Land Law Flashcards

1
Q

What is the distinction between a lease and a licence?

A

A lease is a recognized proprietary right in the land, known technically as a ‘term of years absolute’. It grants the temporary right to use and enjoy the land exclusively. On the other hand, a licence confers a personal permission to be on someone’s land and justifies what would otherwise be a trespass.

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2
Q

What are the key differences between leases and licences?

A

Leases are proprietary rights to land and can be enforced against third parties. They confer the right of security of tenure and can sue third parties for nuisance or trespass. Licences, on the other hand, are personal permissions to be on someone’s land and can only be enforced against the grantor. They have no security of tenure and cannot sue third parties for nuisance or trespass.

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3
Q

What was the significance of the Street v Mountford case?

A

In the case of Street v Mountford, the House of Lords held that an agreement described as a licence was, in substance, a tenancy or lease. This case established that the courts would look at the substance of the arrangement rather than the label used by the parties to determine whether it is a lease or a licence.

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4
Q

What are the requirements for a lease to exist?

A

For a lease to exist, there must be certainty of term, exclusive possession, and the correct formalities used to create the lease. Certainty of term means that the tenancy must be granted for a certain duration. If any of these requirements are not present, the arrangement can only be a licence.

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5
Q

What factors determine whether an agreement is a lease or a license?

A

The courts will always look at the substance of an agreement to determine if it is a lease or license. The label given to an agreement by the parties is inconclusive. For there to be a lease, rather than just a license, there must be a certain term, exclusive possession, and compliance with the correct formalities.

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6
Q

What are the essential characteristics of a lease?

A

The essential characteristics of a lease include a certain term, exclusive possession, and compliance with the correct legal formalities. The payment of rent is not required for a lease to exist.

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7
Q

What is the significance of determining whether a party occupies under a lease or a licence in a land law context?

A

The status of the occupier as either a leaseholder or a licensee is important for two main reasons. First, if the occupier is deprived of their right of occupation, a leaseholder has the right to enforce their proprietary right in the land and recover possession, while a licensee would have to settle for damages. Second, a lease can bind third parties, such as new owners of the burdened land, whereas a licence does not have the same binding effect.

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8
Q

What are the requirements for a certain term in a lease?

A

A certain term in a lease can be evidenced by a fixed term or a periodic term. While a fixed term is more common, a periodic tenancy can also establish certainty of term. A periodic tenancy is generally weekly, monthly, quarterly, or yearly, and it automatically renews until a notice to quit is served.

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9
Q

What is exclusive possession in the context of a lease?

A

Exclusive possession means that the right of occupation grants the occupier the right to exclude all others from the premises, including the landlord. It involves examining the level of control the occupier has over the land and the control retained by the grantor. Factors such as the grantor retaining a key or having a high degree of control over the premises may affect exclusive possession.

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10
Q

What factors could defeat the existence of a lease?

A

Even if exclusive possession exists, certain factors can defeat the existence of a lease and classify the arrangement as a licence instead. Factors such as an act of generosity, a service occupancy, or the absence of intention to create legal relations can defeat a lease. It is important to consider the specific circumstances and intentions of the parties involved.

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11
Q

What are the formalities required to create a lease?

A

The relevant formalities for creating a lease depend on the term of the lease. A lease of over 7 years must be granted by deed and registered at the Land Registry. A lease of 7 years or less must also be granted by deed but does not need to be registered. However, there is an exception for leases of 3 years or less that meet certain conditions, where no formalities are required.

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12
Q

What are the conditions for a lease of 3 years or less to be exempt from formalities?

A

For a lease of 3 years or less to be exempt from formalities, it must meet three conditions: 1) The lease takes effect in possession; 2) The lease is granted at a market rent; and 3) There is no upfront premium payable by the tenant. If these conditions are met, the lease does not need to be in writing and no formalities are required to create the legal estate.

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13
Q

What is the short lease exception for periodic tenancies?

A

A periodic tenancy will almost always fall within this short lease exception providing each period is 3 years or less.

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14
Q

What is an equitable lease and what are its requirements?

A

An equitable lease is a form of estate contract that grants the tenant an equitable interest in the land. The requirements for an equitable lease are: the document must be in writing, it must contain all the terms, and it must be signed by both parties.

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15
Q

How is the enforceability of a lease affected by its duration?

A

A lease of over 7 years must be substantively registered at the Land Registry as part of its creation. Such a lease will be enforceable against a third-party purchaser of the burdened land. A legal lease of 7 years or less does not need registering as part of its creation and will be an overriding interest, binding on a new owner of the burdened land. An equitable lease should be protected by the entry of a notice on the charges register of the burdened land or it will not bind a purchaser for value. If not protected in this way, the equitable lease may be binding on a purchaser for value as an overriding interest if the tenant is in actual occupation of the land.

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16
Q

How can an equitable lease be protected to bind a purchaser for value?

A

An equitable lease should be protected by the entry of a notice on the charges register of the burdened land. If not protected in this way, the equitable lease may still be binding on a purchaser for value if the tenant is in actual occupation of the land.

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17
Q

What is the impact of a tenant’s actual occupation on the enforceability of an equitable lease?

A

If the tenant is in actual occupation of the land, an equitable lease may be binding on a purchaser for value as an overriding interest, even if it is not protected by a notice on the charges register of the burdened land.

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18
Q

What does certainty of term mean?

A

Certainty of term means that the tenancy must be granted for a certain duration.

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19
Q

How can a certainty of term be shown?

A

‘Certainty of term’ can be shown in two ways; by either a fixed orperiodic term.

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20
Q

When does a fixed term exist?

A

A ‘fixed term’ exists where the maximum duration of the arrangement is known from the outset.

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21
Q

What is a periodic tenancy?

A

A periodic tenancy is technically a lease for one period.

In practice this is generally weekly, monthly, quarterly or yearly, which goes on extending itself automatically until either landlord or tenant give notice to terminate the tenancy. This is a notice to quit.

A periodic term may be created expresslyor Impliedly.

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22
Q

What is an express periodic tenancy?

A

An express periodic tenancy is where there is a written agreement documenting the agreement.

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23
Q

What is an implied periodic tenancy?

A

An implied periodic tenancy is where there is nothing set out in writing, but the certain term arises by looking objectively at all relevant circumstances including payment and acceptance of rent on a periodic basis.

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24
Q

What does exclusive possession mean?

A

Exclusive possession means the right to exclude all others from the property, including the landlord.

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25
Q

How is exclusive possession assessed?

A

Whether exclusive possession exists is a question of fact in each case.
The substance of the agreement has to be examined, along with all the facts.
The courts will look at the reality of a situation, so that even if a clause appears to defeat exclusion possession but has been inserted into a lease only to make what would otherwise be a lease, appear like a licence, it will be thrown out as a sham.

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26
Q

What scenarios indicate the occupier does not have exclusive possession?

A

(1) The landlord retains a key, (2) the landlord provides services; and (3) there is a sharing clause.

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27
Q

How can a landlord retaining the key indicate the occupier does not have exclusive possession?

A

it is the purpose for which the key is retained that matters

For example, if the key is used only in an emergency or by arrangement, then exclusive possession may still exist.
The courts will look at whether any right of access the landlord has is restricted or unrestricted.
If the access is restricted eg ‘to carry out repairs’ then this is seen as more of an acknowledgement of exclusive possession by the landlord, rather than something that will defeat it. This was expressed by the court in Street v Mountford [1985] AC 809.
In Aslan v Murphy [1990] 1 WLR 766 the court held ‘there is no magic in the retention of a key’ ….. it will not determine the nature of arrangement either way.

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28
Q

How can a landlord providing services indicate the occupier does not have exclusive possession?

A

If the landlord provides attendance or services there is a licence not a tenancy (Marchant v Charters [1977] 1 WLR 1181.)
Services would include cleaning, changing linen etc.
The occupier is simply a lodger provided the services are actually carried out and a lodger will never enjoy exclusive possession of the premises.

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29
Q

How do sharing clauses indicate the occupier does not have exclusive possession?

A

If a landlord reserves the right to share the property with the occupiers or reserves the right to introduce others to share, that may mean that there is no exclusive possession, as the occupier cannot exclude whoever the landlord is able to introduce.
All of the circumstances must be looked at to see whether this is a genuine clause or simply a sham to defeat exclusive possession, as was made clear in A G Securities v Vaughan and Antoniades v Villiers both reported at [1990] 1 AC 417t.

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30
Q

What should be considered when determining if a sharing clause is genuine or a sham?

A

The size and nature of the accommodation – would it be realistic to introduce others into the accommodation given its size?
The relationship between the occupiers (if there is more than one) – would it be appropriate to introduce another to share given the relationship between the occupiers?
The wording of the clause (i.e. how widely it is drafted, as the wider it is drafted, the more likely it is a sham clause.)
Whether the clause has ever been exercised – if it has not been exercised then this may indicate it is a sham clause.

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31
Q

What must a business tenant show for them to have a lease?

A

A business tenant must also show it has a certain term andexclusive possession of the premises in order to establish it is a tenant, rather than licensee.
In the context of business arrangements, the result affects security of tenure, as business tenants (but not licensees) are protected by theLandlord and Tenant Act 1954, entitling them to remain in the premises at the end of the lease term and request a new lease.
In the business context, the court tends to construe the document as a whole to see if the landlord retains control over the property. In this setting, the courts are more prepared to accept the reality of the label ‘licence’ than they are in the residential context as there tends to be more equality in bargaining power, with commercial leases often negotiated and parties legally represented.

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32
Q

What does a right to relocate in business tenancies suggest?

A

If the occupation agreement contains a right for the landlord to relocate and move the tenant to alternative premises, it will not be a lease.

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33
Q

What is a joint tenancy?

A

Where there is a joint tenancy all co-owners/tenant are deemed to constitute one single entity, and own/lease the whole property as one collective entity. Nobody owns a single/specific share; rather each are jointly and severally liable for the terms of the agreement.

