed), compressibility error on the IAS increases the stall speed

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20
Q

What is super stall?

A

Is a stall from which the aircraft is unable to recover.

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21
Q

What is Dutch roll?

A

Dutch roll is an oscillatory Instability. It is the combination of yawing and rolling motions

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22
Q

What causes Dutch roll?

A

Swept wings

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23
Q

What is the three purposes of spoilers?

A

Roll control, Air speed brakes, and ground lift dumpers

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24
Q

What are Krueger flaps?

A

Krueger flaps are leading edge wing flaps used to increase the wing chamber

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25
Q

How do flap affect takeoff ground run?

A

A higher flap within the take off range, will reduce the takeoff’ ground run for a given
aircraft weight.

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26
Q

What’s the purpose is of yaw and roll dampers?

A

To prevent Dutch roll and coordinate turns

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27
Q

What are the four reasons for a variable-incident tailplane / stabilizer?

A

1) Provide a balancing force for a large C of G range
2) cope with large trim changes.
3) Provide balancing force for a large speed range
4) reduce elevator trim drag.

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28
Q

What are active controls?

A

A surface that moves automatically / actively in response to non-direct inputs

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29
Q

What is a mass balance?

A

It is another form of aerodynamic balance control on a control surface.

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30
Q

What is specific fuel consumption (SFC)?

A

The quantity / weight (Ib) of fuel consumed per hour divided by the thrust of an engine
in pounds

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31
Q

Why do operators use reduced de-rated thrust takeoffs in a jet aircraft?

A

To protect engine life and improve reliability, reduce noise.

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32
Q

What is the purpose of engine re-light boundaries?

A

To ensure that correct proportion of air is delivered to the engines combustion
chamber to restart the engine in flight.

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33
Q

Why are bleed valves fitted to gas turbine engines?

A

To provide bleed air for auxiliary systems, to regulate the correct airflow pressures between different engine sections

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34
Q

What fuels are commonly used on jet aircraft?

A

Jet A1 – waxing point of – 47 C,
Jet A - waxing point of -40C
Jet B and TS-1 -50ºC

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35
Q

Is there a critical engine on a jet aircraft?

A

No

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36
Q

How does INS/IRS find true north?

A

It is aligned to true north by its gyroscopes.

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37
Q

What are the advantages of an INS?

A

Very accurate, self-contained system, totally global system enabling aircraft to fly great
circle tracks

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38
Q

What are the disadvantages of INS?

A

Bounded errors, unbounded errors, Inherent system errors.

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39
Q

What does ISA stand for?

A

International standard atmosphere.

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40
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

Pressure altitude or pressure height is the international standard atmosphere (ISA) height above the 29.92 / 1013 pressure datum, at which the pressure value
experienced represents that of the level under consideration

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41
Q

How does temperature affect the LSS?

A

As temperature decreases, the local speed of sound (LSS) decreases

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42
Q

What are the airspeed indicator (ASl) / Mach meter indications for a blocked Pitot and or static port?

A

A blocked static line means that the static pressure in the (ASI) / Mach meter
instrument remains a constant value.

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43
Q

What are the inputs to a GPWS?

A

Barometric altitude for a rate of descent (ROD) calculations. Radio altimeter, Flap
position, Gear position. Instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope, Approach minima.
Thrust lever position

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44
Q

Tire temperature prior to T/0 depends on what factors?

A

Outside air temperature, Aircraft weight, Taxi time, Amount of braking.

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45
Q

Which brake gets the hottest during a landing?

A

The downwind (with a crosswind) wheel brakes

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46
Q

What does a constant speed drive unit (CSU) achieve?

A

They maintain the aircraft frequency output of an alternator, normally to 400 Hz

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47
Q

What is takeoff run available (TORA)?

A

The usable length of the runway available. i.e. physical length of the runway.

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48
Q

What is the take off distance available (TODA)?

A

The length of the usable runway available plus the length of the clearway available

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49
Q

How high is the screen height for a jet aircraft?

A

Screen height for a jet aircraft in dry conditions 35ft.

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50
Q

What is the runway stopway?

