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ATPL Refresher > EK ATPL QB Corrected > Flashcards

EK ATPL QB Corrected Flashcards

This QB takes sources from ATPL questions experienced by candidates but includes the EASA QB of the questions associated with the subjects asked. LPJ Questions are copied from Chugg.com verbatim and some have been labelled as too vague followed by similar EASA QB questions. LPJ questions that have wrong answers are highlighted as corrected. Additional questions related to the LPJ QB are labeled as *EASA QB*

1
Q

TORA Definition?

A

The length of runway declared available and suitable for ground run of an airplane taking off.

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2
Q

The TODA is:

A

The declared runway length plus clearway.

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3
Q

TODA, TORA, ASDA and LDA are all equal if:

A

The runway is without a clearway, stopway and a displaced threshold

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4
Q

ASDA is?

A

Length of take off run available plus stopway.

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5
Q

What is a “Stopway”?

A

Is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where an A/C can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off

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6
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

Extended-range Twin-engine Operations Performance Standards

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7
Q

What is a suitable Airfield with regard to ETOPS diversion alternate airports?

A

Aircraft performance is suitable for airfield. Adequate emergency facilities are available at the aerodrome. Adequate aerodrome lighting facilities are available for night flights. A basic instrument approach is available. The aerodrome is open. Weather reporting

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8
Q

What is the First Segment of a Takeoff?

A

First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are:
- landing gear extended
- flaps in T/O position
- Speed = V2
- Climb gradient for 2 engine A/C = Positive
- Climb gradient for 4 engine A/C = 0.5%
- Takeoff power

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9
Q

What is the Second Segment of Take-off?

A

Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400 feet is reached. conditions in this segment are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in T/O position
- speed = V2
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 2.4%, and 4 engine a/c 3.0%
- takeoff power

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10
Q

What is the Third Segment of Take-off?

A

Third Segment: It’s the horizontal distance covered after the second segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus the distance required to accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed. It consists of two parts:
First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in t/o position
- speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed
- takeoff power

Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed. the conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed
- maximum continuous power

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11
Q

What is the Fourth Segment of Take-off?

A

Fourth Segment: the Climb from flaps up climb speed till 1500 feet is reached, after the end of third segment operating with max continuous power. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed = final t/o climb speed
- max continuous power
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%

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12
Q

1st Segments stops at?

A

Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the takeoff setting.

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13
Q

When does the second segment of takeoff begin?

A

Begins at the end of first segment and is continued to not less than 400 feet above the airport elevation. The climb requirement in second segment is 2.4% gradient for two engine aircraft and 2.7% for three engine aircraft 3.0% for 4 engines. Second segment is usually, but not always the most limiting of the segments within the takeoff flight path.

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14
Q

What is 3rd segment of a Climb?What is 3rd segment of a Climb?

A

Third segment is the distance required to go from the end of the second segment climb at V2 to the final climb speed with the flaps retracted. It's flown level while accelerating.

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15
Q

ILS Protection (ICAO)?

A

must: 35 degrees to 10nm and 10 degrees out to 18nm.
Should: 35 deg to 17 NM 10 deg to 25 NM

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16
Q

IFR and RVSM Flight levels?

A

0-179 Magnetic Track, Degrees odd numbers, 180-359 Even numbers
Vertical Separation is only 1000 ft up to FL290 and 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace and only 1000 ft in RVSM airspace in all levels up to FL410.

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17
Q

Why are Flight Level intervals increased to 2000 ft in non RVSM airspace?

A

Because of altimeter errors (lower air density). Reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more accurate altimeters, usually crowded routes (Trans Atlantic Routes).

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18
Q

Name the Holding Entries?

A

Direct , parallel and teardrop (offset) entries

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19
Q

Nonstandard holding patterns are?

A

To the left.

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20
Q

ICAO Holding Speeds?