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34
Q

What the the four unities joint tenants must have?

A

unity of possession; unity of interest; unity of time; and unity of title

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35
Q

What is unity of possession?

A

All must be entitled to occupy the whole of the premises.
No-one has exclusive use of any part.
If the occupiers can show that they each have exclusive possession of a part of the property then it is possible for them to have individual leases of their own part.

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36
Q

What is unity of interest?

A

All occupiers must have a leasehold interest for the same term under the same conditions and must be jointly liable for the rent.
Key word or definition: Joint liability in a lease means if one occupier left, the remaining occupier(s) would be liable for the whole rent payment, not an individual share of it.

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37
Q

What is unity of time?

A

All of the occupiers interests must start at the same time.

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38
Q

What is unity of title?

A

All of the occupiers interests must derive from the same document or from separate but identical documents which are interdependent.

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39
Q

What happens if the 4 unities are not present?

A

If it is found that the occupants do not have all of the four unities, they cannot have a joint tenancy.
If neither a joint tenancy nor an individual tenancy exists then the occupants can only be individual licensees sharing with each other.

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40
Q

What factors may defeat a lease?

A

These are:
- where there is no intention to create legal relations; and
- where there is a service occupancy.

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41
Q

In what circumstances can it be assumed that there is no intention to create legal relations?

A

afamily arrangement, an act of friendship or generosity, it can be presumed that there is a lack of such intention.
However, just because there is a family relationship between the parties, it does not automatically follow that there is no intention to create legal relations.
If there is a degree of formality to the agreement and/or a rent is paid then this would evidence an intention to create legal relations

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42
Q

What is service occupancy?

A

where there is an employer/employee relationship between the landowner and the occupier. Where the occupier is required to live in the premises for the better performance of his duties as an employee, there is no tenancy, even though a rent may be paid.

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43
Q

What formalities are required to make a lease?

A

The general rule:
To create a legal lease, a deed must be used (LPA 1925, s 52). The requirements of a valid deed are set out in LP(MP)A 1989, s 1.
Leases over 7 years:
If the term of the lease is over 7 years, the lease must also be with registered (LRA 2002, s 27(2)(b)(i))
This is a compulsory registration requirement. If not done a legal leasehold estate will not have been created (LRA 2002, s 27 (1).)

Leases of 7 years or less:
If the term of the lease is 7 years or less, the lease does not need to be registered. Such leases still take effect as legal leases and will be binding on a new freehold estate owner as an overriding interest (LRA 2002, sch 3 para 1).

Short lease exception
Certain short leases, which fulfil certain conditions, have no formal requirements, yet they will still exist as legal leases. They need not even be in writing.
LPA 1925, s 54 (2) states that a lease with a term of three years or less need not be created by deed provided the following three conditions are all met:
The lease takes effect in possession (ie the tenant takes the lease immediately).The lease is granted at ‘best rent’ (which has been interpreted as meaning ‘market rent’).The lease is not subject to a fine or premium (meaning there is no upfront payment for the grant of the lease, which you could commonly expect to see with very long leases).
These short leases, also called parol leases, whether created by deed or less formally under s 54(2), do not need to be registered to exist as legal leases because only leases of over 7 years must be registered.

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44
Q

What the requirements for an equitable lease?

A

There is a document that complies with LP(MP)A 1989, s 2
AND
The remedy of specific performance is available

The tenant will have an equitable lease (an estate contract) if the agreement is:
* In writing
* Contains all the terms
* Signed by both the parties

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45
Q

What are tenant covenants?

A

The basic rule is that a tenant may do all things that an owner of an estate can do unless the lease prohibits such actions.

Leases are therefore drafted in a prohibitory or negative manner setting out what the tenant cannot do by way of a number of tenant covenants.

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46
Q

What are landlord covenants?

A

If the lease is a lease of part of a building (eg a floor in an office block or unit on an estate) the landlord may also covenant to provide services, maintain common areas and to insure the building.
The most common is the covenant for quiet enjoyment. Quiet enjoyment is a landlord’s covenant not to interfere with the tenant’s possession or enjoyment of the property during the term of the lease. It covers the acts of the landlord and the lawful acts of anyone claiming under them.

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47
Q

What are examples of breach of e covenant for quiet enjoyment?

A

The erection of scaffolding hindering access to the property (Owen v Gadd [1956] 2 QB 99)
* Persistent intimidation of the tenant to induce him to leave (Kenny v Preen [1963] 1 QB 499).

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48
Q

What are guarantors covenants?

A

An individual or company guarantor may also be a party to the lease and will covenant to guarantee payments that must be made under the lease and the performance of any other obligations so that if the tenant defaults in payment, the landlord is able to call upon the guarantor.

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49
Q

What is Forfeiture?

A

Forfeiture is the right of the landlord to bring the lease to an early end in the event of tenant breach.

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50
Q

What is Security of tenure ?

A

Security of tenure is a right for the tenant to remain in premises at the end of the lease term and to request the grant of a new lease.

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51
Q

What is service charge?

A

Service charge is a sum of money charged by the landlord to tenants to cover costs of services to tenants within a property (such as an industrial estate, block of flats, shopping centre). The charges cover costs to do with maintenance and repairs of exteriors (roofs etc) and common parts but exclude the tenant’s demised areas because the tenants will usually have agreed to repair those areas themselves in the lease.

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52
Q

What are Prescribed Lease Clauses?

A

A list of set clauses at the front of a lease which help to speed up registration of registrable leases at the Land Registry.

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53
Q

What are some of the usual tenant’s covenants in a lease?

A

Payment of rent, payment of service charge, use of premises, covenant against assignment and subletting.

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54
Q

What are the benefits of security of tenure for a tenant?

A

The tenant being able to treat the premises as a long term prospect means that the tenant can invest in fitting out the premises and making them suitable for their purposes.

· A retail or restaurant business know that they can reap the benefits of goodwill from their location.

· A tenant does not have to worry about the considerable upheaval that could be caused by having to move at the end of the contractual term.

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55
Q

What are the benefits of security in tenure for landlords?

A

The premises will be more appealing to prospective tenants.
· The tenant may be encouraged to treat the premises as their own, and therefore look after them. Of course, there will be repairing obligations in the lease anyway, but it is better if the tenant observes them without being coerced into doing so.
· It may be beneficial to the landlord at rent review, as the market rent may be higher for a lease enjoying security of tenure.

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56
Q

What is a fixed term tenancy?

A

· A fixed term tenancy creates exclusive possession and a proprietary interest.
· It binds successors in title to the landlord.
· The tenant can use the property as if they were the owner.
· It can benefit from security of tenure.

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57
Q

What is a periodic tenancy?

A

· A periodic tenancy creates exclusive possession and a proprietary interest.
· It binds successors in title to the landlord. However, it can be brought to an end by notice.
· It can benefit from security of tenure.

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58
Q

What is a licence?

A

· A licence is a personal permission to be on the land and is not a proprietary interest.
· It does not bind successors in title to the owner granting the licence.
· It cannot benefit from security of tenure.

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59
Q

What is a tenancy at will?

A

· A tenancy at will is similar to a licence as it is a personal permission but unlike a licence, the tenant can have exclusive possession.
· However, the important feature is that either landlord or tenant can end the tenancy at any time.
· It cannot benefit from security of tenure.

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60
Q

What are the security of tenure provisions?

A

…any tenancy where the property comprised in the tenancy is or includes premises which are occupied by the tenant and are so occupied for the purposes of a business carried on by him or for those and other purposes…

Tenancy
Occupied
Purposes of a business

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61
Q

What can fall under business purposes?

A

· a charity shop
· a tennis club for members only
· residential use that furthers the tenant’s business (eg, accommodation for medical school students or a lease of a shop, part of which could be used for residential purposes)
These have been held not to be business purposes:
· Sunday school sessions provided free of charge by an individual
· A tenant of a house taking a small number of lodgers without profit

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62
Q

What are excluded tenancies for security of tenure?

A

Agricultural tenancies (as they have their own statutory regime)

Mining leases

Service tenancies (a lease granted as part of a tenant’s employment, eg, a security guard’s flat)

Fixed term tenancies of six months or less (but can become protected if the tenant has been in occupation for twelve months or more, whether through successive tenancies or if the tenancy is renewable beyond six months)

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63
Q

What are contracted our tenancies?

A

S38A of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 allows the parties to agree to exclude a fixed term lease from the security of tenure provisions.
This is known as contracting out.

Assessment tip: Note that only fixed term leases can be contracted out. A periodic tenancy that qualifies for security of tenure cannot be contracted out.

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64
Q

What is the procedure for contracting out?

A

The landlord must serve a warning notice on the tenant in a prescribed form. This details the consequences of contracting out the security of tenure provisions.
It must be served before the parties complete the lease.
The tenant must provide a declaration in prescribed form to the landlord before completing the lease.
If lease completion is at least 14 days from the date of the warning notice then this can be a simple signed declaration.
If lease completion is less than 14 days away, then the tenant must provide a statutory declaration (declared before an independent solicitor).
The lease must contain reference to both the notice and declaration (or statutory declaration) of contracting out.
If the procedure is not correctly carried out, or not correctly referred to in the lease, the likelihood is that the lease will enjoy security of tenure.

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65
Q

What is the basis rule for covenants in leases?

A

The basic rule is that a tenant may do all the things that an owner of an estate can do unless the lease prohibits such actions.

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66
Q

What is a leasehold covenant?

A

Leasehold covenant: is a promise contained in a lease given by a landlord or a tenant.

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67
Q

A tenant may be subject to repair obligations under a repairing covenant. What is the tenant’s standard of repair?

A

The standard of repair is to keep the premises in the condition in which they would be kept by a reasonably minded owner, having regard to the character and type and age of the premises.

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68
Q

What is meant by a tenant’s covenant to keep the premises in repair?

A

It is an obligation to put the premises into repair at the beginning of the term if they are out of repair and to keep them in repair throughout the term of the lease.