A

Is the length of an prepared surface at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the aircraft has to be stopped during a takeoff run but not to be used for landing

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51
Q

What is VMCG speed?

A

Is the minimum control speed (directional control) on the ground for a multi engine aircraft at a constant power setting and configuration.

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52
Q

What is V1 speed?

A

Is the decision speed.

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53
Q

What is VR speed?

A

Rotation speed

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54
Q

What is Vs speed?

A

Stall speed.

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55
Q

What is Va speed?

A

Maneuvering speed

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56
Q

What is VMCA speed?

A

Is the minimum control speed (directional control) in the air for a multi engine aircraft in the take-off and climb out configuration

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57
Q

What is the relationship between VMCG and V1?

A

VMCG must be equal to or less than V1

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58
Q

What is V2 speed?

A

Is the take off safety speed.

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59
Q

What is V3 speed?

A

Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve at the screen
height.

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60
Q

What is V4 sped?

A

Is the all engine operating takeoff climb speed the aircraft will achieve by 400ft.

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61
Q

What’s maximum range cruise (MRC)

A

The speed at which for a given weight and altitude, the maximum fuel mileage is obtained.

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62
Q

What is Long range cruise (LRC)?

A

The speed significantly higher than the maximum range speed. Sacrifices a small amount of fuel compared to the amount of time saved in MRC

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63
Q

What is a cost index?

A

s a performance management function that optimizes the aircraft’s speed for the minimum cost

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64
Q

What is the pressure gradient force?

A

Is a natural force generated by a difference in pressure across a horizontal distance.

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65
Q

What is a trough?

A

Is a V-shaped extension of a low pressure system

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66
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

Is a combination of both a cold and a warm front.

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67
Q

What is windshear?

A

Is any variation of wind speed and or direction from place to place including updrafts and downdrafts.

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68
Q

What is a microburst?

A

Is a severe downdraft.

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69
Q

What is CAT?

A

Is an acronym for clear air turbulence

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70
Q

What is the ITCZ?

A

The inter tropical convergence zone is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator

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71
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

What is ETOPS?

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72
Q

What is the lowest usable flight level?

A

Lowest useable en route flight level must be a least 500ft above the absolute minimum
altitude.

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73
Q

How is RVR reported?

A

Reported at up to 3 points on the runway, at the touch down point, at the mid point, at the stop end.

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74
Q

What does it mean if you have a port wind in the northern hemisphere?

A

Means you are flying toward a low pressure system, resulting in a descending flight path for a consistent altimeter pressure setting

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75
Q

What is the gliding distance for an aircraft at 30,00ft?

A

Take the best glide speed and its rate of decent: altitude divided by rate of descent e.g.
30,000/1000 ft/min = 30min; Time x speed per min e.g. 3O x 5nm/min = 150nm.

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76
Q

Why does an aircraft descend quicker when it is lighter?

A

a heavier aircraft has to start its descent earlier than a lighter aircraft because it has to maintain a shallower descent. In other words a lighter aircraft can descend later and quicker than a heavier aircraft because it can maintain a greater vertical descent profile without overspeeding.

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77
Q

What do you need to see to continue at a decision height (DH) for a CAT II la
approach?

A

You need a visual reference containing a segment of a least three consecutive lights, the centerline of the approach lights or the touchdown zone lights or the runway centerline lights or edge lights or a combination of these

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78
Q

What are the three types of aquaplaning / hydroplaning?

A

Dynamic. Viscous, Reverted rubber or rubber reversion.

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79
Q

What do we call the following: The aircraft mass plus oil, unusable fuel & fixtures?

A

Basic Empty Weight

80
Q

What do you call the position from the datum of measurement to the moment?

A

The Arm

81
Q

What is the correct format for the Lat & Long of Dubai on a Jepp Chart?

A

25ºN 035ºE

82
Q

What risk does cumuliform clouds create when found in stratus cloud?

A

Embedded Thunderstorms

83
Q

What system controls the braking during a rejected T/O?

A

The Auto Brake System with Anti Skid protection

84
Q

What will occur if the DALR (Dry Adiabatic lapse Rate) ie: Dry Bulb = the SALR (Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate) ie: Wet Bulb?