A

Up to 14000 ft: 230kts

14000 ft to 20000 ft: 240kts

20000 ft to 34000 ft: 265kts
r/>Above 34000 ft: M0.83

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21
Q

Sequence of speeds on take off?
(LPJ is Wrong)

A

Vmcg < V1 < Vs < Vmca < Vr < V2
Vmcg < V1 < Vr < V2
Vmcg< Vef < V1 < Vr

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22
Q

What are the lights on a taxiway?
(Vague LPJ)

A

Blue edge, green center.

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23
Q

How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns solid red?

A

Red for last 1,000 ft (305 m)

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24
Q

How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns alternating red and white?

A

900m remaining (3000 feet)

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25
Q

What is the runway edge light yellow caution zone? (When REL turn amber)

A

the last 600m (2000 ft) or at least 1/3 of total RWY length.

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26
Q

What happens to the Central of Pressure (CP) when extending Flaps?

A

Center of Pressure moves rearward.

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27
Q

How does a Slat differ from a Krueger flap?

A

A slat forms a slot while Krueger flaps do not

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28
Q

How does a straight wing’s CP behave and from where does it start stalling?

A

The center of pressure will move backwards as it stalls from the roots.

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29
Q

The center of pressure of an airfoil is:

A

is the point where the resultant aerodynamic force is applied

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30
Q

What happens if you move C.G from fwd to aft position?

A

It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal tailplane will have a shorter arm that will result in increased longitudinally instability because it is tail heavy. The required control deflection is higher. It results in a decreased wing angle of attack which results in lower induced drag. It will also increase aircraft range.

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31
Q

What type of engine does our B777 have? (LPJ Incorrect)

A

General Electric GE90

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32
Q

What type of engine does our A380 have? non LPJ

A

Rolls Royce Trent 900
GP7200

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33
Q

What is the lat/long of Dubai?

A

25°18’N 55°20’E

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34
Q

What is Critical Mach Number (Mcrit)?

A

In aerodynamics, the critical Mach number (Mcrit) of an aircraft is the lowest Mach number at which the airflow over some point of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.

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35
Q

What is Dutch Roll? vague

A

Dutch roll is a type of aircraft motion, consisting of an out-of-phase combination of “tail-wagging” and rocking from side to side. This yaw-roll coupling is one of the basic flight dynamic modes (others include phugoid, short period, and spiral divergence)

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36
Q

What are speed brakes used for?

A

Speedbrakes are a type of flight control surface used on an aircraft to increase drag or increase the angle of approach during landing.

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37
Q

What is better used for stopping on a dry runway brakes or reverse thrust? LPJ Wrong

A

Brakes are more effective on dry runways and Reversers are more effective on contaminated runways.

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38
Q

What is the screen height of a Category A aircraft in takeoff on both dry and wet runways? EASA QB

A

35 feet Dry
15 feet Wet

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39
Q

What airplanes does EK fly that are fly-by-wire? *updated *

A

A380-800
777-300
777-200LR

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40
Q

How is wind shear detected?

A

Windshear is detected by identifying a difference in wind direction and speed or temperature between two places, or identifying certain weather phenomenon, e.g., cumulonimbus clouds, that give rise to possible windshear conditions from weather reports.

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41
Q

What effect does windshear have during an approach for landing?

A

The aircraft’s dynamic speed is reduced as a result of the reduction in wind speed. The effective aircraft weight is increased as a result of experiencing a downdraft, which requires the pilot to recover the flight path by pitching the aircraft up.

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42
Q

What is the transponder code for lost of communication?

A

7600

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43
Q

What is the transponder code for hijacking?

A

7500

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44
Q

Low level vertical W/S can be expected during the night:

A

In association with radiation inversions

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45
Q

How long is a TREND period valid on a METAR EASA QB

A

2 hours

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46
Q

Effect of weight in stalling speed?

A

Directly proportional

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47
Q

Effect of Ice on Stalling Speed?

A

Ice accumulated on aircraft surface will contribute to more weight and drag, which will increase stalling speed.

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48
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a thin wing?