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69
Q

What is alienation?

A

Alienation:a method for the tenant disposing of the whole, or part, of their interest in a leasehold property.

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70
Q

What is assignment of a lease?

A

the ‘sale’ by the tenant of the remainder of their lease to another party

The covenant is construed in the tenant’s favour so that:
* A covenant against assignment does not prohibit subletting of the whole or part (Church v Brown (1808) 15 Ves Jr 258, 33 ER 752.)
* A covenant against sub-letting the whole does not prohibit a subletting of part (Wilson v Rosenthal (1906) 22 TLR 233.)

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71
Q

What are formalities to transfer the lease?

A

Deed + Registration

THERE IS NOT SHORT TERM LEASE EXCEPTION

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72
Q

What does subletting of a lease involve?

A

This involves a tenant granting a lease out of its own lease. This lease is called an underlease (or sublease).

The lease out of which it was granted is now called the headlease (or superior lease).

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73
Q

What are the formalities for subletting a lease?

A

The general rule is therefore that the lease must be granted by deed (LPA 1925, s 52) which must be registered if the term is for over 7 years (LRA 2002, s 27(2)(b)).

The headlease will generally require the tenant to obtain landlord’s consent to an underletting of the premises. As with an assignment, this is formally recorded in a deed called a Licence to Underlet to which the landlord, tenant and undertenant will all be party.

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74
Q

What happens with qualified covenants against alienation?

A

A qualified covenant against alienation will be ‘upgraded’ to a fully qualified covenant so that the landlord cannot unreasonably withhold their consent (LTA 1927, s 19(1)(a).) In acting reasonably, the landlord cannot refuse consent on grounds that have nothing to do with the landlord and tenant relationship.

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75
Q

What happens with absolute covenants against alienation?

A

No statutory provisions apply to an absolute prohibition against any particular dealing so there is nothing that can aid a tenant here if it wanted to ask for landlord’s consent to deal.
However the landlord could as a ‘one-off’ waive the prohibition but it is under no obligation to do so.

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76
Q

What happens with full qualified covenants against alienation?

A

These type of covenants contain a proviso, be it expressly set out in the lease, or implied by LTA 1927 s 19(1)(a), to the effect that consent to an assignment or an underletting shall not be unreasonably withheld.

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77
Q

What is the statutory intervention with alienation covenants?

A

Where a tenant applies to the landlord in writing for consent, LTA 1988, s 1 provides that:
* The landlord must give written consent within a reasonable time (unless it is reasonable to refuse.) - 28 days from receipt of the application and references by the landlord was deemed to be a reasonable period (Dong Bang Minerva (UK) v Davina [1996] 3 WLUK 117)
* The burden is on the landlord to prove reasonable refusal – s1(6), and written reasons must be provided.
The landlord is entitled to be given sufficient information to enable it to reach a decision. A ‘reasonable time’ will not generally expire before this has been done but the landlord must ask for further information if it requires it.
If a landlord does not comply with the LTA 1988, it may be liable for tortious damages for breach of statutory duty.

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78
Q

When is refusal of consent reasonable and unreasonable?

A

Unsatisfactory tenant’s reference –reasonable
The proposed assignee’s use of the property would damage the landlord’s own commercial interests as the assignee proposed to run a rival business next door. – reasonable
The proposed subletting was at a substantial premium and at a rent well below the open market value – reasonable
Where the existing tenant is already in breach of covenant – the landlord can insist upon the breach being remedied before giving consent unless it is clear that the assignee can remedy the breach – reasonable
Where the landlord’s intention was to bring the tenancy to an end and the landlord did not therefore propose to give consent to any assignee, not just to the particular assignee in question –unreasonable
Where the proposed assignee was already a tenant of the landlord in another property which would have been difficult to re-let – unreasonable

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79
Q

What are the Pre-conditions for alienation for new tenancies?

A

LTA 1927, s 19(1A) applies to any lease that has been granted on or after 1 January 1996. A lease granted on or after 1 January 1996 is known as a ‘new lease’
In new leases, LTA 1927, s 19(1A) (inserted by s 22 Landlord and Tenant (Covenants) Act 1995) states that:
* The landlord and tenant can agree the circumstances in which the landlord may withhold consent to an assignment.
* The landlord and tenant can agree the conditions subject to which consent may be granted.
* Such circumstances or conditions will be automatically reasonable if imposed by the landlord when giving consent to assign.

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80
Q

What is an Authorised Guarantee Agreement (AGA)?

A

An AGA is a guarantee by an outgoing tenant of the immediate assignee’s obligations only, so that in the event of any future assignment by the assignee, a further AGA will be required from the assignee (in its capacity as the outgoing tenant.) The landlord will only ever have the current tenant and the tenant immediately prior to the current tenant ‘on the hook’.

It is a common conditionattached to the landlord’s consent for an assignment under LTA 1927, s 19(1A) and one seen in most commercial leases for the outgoing tenant.

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81
Q

A tenant asks for permission to assign their three year lease (which was created informally) to which the landlord agrees. What are the formalities for the assignment of the lease?

A

A valid deed.

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82
Q

What is privity of contract?

A

Privity denotes the legal relationship between two or more parties to a contract. When a landlord grants a lease to a tenant, the arrangement is a contract, and privity of contract exists between them. The terms of the lease are enforceable under the rules of contract law.

All the terms, regardless of their nature, can be enforced by the original landlord against the original tenant and vice versa.

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83
Q

What is privity of estate?

A

Where the landlord and the tenant are each owners of a legal estate in the same property, there is said to be privity of estate between them.

Privity of estate exists between any current landlord and current tenant of the property and lasts only for the period while the lease is vested in the tenant.

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84
Q

What happens to privity when there is assignment?

A

Upon assignment of either the lease or the reversionary interest, privity of contract will remain between the original landlord and the tenant, but there will no longer exist privity of estate between them. This is because the leasehold or freehold estate has passed upon assignment from the original contracting party to their successor in title. Consequently, privity of estate will now exist between whomever is the current landlord and tenant.

When the tenant assigns its interest to a successor in title, there is no contractual relationship between the landlord and the new tenant (the assignee) - privity of estate exists but no privity of contract.

Likewise, where the landlord sells its reversionary interest, there is no contractual relationship between its successor in title (the reversioner) and the tenant - privity of estate exists but no privity of contract.

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85
Q

What are the two sets of rules for leasehold covenants?

A

The old system which relate to ‘old leases’ (granted before 1 January 1996) and the new system, which relate to ‘new leases’ (granted on or after 1 January 1996)

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86
Q

How do old leases work?

A

In old leases, the liability of the original landlord and the original tenant continues for the full duration of the lease term, even after an assignment of the lease or the reversion because of privity of contract.

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87
Q

When does privity of estate exist?

A

Privity of estate exists between any current landlord and current tenant of the property and lasts only for the period while the lease is vested in the tenant.

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88
Q

How do leasehold covenants operate in new leases?

A

Upon assignment of a new lease, the LTCA 1995 provides for the automatic transmission of the benefit and burden of the covenants to the new owner of the reversion / the lease.

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89
Q

What are tenant covenants in a lease?

A

Tenant covenants in a lease are the actions that a tenant is prohibited from doing. Leases are often drafted in a prohibitory or negative manner, setting out what the tenant cannot do.

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90
Q

What is the purpose of a s 146 notice in relation to breach of covenant?

A

A s 146 notice is served by the claimant’s solicitor on the defendant to inform them of a breach of covenant. It specifies the breaches, including the breach of the alterations covenant, and states whether the breach is capable of remedy or not.

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91
Q

What is the purpose of a Jervis v Harris clause in a lease?

A

A Jervis v Harris clause in a lease provides the landlord with a self-help remedy in case of a breach of the tenant’s repair covenant.

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92
Q

What is a forfeiture right in the context of a lease?

A

A forfeiture right is a powerful right for a landlord to terminate a lease prematurely for breach of covenant by the tenant. It allows the landlord to exercise the right to forfeit the lease.

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93
Q

What was the decision of the judge at first instance regarding the breach of the alterations covenant?

A

The judge at first instance held that the breach of the alterations covenant was incapable of remedy and granted an order for possession in favor of the claimant.

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94
Q

How can a lease end early?

A

One way a lease can end early is if a landlord exercises a forfeiture right. This right allows the landlord to terminate the lease prematurely for breach of covenant by the tenant.

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95
Q

What remedies are available to a landlord in the event of a tenant breach?

A

In the event of a tenant breach, a landlord has various remedies available. For a breach of a rent covenant, the landlord can take action for debt or pursue forfeiture. For a breach of a non-rent covenant, the landlord may seek an injunction, specific performance, or consider forfeiture. Damages may also be awarded in both cases.

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96
Q

How can a landlord enforce a repair covenant in a lease?

A

If the lease contains an express right for the landlord to enter and inspect the premises and give notice for repair, the landlord can undertake the works and recover the cost from the tenant if the notice is not complied with.

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97
Q

What is forfeiture in the context of a lease?

A

Forfeiture is the process by which a landlord can terminate a lease before the expiry date by exercising its right of re-entry. It is a powerful right that landlords usually reserve in a lease.

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98
Q

What is the procedure for forfeiting a lease?

A

The procedure for forfeiting a lease involves either peaceably re-entering the property or obtaining a court order. The specific rules may vary depending on whether the landlord is forfeiting for non-payment of rent or for breach of covenant other than non-payment of rent.

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99
Q

What is the difference between distress and Commercial Rent Arrears Recovery (CRAR)?

A

Distress was an ancient common law self-help remedy that allowed a landlord to enter the premises and seize goods to the value of the rent owed. However, from April 2014, distress was abolished and replaced with Commercial Rent Arrears Recovery (CRAR). CRAR requires the landlord to serve an enforcement notice on the tenant, giving seven clear days’ notice before seizing goods.

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100
Q

What was the court’s decision regarding the capability of remedy for the breach of the alterations covenant?