A

A Cloud Base will form
Other options: It will rain or the air mass will be unstable

85
Q

For a 2 engine aircraft what are the return airfield requirements ie: How far do you require an adequate A/D to be?

A

The airport must be within 60 min SE airspeed unless the company has
ETOPS Approval.

86
Q

What are the T/O minima for 2 crew?

A

800m RVR unless company has approval & crew are approved for LVTO

87
Q

A question relating to the C of G and the Centre of Pressure?

A

A rear ward C of G is the best therefore the Centre of Pressure must
be forward of the C of G

88
Q

At what levels can windshear occur?

A

All levels ie: Low Level Mid Level & High Level

89
Q

Where is the FAF point on an ILS?

A

At the intercept of G/S at the altitude you are at or by the min altitude
published on the chart

90
Q

For a CAT 1 Approach what are the minima?

A

200’ & 550 RVR

91
Q

Where can you intercept the ILS Approach?

A

By the minimum altitude & GS intercept unless being radar vectored

92
Q

Is De-Icing fluid effective in flight?

A

No. Designed for ground use only. Designed to leave the aircraft once
airborne

93
Q

AT what point do you use Anti Ice / De-Ice protection?

A

10’C TAT to – 40’C SAT

94
Q

What determines your choice of HF frequency for communication?

A

The position of the sun in the sky

95
Q

What does the rudder PSI reducer do?

A

Takes the stress off the vertical tail fin

96
Q

What cloud is indicative of turbulence?

A

Lenticular Cloud or Standing Wave Clouds ….. Same thing

97
Q

How does a negative pressure relief valve work

A

???

98
Q

What effect do slats have on the angle of attack

A

The angle of attack will increase.

99
Q

What is the definition of ASDA?

A

The length of the take off run available TORA (the physical length of the runway) plus the length of any stopway available. I.e. ASDA = TORA + STOPWAY

100
Q

A sea breeze is a wind that?

A

Occurs during the daytime, usually between midday and afternoon on hot sunny days, when the land heats up quicker than the sea.

101
Q

What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet A

A

-40ºC

102
Q

What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet A1?

A

-50 degrees c or -47

103
Q

What are the indications from a T-VASI?

A

The cross-bar indicates on-slope and deviations appear or three lights above or below the cross-bar. The sensitivity is similar to the on an ILS glide path.
110. How do you convert Liters to kilograms?

104
Q

How do you convert fuel Liters to kilograms?

A

Multiply by 0.8

105
Q

What is a balanced field length?

A

A balanced field length exists when the TODA = ASDA

106
Q

What is a circling approach?

A

A circling approach is a visual flight maneuver which easily aligned with the runway. After initial visual contact, the basic the runway environment will be kept in sight while at the MDA for circling.

107
Q

During what months would you expect fog in Dubai?

A

The winter months of November to April.

108
Q

What effect does a 60 degree bank turn have on the stall

A

The stall speed increases by approximately 40%. (Load factor of 2) (square of the load factor)

109
Q

In a jet engine compressor section?

A

The compressor, which rotates at very high speed, adds o the airflow, at the same time
squeezing it into a smaller space, thereby increasing and temperature

110
Q

If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots. What is the Mach number?

A

Mach # = TAS/Local speed of sound. MN O.80 = 480/600.

111
Q

For a given speed, how does your rate of descent vary with weight?

A

An increase in weight will increase your rate of descent and vice versa.

112
Q

Which of TORA, ASDA and TODA does clearway change?

A

TODA

113
Q

What months would you cross the ITCZ going to South Africa?

A

All year round

114
Q

What is the outbound entry timing in a hold?

A

Up to and including FL140 - 1 minute. Above FL140 -1.5 minutes

115
Q

How does Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption vary with an increase in altitude?

A

Decreases.

116
Q

Why does the Airbus have a tail tank?

A

To increase range and provide balanced trim.

117
Q

Which months is the monsoon season in South Asia?

A

November to February

118
Q

How would you deal with a fire on a cabin seat?

A

Use BCF to extinguish the flame, and water to stop smoldering.