A

Disadvantages:
- Poor low speed lift
- Strength & flexibility problem

Advantages:
- Transonic performance
- Delay Mcrit (delay the onset of shockwave formation)
- Reduce transonic CL and CD variations
- Reduce drag

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49
Q

Why are wings swept? Advantage / Disadvantage regarding Swept Wings?

A

They are swept to be able to fly at a higher speed. Used to increase Mcrit.

Advantages:
- Higher & more economic cruise speeds
- Stability in turbulence
- Reduce drag

Disadvantages:
- Poor lift qualities (low Cl max)
- higher stall speeds
- Wing tip stall
- Pitch up
- Wing flexing
- Dutch roll (positive contribution to LATERAL stability)
- High drag at high alpha

tendency is particular to a swept wing aircraft mainly because of the high local Cl loading it experiences.

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50
Q

If after 120 NM you are 4 miles off course, what heading correction should you use to regain track in 60 NM?

A

Drift angle was about 2 degrees (2 miles in 60 miles), new track to make good corrected by 4 degrees (4 miles in 60 miles), total correction 6 degrees.

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51
Q

How would you deal with a fire on a cabin seat?

A

Extinguish it with a handheld fire extinguisher, any class. (Class A fire)

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52
Q

What effect does a 60 degrees bank turn have on the stalling speed?

A

Increases it by 41%, assuming it’s a level turn. Bank in itself does not influence stall speed, but load factor does. 60 degrees turn gives load factor 2, and stalling speed increases by the square root of the load factor (ie 1,41 in this example).

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53
Q

Which months is the monsoon season in South Asia?

A

In summer (June to September)

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54
Q

What is the worst month for fog in Dubai?

A

March

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55
Q

During what months would you expect fog in Dubai? LPJ wrong

A

November till March (Winter/Spring)
Never in May

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56
Q

On a flight from Athens to Madrid a correct Flight Level would be?

A

Even, because it’s westbound. Assuming IFR

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57
Q

What effect do slats have on the max angle of attack?

A

Increased due to improved (more energized) boundary layer.

58
Q

What effect do slats have on the Angle of Attack?

A

If maintaining a constant ATTITUDE, Slat extension will cause a DECREASE in Angle of Attack.

59
Q

What is the maximum time permitted for a Jet Engine to spool up from idle to full thrust?

A

8 seconds

60
Q

On a Lambert chart the distance scale is most accurate?

A

Along the standard parallels. The scale expands outside them and contracts between them.

61
Q

On the Indian subcontinent, the northeasterly monsoon occurs?

A

The period October to December is referred to as Northeast Monsoon season over peninsular India. Earlier this period was also referred to as “Post-Monsoon Season” or “Retreating southwest Monsoon Season”. Northeast Monsoon season is the major period of rainfall activity over south peninsula, particularly in the eastern half

62
Q

What areas are most frequently affected by monsoons?

A

West Africa
India
Southern China

63
Q

What is the direction of the summer Monsoon in India, and in winter? EASA

A

South West summer
North east winter

64
Q

What winds and air mass characteristics are associated with the winter monsoon in the Indian Sub-continent?

A

NE winds with dry hazy air

65
Q

What conditions are associated with the ITCZ?

A

Resulting in the formation convective clouds and subsequent heavy precipitation during most part of the year.

66
Q

How does the Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption (TSFC) vary with an increased in altitude?

A

TSFC is “lower” at higher altitudes

67
Q

What happens to airspeed in the climb with a block Pitot tube?

A

A blocked pitot tube will cause the airspeed indicator to register an increase in airspeed when the aircraft climbs.

ASI=D+S

68
Q

What happens to airspeed in the descent with a blocked Static Port?

A

It will over read
(PUDSOD)
Pitot (blocked) Under-Read Descent
Static (Blocked) Over-Read Descent

69
Q

What is the local time in DAC when it is noon in London (DAC is UTC + 6)

A

18:00

70
Q

What is balanced field length?