A

The court held that the breach was capable of remedy, with the ultimate question being whether the harm suffered by the landlord could be effectively remedied by the tenant complying with a s 146 notice and making proper compensation.

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101
Q

What was the court’s decision regarding the capability of remedy for the breach of the alterations covenant?

A

The court held that the breach was capable of remedy, with the ultimate question being whether the harm suffered by the landlord could be effectively remedied by the tenant complying with a s 146 notice and making proper compensation.

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102
Q

What is the difference between legal leases and equitable leases in terms of forfeiture?

A

Legal leases must contain an express forfeiture clause, which creates a legal right of re-entry for the landlord. On the other hand, equitable leases do not require an express forfeiture clause because the right to forfeit for non-payment of rent is implied into them as one of the implied usual covenants.

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103
Q

What is the difference between a legal lease and an equitable lease?

A

A legal lease grants the landlord the right to forfeit in the event of tenant breach of covenant, while an equitable lease is much rarer and usually arises in the context of a failed legal grant. In equitable leases, a right to forfeit for non-payment of rent only will be implied.

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104
Q

What additional protection does the Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938 provide for tenants?

A

The Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938 provides additional protection for tenants in relation to a covenant to repair. It applies when the lease is granted for at least seven years and there are at least three years still to run. The act limits the landlord’s ability to enforce a repairing obligation until the last three years of the lease.

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105
Q

What is the purpose of a s 146 notice in the forfeiture process?

A

A s 146 notice is served by the landlord to the tenant in cases other than non-payment of rent. It specifies the breach complained of, requires remedy within a reasonable time if capable, and may require compensation.

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106
Q

What is waiver in the context of lease forfeiture?

A

Waiver occurs when the landlord, with knowledge of the breach of covenant, does an act that recognizes the continued existence of the lease. Accepting rent from the tenant in default or serving a notice that presupposes the continued existence of the lease are examples of acts of waiver.

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107
Q

What is the purpose of a notice to quit?

A

A notice to quit is used to determine a periodic tenancy. The length of notice required depends on the type of tenancy, such as yearly, quarterly, monthly, or weekly. It allows either party to terminate the tenancy at the end of a complete period.

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108
Q

What is waiver in the context of lease forfeiture?

A

Waiver refers to the landlord’s act of recognizing the continued existence of the lease despite a breach. It can occur if the landlord is aware of the breach and does an unequivocal act, such as demanding or accepting rent after the breach.

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109
Q

What is the purpose of relief from forfeiture?

A

Relief from forfeiture is the court’s discretion to allow the lease to continue, thereby ending the forfeiture process.

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110
Q

Under what circumstances can a tenant be relieved of liability for internal decorative repairs?

A

If the landlord serves notice under LPA 1925, s 146 and the notice relates to internal decorative repairs, the tenant may apply to the court and be wholly or partially relieved of liability to the extent that the court thinks the notice unreasonable (LPA 1925, s 147).

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111
Q

Can waiver occur inadvertently?

A

Yes, waiver can occur inadvertently. For example, if the landlord’s agent sends out a rent demand despite the landlord being aware of the breach, it can be considered inadvertent waiver.

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112
Q

What is the difference between surrender and merger?

A

Surrender is the handing back of the lease by the tenant to the landlord with the landlord’s consent, resulting in the premature termination of the lease. Merger, on the other hand, occurs when the tenant acquires the landlord’s interest, becoming its own landlord, and the lease is absorbed by the reversion and destroyed.

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113
Q

What factors are considered when granting relief from forfeiture?

A

Relief from forfeiture can be applied for regardless of whether the right has been exercised by court order or peaceable re-entry. It is usually granted if the tenant can pay off the arrears.

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114
Q

What is the process for forfeiture in case of non-payment of rent?

A

In case of non-payment of rent, the landlord must make a formal demand for payment unless there is an express exemption in the lease, the rent is expressed as payable whether formally demanded or not, or if there are more than 6 months of rental arrears. The landlord can then proceed to forfeit the lease by physically re-entering the property and changing the locks or by possession proceedings to court.

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115
Q

What happens if there is a continuing breach in relation to waiver?

A

If there is a continuing breach, such as failure to repair, waiver only lasts until the next day the breach continues. At that point, the landlord can choose to reject the rent and forfeit the lease.

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116
Q

What happens to a sub-lease when a head-lease is forfeited?

A

If a head-lease is forfeited, any sub-lease will also be destroyed. However, a sub-tenant in the premises has the right to apply for relief from forfeiture.

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117
Q

What is relief from forfeiture?

A

Relief from forfeiture is the court’s discretion to allow the lease to continue even after the landlord has exercised its right to forfeit. The tenant can apply for relief before any court order, after any court order within 6 months, and after peaceable re-entry without time limit. Relief will usually be granted if the arrears can be paid.

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118
Q

What happens if the breach is non-continuing in relation to waiver?

A

If the breach is non-continuing, such as sub-letting without consent, waiver is permanent. Once rent is accepted, the landlord can never again forfeit for that specific breach.

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119
Q

What is the purpose of an injunction in relation to tenant covenants?

A

An injunction can be sought by a landlord to prevent an unauthorized sublease or assignment, among other breaches of tenant covenants. It is a legal remedy that aims to stop the tenant from engaging in prohibited actions.

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120
Q

What are the steps involved in the forfeiture procedure?

A

The forfeiture procedure involves determining if there has been a breach, checking for a forfeiture clause, and assessing if there has been a waiver. These steps apply to all breaches of covenant.

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121
Q

What is the purpose of a s 146 notice in relation to forfeiture?

A

A s 146 notice informs the tenant of their right to serve a counter notice within 28 days. If the tenant serves a counter-notice, the landlord cannot proceed to claim forfeiture or damages without first obtaining the leave of the court.

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122
Q

What is the procedure for exercising the right of forfeiture in case of breach of other covenants?

A

The landlord must serve a notice (a s 146 notice) specifying the breach, requesting compensation if desired, and requesting that the tenant remedy the breach within a reasonable time. This provides the tenant with one last chance to comply with the lease and remedy the breach. If the breach is not remedied within a reasonable time, the landlord can proceed to forfeit by physical re-entry or by court order.

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123
Q

When can specific performance be ordered in relation to a repairing covenant?

A

Specific performance, which is the fulfillment of a contractual obligation, is very rarely ordered in respect of a repairing covenant. In most cases, damages will be considered adequate compensation.

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124
Q

What are the steps involved in the forfeiture process for breach of covenant?

A

The steps involved in the forfeiture process for breach of covenant include: 1) Identifying a breach of covenant, 2) Ensuring there is a forfeiture clause in the lease, 3) Determining if the landlord has waived the right to forfeit, 4) Serving a demand for payment or ensuring the lease waives this right, 5) Forfeiting the lease by peaceable re-entry or court order, and 6) Allowing the tenant to apply for relief from forfeiture.

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125
Q

What factors determine whether a breach is capable of remedy in the context of forfeiture?

A

The courts consider whether compliance with a s146 notice, coupled with appropriate compensation, could effectively rectify the harm or damage caused by the breach. The majority of breaches are capable of remedy, except breaches of covenants not to sublet and illegal or immoral use.

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126
Q

What are the steps involved in exercising the right to forfeit a lease?

A

The steps involved in exercising the right to forfeit a lease are: 1) There must be a breach of covenant. 2) There must be a forfeiture clause in the lease. 3) The landlord must not have waived the right to forfeit. 4) The landlord must serve a LPA 1925, s 146 Notice. 5) The landlord can then forfeit the lease by peaceable re-entry or court order. 6) The tenant, and any sub-tenant, can apply for relief from forfeiture.

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127
Q

What are the available remedies for a landlord in the event of a breach of a rent covenant?

A

In the event of a breach of a rent covenant, a landlord has the following remedies available: action for debt and forfeiture. Action for debt involves suing the tenant on their covenant to pay rent, while forfeiture allows the landlord to bring the lease to a premature end.

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128
Q

What happens if the breach is incapable of remedy or not remedied within a reasonable time?

A

If the breach is incapable of remedy or not remedied within a reasonable time, the landlord can proceed to forfeit the lease by physical re-entry (in the case of commercial premises only) or by court order.

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129
Q

What factors does the court consider when granting relief from forfeiture?

A

When granting relief from forfeiture, the court considers factors such as the wilfulness and blatancy of the breach, the gravity of the breach, the landlord’s motives for wanting forfeiture, the damage to the premises, and whether the breach can be remedied. Relief is usually given on the condition that the breach is remedied and the tenant undertakes not to breach the covenant again.

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130
Q

What is the purpose of the Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938?

A

The Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938 provides additional protection for tenants in case of a breach of a repair covenant. It limits the landlord’s ability to enforce a repairing obligation and requires the landlord to inform the tenant of their right to serve a counter notice.

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131
Q

What is the purpose of a break clause in a lease?

A

A break clause is a provision in a lease that allows either party to serve notice during its currency to bring the lease to a premature end. It provides flexibility for both the landlord and the tenant to terminate the lease before the fixed term expires.

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132
Q

What is the process for applying for relief from forfeiture?

A

Under LPA 1925, s 146(2), the tenant may apply to the court for relief. The court may grant or refuse relief based on all the circumstances. The tenant applies for relief under LPA 1925, s 146(2) in cases of breach of covenants other than rent. The tenant must apply for relief before a court order is made. If the landlord has exercised its right by peaceable re-entry, relief can still be given under s 146(2) if the tenant applies within a reasonable time.

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133
Q

What is the purpose of a deed of surrender?

A

A deed of surrender is often entered into to document the agreement between the landlord and the tenant when a lease is surrendered. It formalizes the handing back of the lease by the tenant to the landlord, resulting in the premature termination of the lease.

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134
Q

What are the remedies available to a tenant if the landlord is in breach of covenant?

A

If the landlord is in breach of a covenant, the tenant has several remedies available, including specific performance or injunction, damages, and self-help. Specific performance or injunction may be sought if the landlord is in breach of repair or maintenance obligations. Damages can be claimed, and self-help can be exercised in the case of repair obligations.