119
Q

What type of extinguisher would you use on an electrical fire?

A

BCF

120
Q

What is the local time in DAC when it is noon in London (DAC is UTC+6)?

A

6pm

121
Q

What happens to airspeed in the climb with a blocked Pitot?

A

Over read

122
Q

What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked static port?

A

Over read

123
Q

If after 120nm you are 4nm off course, what heading correction should you use to regain track in 60 nm?

A

4 degrees.

124
Q

What is Parasite drag?

A

Parasite drag is made up of pressure and skin friction drag. Parasite drag is caused by any aircraft surface which deflects or interferes with the smooth airflow around the airplane.

125
Q

The lift generated by a wing varies with angle of attack such that it?

A

Produces maximum lift just before the stall angle is reached. When an aircrafts wing reaches the stall angle, the wing stops generating lift.

126
Q

When no transponder code is assigned or published you should?

A

Squawk code 2000 OCTA or 3000 CTA

127
Q

On a flight from Athens to Madrid, a correct flight level would be?

A

An even flight level.

128
Q

When holding below Fl40 with no turbulence, unless specifically notified, the correct speed would be?

A

230 knots

129
Q

For planning purposes, normal diversion fuel must be calculated?

A

At Long Range Cruise.

130
Q

At night, the minimum required exterior lighting for an aircraft in flight is?

A

An unobstructed red and green light. An unobstructed white light. An airplane in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of a land aerodrome shall display, in addition to the navigation lights, an anti-collision light consisting of a flashing red light.

131
Q

When considering a balanced field length?

A

The flight crew are required to use a VI speed from the AFM that results in an accelerate-go and accelerate-stop distances, or a balanced field length, appropriate for the airplane’s takeoff weight, the-airplane’s takeoff configuration, the runway length, the runway gradient, the surface wind conditions, the air temperature, and the runway (airport) elevation.

132
Q

In takeoff performance, the first segment of the climb is? The segment of take-off climb from screen height to gear up.

A

An airplane must be able to climb without ground effect at a speed of V2 airborne and in this configuration, without landing gear retraction, achieve a gross gradient of climb which is positive for two-engine airplanes.

133
Q

Where available, using a lower flap setting for takeoff will?

A

Increase MTOW and V1, VR and V2 (normally 2nd segment is more limiting)

134
Q

What is the ISA temperature at 39,000ft?

A

-56.5 degrees Celsius

135
Q

For the same engine, what is the difference between NI and thrust when the engine is taken from a sea level field to a hot and high airfield?

A

N1 and thrust decrease.

136
Q

What are the characteristics of the weather in the vicinity of the ITCZ?

A

Near the equator, from about 5 degrees north and south, the NE and SE trade winds converge in a low pressure zone known as the ITCZ. Solar heating in this region forces air to rise through convection which results in a plethora of precipitation.

137
Q

Does a compressor change kinetic energy into pressure energy? If so are the stators divergent or convergent?

A

Yes, however an axial flow compressor on modem turbofan engines uses a series of convergent and divergent ducts.

138
Q

If your static port gets clogged with ice on descent, your altimeter will?

A

Overread

139
Q

If the air mass lapse rate is 2 degrees/1000’, and the air is saturated, is the atmosphere stable or unstable?

A

Stable.

140
Q

Whilst maintaining a constant attitude, what is the effect of flaps and slats on the angle of attack?

A

The angle of attack will decrease.

141
Q

If two aircraft are approaching head on, which way do you turn to avoid a collision?

A

Both aircraft should alter heading to the right.

142
Q

What is the effect of engine bleed air for air conditioning and anti-ice on takeoff performance?

A

Takeoff performance is reduced.

143
Q

Besides using the scale, where can you measure distance on a Jeppesen chart?

A

You can use the lines of longitude.

144
Q

What happens to specific fuel consumption with altitude?

A

It will decrease.

145
Q

Why do modern jets have a swept wing?

A

To permit a high cruise mach number with low drag.

146
Q

What should you see when following the VASI on the glide path?

A

PAPI: 2 white lights and 2 red lights.

147
Q

What does VVxxx mean on a TAF?