A

TODA=ASDA

71
Q

What does the symbols VV/// mean in a metar report?

A

When fog or heavy snow is occurring, and it is not possible to determine cloud structure, then these groups are replaced by VVhhh or VV///, where either the vertical visibility can be determined (hhh) in hundreds of feet, or impossible to determine (///)

72
Q

What is circling approach?

A

A circling approach (circle-to-land) is often established at aerodromes, where a straight-in approach track is not possible due to terrain constraints or an inappropriate descent gradient. Usually an instrument approach procedure is being performed prior to the circling.

73
Q

What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet A?

A

-40 degrees celcius

74
Q

What is the fuel freeze temperature of Jet A1?

A

-47 degrees celcius

75
Q

A sea breeze is wind that?

A

A cool breeze blowing from the sea toward the land.

76
Q

Which is a typical characteristic of a swept wing? vague

A

Thin, minimal - camber

77
Q

The MSA on a Jeppesen Chart is generally within how many NM?

A

25 NM (EK uses lido now)

78
Q

Where is windshear found?

A

Weather fronts, Inversion, Upper-level jet streams, low level jet stream, and downburst.

79
Q

What effect does a winglets has an aerofoil?

A

Reduction of induced drag

80
Q

What sort of weather would you expect in a Low Pressure Area?

A

Cloudy weather and precipitation

81
Q

The ISA Standard temperature at 39000 ft is?

A
  • 56.5 degrees Celsius.
82
Q

Buy Ballots Law states that?

A

Buys Ballot’s law states that if a person in the Northern Hemisphere stands with his back to the wind, the low atmospheric pressure is found to his left.

83
Q

What is a katabatic wind?

A

Meaning “going downhill”, is the technical name for a drainage wind, a wind that carries high density air from a higher elevation down a slope under the force of gravity at night or cold days.

84
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the diurnal variation of the wind at about 2000 ft is such that? Vague

A

In northern hemisphere, as low pressure is on the left wind backs (turn left) and decrease in speed as we descend.
During the day the wind on the ground is stronger and less backed than at night.

85
Q

Does a compressor change kinetic energy into pressure energy? If so, are stators divergent or convergent?

A

Yes, kinetic energy can change into pressure energy. Stators are divergent in the compression section

86
Q

If your static port gets clogged with ice on descent, you altimeter will over/under read or remain the same?

A

It will over read

87
Q

Whilst maintaining an constant attitude, what is the effect of flap and slats on the angle of attack?

A

If maintaining a constant ATTITUDE, Slat extension will cause a DECREASE in Angle of Attack.

If maintaining a constant ATTITUDE, Flap extension will cause an INCREASE in Angle of Attack.

88
Q

Why do modern jets have a swept wing? Vague answer

A

To achieve high speed, and reduce drag.

89
Q

Two aircraft are approaching head on turn, which way do you turn to avoid a crash?

A

To the right

90
Q

What is the effect of engine bleed air for air conditioning and anti - icing etc. on take off performance?

A

Reduced performance

91
Q

What happens to specific fuel consumption with altitude?

A

Decrease with higher altitude.

92
Q

Clearway will increase/decrease MTOW, and increase/decrease V1? LPJ answer is incorrect EASA Q is Q160

A

A clearway at the end of the RWY will increase your RTOW in the same way as if there was an obstacle close to the RWY one would have to reduce RTOW./

93
Q

Stopway increases ASDA/TORA/TODA?

A

A stopway will increase ASDA and you have more RWY to accelerate and then stop. It will have no effect on TORA. It will increase TODA

94
Q

What should you see when following the VASI on the glide path?

A

When the pilot is approaching the lights at the proper angle, meaning the pilot is on the glide slope, the first set of lights appears white and the second set appears red.

95
Q

DME range at FL350 is approximately?

A

Range =√1.23x Aircraft Height in feet. (Answer in nm)

Answer is = 229nm

96
Q

What does VVxxx mean on a TAF?