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135
Q

What remedies does the landlord have for breach of a rent covenant?

A

If the tenant is in breach of a rent covenant, the landlord can sue the tenant for the debt or use the Commercial Rent Arrears Recovery (CRAR) process. CRAR allows the landlord to serve notice and take control of the tenant’s goods at the premises to recover the arrears.

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136
Q

How does the purchase of the freehold reversion affect a lease agreement?

A

If the tenant purchases the freehold reversion and becomes both the landlord and tenant at the time, this will end the lease by merger. The lease merges into the freehold title and is extinguished.

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137
Q

Why would a tenant choose to exercise a break clause in a lease agreement?

A

A tenant might choose to exercise a break clause in a lease agreement to have the option to terminate the lease on a fixed date or on a rolling basis. This provides flexibility and allows the tenant to end the lease if needed.

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138
Q

How does surrender affect the obligations of the parties in a lease agreement?

A

When surrender occurs in a lease agreement, the parties agree to end the lease before the end of the term. This releases both parties from their obligations under the lease.

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139
Q

A tenant fails to carry out repairs to the property in accordance with their repairing covenant. Which remedy should the landlord be advised to pursue?

Damages

Distress

Inhibitory injunction

Specific performance

A

Damages

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140
Q

What is the definition of commercial rent arrears recovery?

A

Seven days’ notice served on a commercial tenant that the landlord is going to seize goods from the leasehold property because of a failure to pay rent.

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141
Q

Which of the following would not be an appropriate remedy for a landlord to pursue in respect of a tenant’s failure to pay the rent due under the lease?

Forfeiture

Specific performance

Commercial rent arrears recovery

Action for debt

A

Specific performance

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142
Q

What is a break clause?

A

When either a landlord or a tenant is allowed by the lease to bring the lease to a premature end.

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143
Q

A tenant is in breach of its rent covenant and the landlord wishes to bring the lease to an end. Which method of terminating the lease would you advise the landlord to use?

Forfeiture.

Surrender.

Effluxion of time.

Notice to quit.

A

Forfeiture.

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144
Q

How much notice must either a landlord or a tenant serve to bring an annual periodic tenancy to an end?

A

Half a year’s notice.

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145
Q

A tenant pays rent monthly in advance under the terms of their lease. The tenant has failed to pay the rent for the last three months and the landlord now wishes to forfeit the lease. The landlord’s agent has sent a rent demand for the next month’s rent but is unaware of the breach of the rent covenant.

Which of the following statements is correct about whether the landlord has a right to forfeit?

The landlord may forfeit the lease as the landlord did not send out the rent demand; therefore there has been no waiver.

The landlord may not forfeit the lease as the agent (who acts for the landlord) has waived the right to forfeit. The landlord’s right to forfeit will arise in the subsequent month if no rent demand is sent out for that month’s rent payment.

The landlord may not forfeit the lease as the agent (who acts for the landlord) has permanently waived the right to forfeit as this is a non-continuing breach.

The landlord may forfeit the lease as the agent, who acts for the landlord, was unaware of the breach of covenant; therefore there has been no waiver.

A

The landlord may not forfeit the lease as the agent (who acts for the landlord) has waived the right to forfeit. The landlord’s right to forfeit will arise in the subsequent month if no rent demand is sent out for that month’s rent payment.

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146
Q

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of exercising the right to forfeit?

In the case of mixed use business and residential premises, a landlord may forfeit by either peaceable re-entry or by court order.

In the case of business premises, a landlord may forfeit by either peaceable re-entry or by court order.

The type of premises is irrelevant; a landlord may choose to forfeit by either peaceable re-entry or by court order.

In the case of residential premises, a landlord may forfeit by either peaceable re-entry or by court order.

A

In the case of business premises, a landlord may forfeit by either peaceable re-entry or by court order.

Correct. In the case of residential or mixed use premises however, a landlord may only forfeit by court order.

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147
Q

Which of the following breaches of covenant is classed as non-continuing?

Using the property to run a business instead of as a residence in breach of the user covenant.

Subletting the property without the landlord’s consent.

Failing to fix the roof of the property in breach of the repair covenant.

Using the property for an illegal use in breach of the covenant against immoral or illegal use.

Failing to insure the property in breach of the covenant to insure.

A

Subletting the property without the landlord’s consent.

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148
Q

A landlord forfeits a lease for non-payment of rent via a court order.

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of when relief may be granted?

The tenant will not be granted relief after the date of the court order even if all the arrears and costs are paid.

The tenant may be granted relief up to a year after the date of the court order.

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the court order if all the arrears and costs are paid even if the landlord has granted a new lease to a third party.

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the court order if all the arrears and costs are paid.

A

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the court order if all the arrears and costs are paid.

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149
Q

A landlord forfeits a lease by peaceable re-entry for non-payment of rent. Which of the following statements is correct?

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the peaceable re-entry if all the arrears and costs are paid.

The tenant will not be granted relief after the date of the peaceable re-entry even if all the arrears and costs are paid.

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the peaceable re-entry if the circumstances are exceptional.

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the peaceable re-entry if the application for relief is made within six months of the peaceable re-entry.

A

The tenant may be granted relief after the date of the peaceable re-entry if all the arrears and costs are paid.

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150
Q

A landlord wishes to forfeit a lease for non-payment of rent by the tenant. Which of the following statements is correct?

The landlord must make a formal demand for the rent due on the day when it becomes payable unless the lease waives this requirement.

The landlord must make a formal demand for the exact amount of rent due on any day after it becomes payable upon the premises between the hours of sunrise and sunset.

The landlord must serve a s 146 statutory notice on the tenant.

The landlord can immediately forfeit the lease by court order or peaceable re-entry

A

The landlord must make a formal demand for the rent due on the day when it becomes payable unless the lease waives this requirement.

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151
Q

Which of the following covenants is unlikely to be capable of remedy?

Subletting in breach of covenant.

Failure to insure the premises.

Change of use in breach of covenant.

Failure to decorate the premises.

Unauthorised alterations to the premises.

A

Subletting in breach of covenant.

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152
Q

In which of the following scenarios is a s 146 notice required to be served on the tenant by the landlord?

Where there has been a breach of any covenant other then the covenant to pay rent

Where there has been a breach of the covenant to pay rent

Where the breach is capable of remedy by the tenant

Where there has been a breach of the covenant to repair

A

Where there has been a breach of any covenant other then the covenant to pay rent

This is correct. Whenever there has been a breach of a covenant other than the covenant to pay rent, the landlord must serve a s 146 notice on the tenant if it wishes to forfeit the lease. This applies regardless of whether the breach is capable of remedy or not. Note, there is additional protection if the breach is of a repair covenant. The landlord (in addition to serving the s 146 notice) must also inform the tenant of its rights (under the Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938) to serve a counter notice within 28 days. If the tenant serves a counter notice, the landlord cannot proceed to claim forfeiture or damages without first obtaining the lease of the court.

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153
Q

What is an easement?

A

An easement is a proprietary right to use and enjoy land that belongs to someone else. It can involve rights of way, drainage, storage, and parking on neighboring land.

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154
Q

What is an implied legal easement?

A

An implied legal easement is an easement that is implied into a transfer deed or a legal lease. It takes its status from the status of the document it is implied into. All easements implied by the LPA 1925, s 62 are implied legal easements.

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155
Q

What are express easements and how are they created?

A

Express easements are created either by way of grant or reservation through an explicit legal process. To be an express legal easement, the right must be granted or reserved forever or for a set period of time. It must also be created by a deed and substantively registered.

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156
Q

What are some questions to ask when determining if a right is an easement?

A

Some useful questions to ask are: Does the right benefit any owner of the land? Does it cease to be of use once the dominant owner has parted with the land? Does the right make the dominant land a better or more convenient property? Does the right add value or amenity to the dominant land? Problems arise when the right appears to benefit a business as well as the land.

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157
Q

What is the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows?

A

The rule in Wheeldon v Burrows is a method of implied acquisition where an easement has not been acquired expressly. It implies the grant of an easement (where one has not been expressly granted) but not the reservation of an easement. The requirements for the rule to apply include the right being claimed being continuous and apparent, necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant land, and in use by the common owner at the date of the transfer or lease.

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158
Q

What are the different parties involved in an easement?

A

In an easement, the person who receives the benefit is the grantee, and their land is the dominant tenement. The person who grants the easement is the grantor, and their land is the servient tenement.

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159
Q

How does the duration of an implied legal easement differ when it is implied into a lease versus a transfer deed?

A

If an implied legal easement is implied into a lease, it will come to an end when the lease comes to an end. However, if it is implied into a transfer deed, then the easement will last along with the freehold.

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160
Q

What are the different types of implied easements?

A

There are two types of implied easements: implied legal easements and implied equitable easements. Implied legal easements are implied into transfer deeds or legal leases, while implied equitable easements are implied into contracts or equitable leases.

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161
Q

What happens if a purported legal easement fails to meet the requirements for an express easement?

A

If a purported legal easement fails to meet the requirements for an express easement, it may still be recognized as an equitable easement if it complies with the necessary criteria outlined in LP(MP)A 1989, s 2. Otherwise, it can only be an equitable easement if it does not meet the definition of a legal easement in LPA 1925, s 1(2)(a).

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162
Q

How are easements created?

A

Easements can be created by express agreement in a document that complies with relevant statutory formalities. They can also be created impliedly without writing, or by prescription where there is uninterrupted user for at least 20 years without force, secrecy, or permission.

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163
Q

What is the difference between an implied legal easement and an implied equitable easement in terms of enforceability?

A

Implied legal easements are binding in registered land as overriding interests and in unregistered land because legal interests bind the world. On the other hand, implied equitable easements must be protected to be enforceable, either by notice in registered land or by a Class D(iii) Land Charge in unregistered land.

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164
Q

What are the formalities for creating express legal easements?