A

Vertical visibility is unavailable.

148
Q

What does WS stand for?

A

Windshear

149
Q

What are the aerodynamic effects of a swept wing?

A

High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence.

150
Q

What is the relationship of altitude and performance of the jet engine?

A

They both decrease with altitude.

151
Q

If the maximum fuel of the Airbus 310 is 48.8 tonnes at a fuel specific gravity of 0.80, what will be the capacity at a fuel SG of 0.75?

A

45.75 T (0.75/0.8 x 48.8)

152
Q

If TAS is 480 knots and the local speed of sound is 600 knots, what is the mach number?

A

MO.8

153
Q

When flying the back beam of the LLZ, indications on both the ~conventional VOR and HSI will be what?

A

Reversed (not on new Boeing)

154
Q

A forward or aft C o G is more efficient?

A

Aft, because this reduces tailplane force which reduces aerodynamic drag.

155
Q

Can an increase in clearway increase MTOW?

A

Yes

156
Q
  1. Clearway will increase/decrease MTOW, and increase/decrease V1?
A

Increase, decrease

157
Q

ASDA = TORA + what?

A

Stopway

158
Q

Stopway increases ASDA/TORA/TODA?

A

ASDA

159
Q

Dubai pressure altitude = 39’, if the temperature was 41 degrees C, what is the density altitude?

A

DH = PH corrected for temperature. DH = 39’ + 120 (41-15) = 3159’

160
Q

If an anti-cyclone brings good wx in the southern hemisphere, what wx does it bring in the northern hemisphere?

A

It will also bring good weather in the northern hemisphere

161
Q

High bypass turbofan engines are uses on commercial aircraft because…?

A

The overall noise signature of advance turbofan engines with highly loaded wide chord
fan blades is significantly less than previous older technology engines.

162
Q

Identify the cloud ceiling on a TAF?

A

The cloud ceiling on a TAF is AGL.

163
Q

What is the difference between TODA and TORA?

A

TODA is the length of the take-off run available + any clearway available for the aircraft to climb over. TORA is the physical length of the runway declared to be available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off.

164
Q

If you lengthen the clearway, what will that do to V1?

A

Decrease

165
Q

On a conventional wing, lift is generated?

A

By moving the object through the air. The lift then depends on the velocity of the air and how the object is inclined to the flow. The straight wing is to mostly on small, low speed airplanes. General Aviation airplanes often have straight wings. Sailplanes also use a straight wing design. These wings give the most efficient lift low speeds, but are not very good for high speed flight approaching the speed of sound.

166
Q

On a swept wing?

A

The swept wing (forward swept or sweptback) is the wing design of choice for most modern high speed airplanes. The swept wing design creates less drag, but is somewhat more unstable for flight at low speeds. A high sweep wing delays the formation of shock waves on the airplane as it nears the speed of sound.
How much sweep a wing design is given depends upon the purpose for which the airplane is designed to be used. A commercial jetliner has a moderate sweep. This results in less drag, while maintaining stability at lower speeds. High speed airplanes (like modem jet fighters) have a greater sweep. These airplanes do not generate very much lift during low speed flight. Airplanes with sweep need to take off and at high speeds.

167
Q

A deep stall is often a characteristic of what type of aircraft?

A

Deep stall is a dangerous condition that affects certain aircraft designs, notably a T-tail configuration. In these designs, the turbulent wake of a stalled main wing “blanks” the horizontal stabilizer, rendering the elevators ineffective and preventing the aircraft from recovering from the stall.

168
Q

Unbalanced runway performance limitations require that with one engine failed at V1, the aircraft can be brought to a stop?

A

True

169
Q

With the anti skid inoperative, for any given takeoff weight?

A

The V1 must be reduced

170
Q

If when flying at 39000’ you found the Static outside air temperature to be -47.5°, the deviation from the International Standard Atmosphere would be?

A

ISA+9 (-56.5 compared to -47.5 = 9 degrees warmer)

171
Q

An anabatic wind is one which?

A

Blows up a steep slope or mountain side. It is also known as an upslope flow. These
winds typically occur during the daytime in calm sunny weather.