A

Vertical Visibility is noted indefinite ceiling

97
Q

What are the aerodynamic effects of a swept wing?

A

High Mach cruise speeds, Stability in turbulence.

98
Q

What is the relationship of altitude and performance of the jet engine?

A

At high altitudes, the air is thinner.

  1. thermal efficiency greater at higher temp differentials, engine is a heat pump the hotter the efflux the more efficient the burn.
  2. compressors work better at high rpms, hi altitude flight allows more rpm without exceeding thrust/airframe speed limitations
  3. reduced friction/drag at altitudes allowing lower output at altitude, while retaining a set mach/airspeed. better SFC
99
Q

Can an increase in clearway increase MTOW?

A

Yes

100
Q

Clearway will increase/decrease MTOW, and increase/decrease V1?

A

Increase MTOM and decrease V1 (V1 decreased because of the increase of weight)

101
Q

Which of the V speeds will vary with a stopway and/or clearway?

A

V1
Clearway (No stopway) V1 is lower than V1 balanced
Stopway (No clearway) V1 has to be higher to utilize the longer TOR

102
Q

Cumulonimbus clouds are more likely to form?

A

Spring and summer in afternoon
Cold front
Tropical cyclones

103
Q

When does the humid monsoon start in India?

A

June

104
Q

Three ingredients are needed for the formation of a perfect cumulonimbus cloud?

A

1) Plenty of moisture.

2) A mass of warm unstable air.

3) A source of energy to lift the warm, moist air mass rapidly upward

105
Q

An anabatic wind is one which?

A

During the day, the incoming solar radiation warms up the slope. The air expands and becomes less dense, so it starts to ascend, creating a low-pressure area over the slope. This leads to the upward motion of the air from the valley to the top of the mountain, which is called an anabatic wind or upslope wind. If this process is strong enough and the ascending air contains sufficient moisture, then the water vapor starts to condensate, leading to the development of cumulus clouds and precipitation.

106
Q

If when flying at 39,000 feet you found the static outside air temperature to be -47.5C. The deviation from the international Standard Atmosphere would be?

A

+9C
(ISA is 56.6)

107
Q

With the anti skid inoperative, for any given takeoff weight, what happens to V1?

A

The V1 must be reduced.
(increased ASD due to less brake efficeincy)

108
Q

Why does the Airbus have a tail tank? Vague

A

To increase range and provide balanced trim

109
Q

A deep stall is often a characteristic of aircraft?

A

T-tail airplane

110
Q

At night the minimum required exterior lighting for an aircraft in flight is? Corrected from LPJ

A

Navigation Lights (LPJ answer)
NAV and Anti-Collision (EASA answer)

111
Q

According to the rule even / odd, flying in the direction 220 degrees, what is the minimum flight level flying in RVSM airspace?

A

FL300
(first even RVSM level)

112
Q

Under Rule odd / even flying in the direction 140, which is the highest odd level flying in RVSM airspace?

A

FL410
RVSM ends at FL410 which is odd

113
Q

What is the relationship between V1 and Vmcg?

A

V1 is not allowed to be lower than Vmcg

114
Q

What is the relationship between MCR and LRC?

A

LRC is 99% of MCR. 1% is lost but You gain speed

115
Q

If we are flying an ILS IMC conditions and starts sounding GPWS TERRAIN TERRAIN TERRAIN, what is your action as a pilot?

A

Go-around

116
Q

If you’re flying and we know we’re going to get into an area of turbulence, what do you do?

A

Secure the cabin, set turbulence penetration speed and keep the attitude.

117
Q

What are the type of clouds that indicate severe turbulence? Modified

A

Lenticular clouds (LPJ/EASA)
Cap clouds (EASA)
Rotor Clouds (EASA)
TCU/CB/CU (EASA)

118
Q

When convective clouds are being incorporated into a layer of stratus, what Phenomenon can we expect?

A

Embedded storms

119
Q

What is the buffet onset level in cruise?

A

1.3 G

120
Q

What is the minimum reserve fuel?