A

To be an express legal easement, the right must be granted or reserved forever or for a set period of time: LPA 1925, s 1(2)(a)

It must be created by a deed: LPA 1925, s 52 and LP(MP)A 1989, s .1 To be a deed, a document must comply with the formalities in LP(MP)A 1989, s 1:
 Must be clear it is intended to be a deed
 Signed by grantor and witnessed
 Delivered /dated

It must be substantively registered: LRA 2002, s 27(2)(d).

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165
Q

What is the purpose of the LPA 1925, s 62?

A

The purpose of the LPA 1925, s 62 is to imply the grant of an easement when it has not been acquired expressly. It can be used to imply an easement in situations where there has been prior diversity of occupation, or in situations where the right being claimed is continuous and apparent.

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166
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative easements?

A

Positive easements generally enable the holder to enter or use the servient land, while negative easements do not involve entering or using the servient land. Negative easements are rare and are treated with caution by the courts.

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167
Q

How can a dominant owner enforce an easement?

A

To enforce an easement, the dominant owner must have the benefit of the easement and the ability to sue. As between the original parties, a properly created easement is always enforceable by the dominant owner against the servient owner. If the dominant land changes hands, the benefit, which is part of the land, passes with the transfer of the land, enabling the dominant owner to enforce it.

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168
Q

Can an easement be implied by necessity? Provide an example.

A

Yes, an easement can be implied by necessity in cases where the dominant land is landlocked and cannot be accessed without a right of way. For example, if A sells part of their land to B and there is no alternative access route, an easement of necessity may be implied to allow B to access their land.

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169
Q

How do easements differ from other rights, such as licenses and restrictive covenants?

A

Easements confer proprietary rights in land, while licenses confer personal rights that cannot be enforced against a third party. Restrictive covenants primarily restrict what can be done on the servient land, unlike easements that confer a right over the servient land.

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170
Q

What is the requirement for the dominant and servient land to be sufficiently proximate to each other?

A

The dominant and servient land must be sufficiently proximate to each other. Normally, they will be adjoining, but this is not always the case. In Pugh v Savage [1970] 2 QB 373, there was a right of way over one field to get to another, even though the dominant and servient tenements weren’t adjoining. They were close enough for the dominant land to derive a benefit from the right.

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171
Q

What are the requirements to be an easement?

A

o There must be a dominant and servient tenement
o The right must accommodate the dominant tenement. If a right benefits a business, it will benefit the land if the business is connected to the use of the land.
o There must be no common ownership
o The right must lie in grant

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172
Q

What are the requirements for the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows to apply?

A

The requirements for the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows to apply include the right being claimed being continuous and apparent, necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant land, and in use by the common owner at the date of the transfer or lease. The rule can only operate on a sale or lease of part when there was a common owner and occupier of the whole immediately prior to the transfer or lease.

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173
Q

What the requirements for an easement to be equitable?

A

 Must be made in writing
 Must include all expressly agreed terms
 Must be signed by both parties

o Easements which do not fall within the definition of legal easements in LPA 1925, s 1(2)(a) because they are not granted or reserved for a freehold or leasehold term can only be equitable. These can be described as ‘inherently equitable’ easements.
o This type of equitable easement is much less formally created. The minimum formalities are set out in LPA 1925, s 53(1)(a):
 Must be made in writing
 Must be signed by the grantor

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174
Q

What is the significance of grants and reservations in relation to easements?

A

A grant exists when a landowner sells or leases part of their land to someone else and gives them an easement over the land that has been retained. A reservation exists when a landowner sells or leases part of their land and retains a right over the land sold or leased. Reservations are strictly construed against the person reserving them.

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175
Q

What is the upgrade effect of the LPA 1925, s 62?

A

The upgrade effect of the LPA 1925, s 62 refers to the interpretation that allows the statute to imply a brand-new easement into a document. It operates to upgrade informal rights into full legal easements. This effect has been applied in cases such as Wright v Macadam and P&S Platt v Crouch.

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176
Q

How are easements distinguished from quasi-easements and public rights?

A

Quasi-easements refer to situations where landowners use paths on their own land and are not enjoying easements. Public rights, like rights of way, can be similar in scope to easements but are exercised by the general public rather than an individual or particular body.

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177
Q

What are the requirements for a right to be considered an easement in terms of grant and description?

A

The right must lie in grant, meaning it must be capable of forming the subject-matter of a deed. The right must also be capable of reasonably exact description, where the nature and extent of the right are clear enough for the court to know exactly what is to be enforced. Additionally, the right must be judicially recognized and within the general nature of rights traditionally recognized as easements.

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178
Q

What is the process of implying an easement by common intention?

A

An easement may be implied by common intention when land is sold or leased for a specific purpose, and the easement is essential to achieve that purpose. The specific purpose must be known to both parties, and there must be a mutual intention for the property to be used in a definite and particular manner.

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179
Q

What are the requirements for an implied legal easement to be enforceable against a new servient owner in registered land?

A

In registered land, an implied legal easement will be an overriding interest if it meets certain conditions. These conditions include the easement being within the actual knowledge of the new owner, being obvious on a reasonably careful inspection of the servient land, or having been exercised within a year before the transfer of the servient land.

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180
Q

What is the difference between an easement and a profit a prendre?

A

An easement does not confer the right to take anything from the land, while a profit a prendre does. A profit a prendre grants the right to take produce, animals, fish, or minerals from the land.

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181
Q

What are the requirements for the upgrade effect of the LPA 1925, s 62 to apply?

A

The requirements for the upgrade effect of the LPA 1925, s 62 to apply include prior diversity of occupation of the dominant and servient land, an informal permission or license granted to the occupier of the dominant tenement to use the servient land, and a conveyance (transfer by deed or legal lease) of the dominant tenement.

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182
Q

What is the burden of proof when relying on an implied easement by common intention?

A

When relying on an implied easement by common intention, the burden of proof is heavy. The seller or landlord must show that the specific easement was mutually intended, and it is not enough to show that the right was openly exercised prior to the first transaction.

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183
Q

What are some examples of rights that have been judicially recognized as easements?

A

Some examples of rights that have been judicially recognized as easements include the right of way, the right of drainage and other rights through pipelines, the right of support, the right to use sporting and leisure facilities, and the right to use land for recreational purposes. Even if a right has not previously been recognized as an easement, it can still be capable of being one as the list of easements is not exhaustive.

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184
Q

What is the difference between implied legal easements and implied equitable easements?

A

Implied legal easements are implied into transfer deeds or legal leases, while implied equitable easements are implied into contracts or equitable leases. The status of an implied legal easement takes its status from the document it is implied into, while an implied equitable easement will come to an end when the lease comes to an end if it is implied into a lease, or it will last along with the freehold if it is implied into a transfer deed.

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185
Q

How can an easement be created impliedly?

A

An easement may be deemed to have been created impliedly by one of several recognized methods. For example, an easement can be implied into a document or created by prescription through uninterrupted use for at least 20 years.

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186
Q

What is the status of an easement implied by common intention?

A

An easement implied by common intention can be either legal or equitable, depending on the status of the document it is implied into. If it is implied into a transfer deed or a legal lease, it is considered a legal easement. If it is implied into a contract, it is an equitable easement.

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187
Q

What disqualifying factors can prevent a right from being considered an easement?

A

If any one of the following factors is present, the right cannot be an easement and can only be a personal license: if the use amounts to exclusive possession, if the use is exercised with permission, if the use requires additional payment by the servient landowner, or if the servient owner is left with no reasonable use or possession and control of the servient land.

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188
Q

What is the significance of prior diversity of occupation in the application of the LPA 1925, s 62?

A

Prior diversity of occupation is a requirement for the application of the LPA 1925, s 62 in situations where land has been divided. It is not necessary when the right being claimed is continuous and apparent. The recent cases of P&S Platt v Crouch and Wood v Waddington have held that prior diversity of occupation is not necessary when the right is continuous and apparent.

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189
Q

What happens if a right requires the servient tenement owner to spend extra money?

A

If the exercise of a right by the dominant owner requires the servient tenement owner to spend extra money, the right is disqualified from being an easement as a positive obligation is inconsistent with the concept of an easement. Additionally, the servient tenement owner is not obliged to carry out repairs or maintenance to enable the dominant owner to enjoy an easement. Instead, the dominant owner must allow the servient owner onto the servient land to carry out any repairs at the dominant owner’s expense.

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190
Q

What is the requirement for the dominant owner to exercise the right as of right?

A

Express permission will almost inevitably be given when a right is first used. However, after the initial grant, the dominant owner must exercise the benefit as of right. Enjoying the benefit as of right is the essence of an easement. If the dominant owner asks for permission every time the right is exercised, it cannot be an easement.

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191
Q

What is the purpose of excluding the operation of the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows and the LPA 1925, s 62 in property deals?

A

The operation of the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows and the LPA 1925, s 62 is commonly excluded from property deals to avoid any unintended consequences. This is because these rules can lead to the creation of easements without the parties involved having given due regard to them.

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192
Q

What is an example of a case where a right was not considered an easement due to the lack of enjoyment as of right?

A

In Green v Ashco Horticultural Ltd [1966] 1 WLR 889, the claimant claimed a right to park a van on the defendant’s land. However, the defendant was only exercising the right to park insofar as the servient owner permitted. By moving the van on request, the defendant was acknowledging that they did not park on the land as of right but by permission.

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193
Q

What is the significance of continuous and apparent rights in the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows?

A

In the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows, the right being claimed must be continuous and apparent. To be continuous, the right need not have been enjoyed constantly or incessantly, but there must be some degree of permanence. To be apparent, there must be some clue as to the existence of the right from a careful inspection of the land. The right must also be necessary for the reasonable use of the land.

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194
Q

What are the remedies available for the enforcement of an easement?

A

The remedies available for the enforcement of an easement include a prohibitory injunction to prevent interference with the enjoyment of the easement, damages in lieu of or in addition to an injunction, and a mandatory injunction to remove obstruction.