172
Q

Cumulonimbus clouds are more likely to form? To create a cumulonimbus cloud, you need three ingredients.

A

(a) Plenty of moisture
(b) A mass of warm unstable air
(c) A source of energy to lift the warm, moist air mass rapidly upwards.

173
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the diurnal variation of wind at about 2000’ is such that?

A

The wind will have an increasing speed and the wind direction will veer.

174
Q

On the Indian subcontinent, the northeasterly monsoon occurs?

A

Between June and September.

175
Q

During an ILS approach, the required rate of descent will be?

A

5 x G/S =RoD required for a 3 degree slope.

176
Q

A direct entry to a holding pattern is made from?

A

Sector 3

177
Q

When flying and NDB approach using an RMI, to regain track when off track?

A

You must first turn through the needle.

178
Q

A Katabatic wind is one which?

A

Is a local valley wind that flows down the side of a hill?

179
Q

Buy ballots law states that?

A

Buys ballot’s law is if you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure (temperature) will be on your left. N.B. In the Southern Hemisphere the low temp/press will be on your right.

180
Q

DME range at FL350 is approximately?

A

Range = Square root of 1.5 x Aircraft Height in feet. (Answer in nm) 229nm

181
Q

The centre of Lift moves?

A

The distribution of pressure and centre of pressure point will be further forward the higher the angle of attack and further aft the lower the angle of attack.

182
Q

The effect of extending flaps is to?

A

Increase the camber of the wing and produce more lift at lower airspeeds.

183
Q

On a Lambert chart, the distance scale is most accurate?

A

Between standard parallels.

184
Q

The ISA temperature at FL390 is?

A

-56.5 degrees c

185
Q

What sort of weather would you expect in an area of low pressure?

A

In general, the weather associated with a low-pressure system is as follows: Cloud formation and related weather are present, Le. Precipitation etc. This is due to the adiabatic cooling experienced by the ascending air in a depression. Any instability in the rising air may lead to the vertical development of cumuliform clouds accompanied by rain showers.

186
Q

INS navigation is with reference to?

A

The directional acceleration information provided from the INS’s accelerometers and gyroscopes is calculated by the position computer that determines the aircraft’s present latitude and longitude position, provided a correct initial position has been input.

187
Q

TCAS works on/uses?

A

TCAS interrogates the SSR transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities. With this information, the TCAS computer can determine if a potential collision risk exists and if so, provide visual and aural warning as well as command actions on how to avoid the collision. This is done all with vertical commands only.

188
Q

What effect does a winglet have on an airfoil?

A

They are designed to reduce induced drag. They dispense the span-wise airflow from the upper and lower surfaces at different points, thus preventing the intermixing of these airflows that otherwise would create induced-drag vortices.

189
Q

Where is windshear found?

A

Most forms of windshear are found at low level. i.e. Below 3000’ also in CAT, near a
frontal passage and due to microburst and thunderstorm gusts.

190
Q

ETOPS certification is based on?

A

An operator is granted permission to operate a twin-engine aircraft type on flights which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure.
Reliability is vital with ETOPS flights; operators wishing to benefit from this extended range with their more economical two-engine aircraft have to show the regulating authorities they have sufficient and proven resources to monitor and maintain their ETOPS fleet. They have to have approved airframes, systems and power plants and operate on approved routes using specified adequate aerodrome.

191
Q

When taking off on a wet runway?

A

V1 is reduced to account for the degraded performance in stopping in the event of an RTO; however, the all engine screen height is reduced in the event of a takeoff being continued.

192
Q

When the CoG is moved aft of the CP?

A

A CoG aft of the CP will cause a lower stall speed.

193
Q

Second segment climb is from?

A

The point at which the gear is fully retracted to a height of at least 400’.

194
Q

What is the maximum time permitted for a jet engine to spool up from idle to full thrust?

A

5 s

195
Q

Which is a typical characteristic of a swept wing?

A

High mach cruise speeds and stability in turbulence

196
Q

What is the effect on the Field Limit and the Climb Limit by reducing the flap setting?

A

Field Limit will decrease; climb limit will increase.

ATPL Refresher (4 decks)

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