A

30 min wait to 1500 ft at holding speed (230 kts)

121
Q

What do you have when determining Payload?

A

PAX + CARGO + MAIL

122
Q

What are the minimum CAT I?

A

200 ft, 550 meters RVR

123
Q

If we are to move into an area ADIZ’s, should we consider?

A

Respect the local procedures established for each country. Identify ourselves.

124
Q

If you are flying PM and PF leaves the path over more than a dot in IMC conditions below 900 ft, what would you do?

A

Warn him and if no respond take controls

125
Q

On a dry track, what is the most effective method of braking?

A

Brakes (LPJ says reverse but incorrect)

126
Q

On a slippery track, how to control a possible slip yaw during landing? Vague

A

Go to Idle Reverse)
(Reverse asymmetry LPJ answer is wrong)

127
Q

Ice has formed in the upper and lower levels of the wing, what can we expect to happen?

A

Increase the stall speed and maneuverability of the airplane decreases.

128
Q

When does icing occurs?

A

+ 10C, visible moisture, down to -40C. +3C dew point

129
Q

What is the most efficient system for stopping at high speed?

A

Reverse thrust. (The magic word is efficient, brakes are more efficient at low speeds)

130
Q

RNP4 route, which is the accuracy that exists?

A

+ / - 4nm in 95% of the time

131
Q

how far must the alternate off? vague, must mean takeoff alternate

A

An 1 hour flight at cruising speed with one engine operative

132
Q

What are the signs to know that Windshear exist?

A

Speed changes, pitch changes, changes in the VS.

133
Q

If the price of fuel is high, how will the cost index?

A

Lower

134
Q

If we have a RA in flight, what should you as pilot do?

A

Follow-avoidance maneuver and inform ATC

135
Q

When an aircraft is equipped with both outboard and inboard ailerons, the outboard ailerons are only active during slow flight:? Why?

A

Because the outboard aileron will twist the wingtip at high speeds.

136
Q

What is taken into account in choosing the optimal level of cruise?

A

Temperature, weight, wind, fuel, cost index, CG position

137
Q

QFE 980 hPa at an airfield of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QNH be?

A) 1015 hPa.
B) 1010 hPa.
C) 1005 hPa.
D) 1000 hPa

A

1005 hPa

138
Q

How does a forward center of gravity affect the stall speed, and why?

A

A center of gTavity forward of the center of pressure will cause a higher stall speed.
This is so because a forward center of gTavity would cause a natural nose-down attitude below the required en route cruise attitude for best performance. Therefore, a downward force is induced by the stabilizer to obtain the aircraft’s required attitude. However, this downward force is in effect a weight and thereby increases the aircraft’s overall effective weight. Weight is a factor ofthe stall speed, and the heavier the aircraft, the higher is the aircraft’s stall speed.

Conversely, the opposite is true: A center of gravity aft of the center of pressure will cause a lower stall speed.

139
Q

What is Mach tuck?

A

Mach tuck is the nose-down pitching moment an aircraft experiences as it passes its critical Mach number (Merit).
Mach tuck is a form of longitudinal instability that occurs because of the center of pressure’s rearward movement behind the center of gravity (see preceding question), which induces the aircraft to pitch down (or the aircraft’s nose to tuck).

140
Q

What are the four reasons for a variable-incidence tailplane/stabilizer, especially on a jet aircraft?

A

To provide a balancing force for a large center of gravity range
2. To provide a balancing force for a large speed range
3. To cope (longitudinally) with large trim changes as a result of position changes to the wing leading and trailing edge high-lift devices (configuration changes)
4. To reduce elevator trim drag to a minimum

141
Q

What hazards to aviation does icing cause?

A

a. Reduced stalling angle
b. Reduced maximum lift capability c. Increased stall speed
d. Increased drag

142
Q

What is the correct fuel jettison altitude?

A

Options are 4000 in summer / 7000 Winter / all of the above.
All of the above is correct

ATPL Refresher (4 decks)

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