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195
Q

What is the difference between a grant and a reservation in relation to easements?

A

A grant exists when a landowner sells or leases part of their land and gives an easement over the land that has been retained. A reservation exists when a landowner sells or leases part of their land and retains a right over the land sold or leased. Reservations are strictly construed against the person reserving them.

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196
Q

What are the requirements for a right to be considered an easement in terms of additional expenditure and permission?

A

A right is disqualified from being an easement if the exercise of the right requires the servient tenement owner to spend extra money or if the dominant owner asks for permission every time the right is exercised. Additionally, the servient owner is not obliged to carry out repairs or maintenance to enable the dominant owner to enjoy an easement.

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197
Q

What is the effect of the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows on the sale or lease of part of a property?

A

The rule in Wheeldon v Burrows can only operate on a sale or lease of part when there was a common owner and occupier of the whole immediately prior to the transfer or lease. As soon as there is a division of ownership and occupation of the land, any quasi-easements that existed at the time of the division can become full easements benefiting the land which has now become the dominant tenement, provided the requirements under this rule are met.

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197
Q

What is the difference between implied acquisition and implied reservation of an easement?

A

Implied acquisition refers to the situation where an easement has been impliedly acquired, while implied reservation refers to the situation where an easement has been impliedly reserved. The rule in Wheeldon v Burrows implies the grant of an easement but not the reservation of an easement.

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198
Q

What are the different modes of implied acquisition in relation to easements?

A

The different modes of implied acquisition in relation to easements include necessity and common intention. In a grant situation, all modes of implied acquisition can be used. In a reservation situation, only necessity and common intention are available as implied modes of acquisition.

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199
Q

What are the requirements for an easement to be acquired, either expressly or impliedly?

A

An easement can be acquired expressly by complying with the necessary formalities, such as being in writing and signed by the grantor. It can also be acquired impliedly based on the circumstances. In both cases, the easement must comply with the definition on duration and be within the general nature of rights traditionally recognized as easements.

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200
Q

Under what circumstances can an easement be impliedly granted or reserved by necessity?

A

An easement can be impliedly granted or reserved by necessity when the land is otherwise incapable of use. This typically applies to situations where the land is landlocked and would be inaccessible without the easement.

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201
Q

What is the significance of Wheeldon v Burrows in relation to implied grant of easements?

A

Wheeldon v Burrows established that an easement can be impliedly granted when the land is divided for the first time, either by transfer or lease. The newly transferred or leased land becomes the dominant land, and certain conditions must be met for the implied grant to apply

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202
Q

What are the two situations in which s62 easement can be implied?

A

o The LPA 1925, s 62 can be used to imply an easement in two situations:
 a **Wright v Macadam **situation where the land has been divided before the informal permission is given, and the permission becomes an easement when the leased land is re-let or sold; or
 a **P&S Platt v Crouch **situation where the land is divided for the very first time by lease or sale of part, if the right is continuous and apparent.

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203
Q

Can s62 be implied in equitable easements?

A

No, can only be implied in deeds

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204
Q

What are the requirements for s62 implied easement?

A

 Only applies where the right being claimed would have been a grant to the claimant.
 There must have been prior diversity of occupation of the dominant and servient land
 An informal permission or licence must have been granted to the occupier of the dominant tenement to use the servient land in some way. Must have been continuous and apparent/
 There must have been a conveyance (i.e. a transfer by deed or a legal lease) of the dominant tenement.

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205
Q

Wheeldon v Burrows requirements?

A

A
there is a right that was exercised by the servient landowner (so the seller or landlord) at the time of the sale / lease;
the right enhances the land in some way;
the right has been used reasonably regularly; and
the right would be discoverable on a reasonably careful inspection of the land.

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206
Q

What is a reservation?

A

The land owner creates an easement in favour of their own land when selling to a buyer

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207
Q

What are the requirements for a valid land contract?

A

A valid land contract must comply with LP(MP)A, s 2. It must be in writing, signed by both parties, and contain all the agreed terms.

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208
Q

What is the difference between proprietary rights and personal rights in land?

A

Proprietary rights in land are enforceable against third parties and are capable of being enforced in rem. Personal rights, on the other hand, are only enforceable against the person who granted the right and are enforceable in personam.

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209
Q

What are the triggering events that require compulsory land registration?

A

The triggering events for compulsory land registration include the transfer of the freehold estate by sale, gift, or court order; grant of a lease for more than seven years; assignment of a lease with more than seven years remaining; assent or vesting deed of the freehold or leasehold with more than seven years remaining; grant of a lease to take effect in possession more than three months after the date of the grant; and first legal mortgage of the freehold or leasehold with more than seven years remaining

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210
Q

Can a land contract be varied? What are the requirements for a valid variation?

A

A land contract can be varied, but any variation must comply with LP(MP)A 1989, s 2. The case of McCausland v Duncan Lawrie Ltd [1997] 1 WLR 38 considered this issue and held that a material term in a land contract must also comply with LP(MP)A 1989, s 2 to be valid.

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211
Q

What are the two recognized legal estates in land?

A

The two recognized legal estates in land are the freehold estate and the leasehold estate. The freehold estate is equivalent to absolute ownership of land and lasts indefinitely, while the leasehold estate lasts for a certain duration and is granted out of the freehold estate.

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212
Q

What are the requirements for a valid deed in a property sale?

A

A valid deed must comply with LP(MP)A 1989, s 1. It must be clear on the face of the document that it is intended to be a deed, be validly executed, and be delivered. A standard form of transfer deed, such as a TR1, is commonly used.

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213
Q

What is first registration in land law?

A

First registration refers to the requirement to register unregistered land when it is sold for the first time since December 1, 1990. It triggers the need to create a registered title for the land.

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214
Q

What is commonhold and how does it differ from a long lease?

A

Commonhold is a type of freehold that was introduced by the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002. It is created out of a freehold registered estate and is designed to meet the needs of owners of flats or apartments. Unlike a long lease, commonhold is not a declining asset and does not have an overall landlord. Instead, there is a commonhold association responsible for maintaining communal areas.

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215
Q

What is the significance of the case Walsh v Lonsdale (1882) 21 Ch D 9 in relation to land contracts?

A

In the case of Walsh v Lonsdale, a land contract was given proprietary status based on the equitable maxim that ‘equity regards as done that which ought to be done’. This case established that a contract to create or transfer a legal property right will create a proprietary right in equity if the remedy of specific performance is available.

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216
Q

What are incorporeal hereditaments?

A

Incorporeal hereditaments are the benefit of any proprietary rights that the land has but which have no physical substance. For example, an easement to park on a neighboring land is an incorporeal hereditament.

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217
Q

What is the purpose of the Law Society Fixtures and contents form (Form TA10)?

A

The purpose of the Law Society Fixtures and contents form (Form TA10) is to avoid a dispute about whether an item is a fixture or chattel. It allows the buyer and seller to agree on which items are to pass on the sale.

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218
Q

What are the restrictions on a landowner’s rights in the airspace above their land?

A

An owner’s rights in the airspace above their land are restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of the land and its structures. Anything that overhangs a neighbor’s land without permission is likely to be considered a trespass.

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219
Q

What is the purpose of distinguishing between fixtures and chattels in a sale?

A

Distinguishing between fixtures and chattels in a sale is important to determine which items are included in the sale. This helps avoid disputes and ensures clarity for both the buyer and seller.

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220
Q

What is the distinction between the upper and lower airspace?

A

The law distinguishes between the upper airspace and the lower airspace. The upper airspace has no exact height and is the portion necessary for the landowner’s ordinary use and enjoyment. The lower airspace is to such height as is necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the particular piece of land.

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221
Q

When does a structure overhanging someone’s property become a trespass?

A

If a structure overhangs someone’s property in the lower airspace, it is considered a trespass irrespective of whether damage is caused to the property.

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222
Q

What is the legal principle regarding ownership of the ground beneath the surface of the earth?

A

The general principle is that a conveyance of land carries with it all that is beneath the surface. However, there are exceptions to this principle, such as certain minerals that belong to the Crown.

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223
Q

What information is included in the Proprietorship Register in land registration?

A

The Proprietorship Register contains details of the owner of the legal estate and the class of title, such as title absolute or possessory title. It also includes any restrictions on the owner’s ability to deal with the land, such as a mortgage restriction preventing a sale without the lender’s consent.

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224
Q

What information is included in the Charges Register in land registration?

A

The Charges Register contains the details of any burdens on the land, such as restrictive covenants, positive covenants, easements, and mortgages over the land. It also includes the details of any leases granted out of the title.

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225
Q

What is the legal test for determining if an object is a fixture or a chattel?

A

The legal test has two parts: the degree of annexation test and the purpose of annexation test. The degree of annexation test considers how firmly the object is fixed to the land, while the purpose of annexation test considers why the object is attached to the land.

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226
Q

What are overriding interests and how do they affect land registration?

A

Overriding interests are interests that do not appear on the title but will still be binding on a new landowner. An example of an overriding interest is a legal lease that is granted for a term of 7 years or less. Only interests that have been correctly entered on the register will be enforceable against a purchaser, except for those deemed by the LRA 2002 to be ‘overriding’.

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227
Q

What are the different classes of title in land registration?

A

The different classes of title in land registration are Absolute Title, Qualified Title, Good Leasehold Title, and Possessory Title. Absolute Title is the best form of ownership and is most common. Qualified Title may be given if there is a defect in the title. Good Leasehold Title is granted when the Land Registry is satisfied with the leaseholder’s title. Possessory Title is given when there are no title deeds to prove ownership.

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228
Q

What is the purpose of keeping the register updated in land registration?

A

Keeping the register updated ensures that it is an accurate reflection of a piece of land at any one time. Failure to register certain transactions means that the transaction is not legally recognized, and the buyer is not recognized as the new legal owner until registration has taken place.

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229
Q

Requirements for a deed?

A

The requirements for a deed are set out in s 1 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989 (LPMPA 1989) which are that it must be:
* in writing;
* clear on its face that it is a deed;
* signed;
* witnessed (by one witness); and
* delivered.

230
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the significance of actual occupation in determining overriding interests?

A

Actual occupation is significant in determining overriding interests because if a person is in actual occupation of the land, their equitable interest may override a disposition. The court held that B was in actual occupation based on the fact that her belongings remained, her absence was involuntary, and her regular visits demonstrated a continuing intention to return.

231
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What are the three categories of interest/estate under the LRA 2002 that interact with sections 28 and 29?

A

The three categories of interest/estate under the LRA 2002 that interact with sections 28 and 29 are: 1) Registrable disposition, 2) Interests that must be protected by the entry of either a notice or a restriction, and 3) Overriding interests.

232
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What are the exceptions to actual occupation as an overriding interest?

A

There are two exceptions to actual occupation as an overriding interest. The first exception is when the holder of the interest fails to disclose it when asked before the disposition. The second exception is when the occupation would not have been obvious on a reasonably careful inspection of the land and the person to whom the disposition is made does not have actual knowledge of the interest at the time.

233
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

When might a restriction be entered in property law?

A

A restriction may be entered when the registered proprietor of the land is bankrupt. In such a situation, the trustee in bankruptcy may enter a restriction to ensure that no disposition of the land may be registered without the trustee’s consent.

234
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

How can beneficiaries be protected if their interests are not overreached and they are in actual occupation of the land?

A

If beneficiaries are not overreached and are in actual occupation of the land, they may have overriding interests under LRA Schedule 3 para 2. This means that their interests will still be binding on new owners of the land.

235
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What are the three categories under the Land Registration Act 2002?

A

The Land Registration Act 2002 places all estates and interests in land into one of three categories: Registrable dispositions, Interests protected by entry, and Overriding interests.

236
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the purpose of overreaching in property law?

A

Overreaching is a concept in property law that aims to strike a balance between protecting the buyer or lender from pre-existing trust interests and protecting the beneficiary’s position. It operates by detaching the beneficiary’s equitable interest from the land and transferring it into the money paid by the buyer or lender.

237
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the purpose of overreaching in relation to beneficial interests behind a trust?

A

Overreaching is a concept that moves the beneficiaries’ equitable interest from land into money. It ensures that a buyer or lender takes the land free of beneficial interests and protects the beneficiaries by giving them an interest in the money. Overreaching applies to both registered and unregistered land.

238
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

How are equitable interests in land protected under the LRA 2002?

A

Equitable interests in land must be protected by the entry of a notice in the Charges Register of the burdened land. If an interest is protected this way, it will bind subsequent purchasers. However, some interests, such as beneficial interests under trusts and short legal leases for a term of three years or less, cannot be protected by notice.

239
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

How does overreaching work in property law?

A

Overreaching works by ensuring that the capital money (purchase price or mortgage advance) is paid to at least two trustees. This payment detaches the beneficiary’s equitable interest from the land and transfers it into the money, allowing the buyer or lender to hold the property free from any interest held by the beneficiary.

240
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What are the requirements for an implied legal easement to be binding as an overriding interest?

A

For an implied legal easement to be binding as an overriding interest, it must meet one of the following requirements: (a) the new owner knew about it, (b) the new owner did not know about it, but it was obvious on a reasonable inspection of the land, or (c) it has been exercised within the 12 months immediately before the disposition.

241
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the basic rule of priority under the Land Registration Act 2002?

A

The basic rule of priority, as stated in the Land Registration Act 2002, is that an interest of any kind will take priority over later dispositions. For example, if a man has a registered freehold estate and grants an easement to one neighbor, then enters a covenant with another neighbor, and then sells the freehold to a woman, the woman will take the freehold subject to the pre-existing easement and covenant.

242
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What are overriding interests and why are they contentious?

A

Overriding interests are interests that will bind a purchaser for value, whether a buyer or lender, even though they have not been protected by registration. Their recognition has been contentious because they undermine the integrity of the register. However, they were retained in limited form in the Land Registration Act 2002.

243
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the difference between a notice and the doctrine of notice under the LRA 2002?

A

A notice, in the context of the LRA 2002, is intended to bring a relevant equitable interest to the attention of a purchaser. It notifies them that the interest will be binding if the purchaser proceeds. The doctrine of notice, on the other hand, is relevant only to unregistered land and is not to be confused with a notice under the LRA 2002.

244
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Why is it important for a purchaser to inspect and raise enquiries about overriding interests?

A

It is important for a purchaser to inspect and raise enquiries about overriding interests because these interests may bind the purchaser even though they do not appear on the registered title. By conducting inspections and raising enquiries, the purchaser can discover the existence of any overriding interests and make informed decisions.

245
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the exception to the basic rule of priority under the Land Registration Act 2002?

A

The exception to the basic rule of priority is provided by Section 29 of the Land Registration Act 2002. This exception applies when there is a disposition of a registered estate for valuable consideration. In such cases, the basic rule of priority does not apply, and an interest that is not properly protected will be postponed, meaning a new owner would not be bound by it.

246
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What happens to a beneficiary’s interest in land after overreaching?

A

After overreaching, a beneficiary’s interest in land is transferred into the money (purchase price or mortgage advance). For example, if a beneficiary has a 25% beneficial interest in land, after overreaching, they will have a 25% beneficial interest in the proceeds of sale. The trustees may distribute the money or reinvest it elsewhere, depending on the terms of the trust.

247
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Why do overriding interests still require inspections and enquiries beyond looking at the registers of title?

A

Overriding interests provide a safety net of protection for those who are not able to, have not, or cannot reasonably be expected to take steps to protect their interests in land. This means that inspections and enquiries beyond simply looking at the registers of title will still be needed.

248
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is a registrable disposition under the Land Registration Act 2002?

A

A registrable disposition is a transaction that must be completed by registration, such as the sale of land (transfer) or the grant of a legal mortgage. It must involve a registered estate (freehold or leasehold) and must be for valuable consideration, meaning for money.

249
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

When does overreaching not work in property law?

A

Overreaching does not work if the money is paid to only one trustee. In such cases, the beneficiary’s interest will not be overreached and will remain in the land. If the beneficiary is in actual occupation of the trust land, their interests will bind a purchaser as overriding interests.

250
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the purpose of a restriction in the Proprietorship register under the LRA 2002?

A

A restriction in the Proprietorship register is the appropriate way to protect an interest that is not intended to last indefinitely. It is used to protect interests that are not intended to last beyond a change of ownership.

251
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the purpose of a restriction on a registered title?

A

A restriction on a registered title serves as an instruction or alert to the purchaser. It restricts what the owner can do with the land and ensures certain actions, such as the discharge of a mortgage, occur before a sale.

252
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the impact of failing to properly register a legal mortgage under the LRA 2002?

A

ANSWER

The grant of a legal mortgage, also known as a legal charge, must be completed by registration. Failure to properly register the mortgage has a significant impact on the lender’s powers to repossess and sell the mortgaged land.

253
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What happens when a new owner of land is a donee?

A

When the new owner of land is a donee, meaning they have been gifted or have inherited the land, they will take the land subject to all pre-existing interests, irrespective of whether they have been protected by registration.

254
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the effect of overreaching on the buyer or lender in property law?

A

Overreaching operates to detach the beneficiary’s equitable interest from the land, allowing the buyer or lender to hold the property free from any interest held by the beneficiary. The buyer or lender still has an interest under a trust, but it is an interest in the money paid rather than in the land itself.

255
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the definition of actual occupation in relation to overriding interests?

A

Actual occupation refers to a person being physically present on the land and having a degree of permanence and continuity of presence. The intentions and wishes of the person, the length of absence from the property, and the reason for it are among the relevant factors considered. There is no single test for determining actual occupation.

256
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the significance of protecting equitable interests by entry of a notice or restriction under the LRA 2002?

A

Protecting equitable interests by entry of a notice or restriction ensures that these interests are enforceable against a new owner of the burdened registered land. It provides notice to subsequent purchasers and binds them to the protected interests.

257
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is a restrictive covenant and how is it protected?

A

A restrictive covenant is an equitable interest that restricts the use of land. It is protected by the entry of a notice under LRA 2002, Section 32. This ensures that the covenant is binding on a new owner of the land.

258
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the purpose of entering a restriction when the registered proprietor of the land is bankrupt?

A

Entering a restriction when the registered proprietor of the land is bankrupt ensures that no disposition of the land may be registered without the trustee in bankruptcy’s consent. This prevents any sale from taking place without the trustee’s knowledge and allows the trustee to ensure that the sale proceeds are paid directly to them.

259
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the difference between an implied equitable easement and an implied legal easement?

A

An implied equitable easement is only equitable in nature and would not be overriding. On the other hand, an implied legal easement will only be overriding if there is physical evidence of the right or if it has been exercised in the 12 months prior to completion of the sale.

260
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

To which of the follow scenarios would the basic rule of priority apply?

An interest has not been properly protected in accordance with the rule under the LRA 2002

A man gift their land to a woman

A man sells their land to a woman

A

A man gift their land to a woman

This is correct. The basic rule of priority applies whenever there is not ‘a disposition of a registered estate for valuable consideration’ which this is not. The woman is being gifted the land, she is a ‘donee’ and not a purchaser for valuable consideration. The basic rule of priority in s 28 of the LRA 2002 will therefore apply and the woman will take the land subject to all pre-existing interests.

261
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

A woman is the owner of a registered freehold estate (the ‘Land’). The woman grants to a man an interest in the Land. The man does not protect the interest in accordance with the relevant rule under the LRA 2002.

Two years ago, the woman gifted the Land to their friend.

A year later, the friend sold the Land to a buyer.

Last month, the buyer died. Their daughter inherited the Land.

Assuming the man never protects his interest. Who on the facts will be bound by the man’s interest during their period ownership of the Land?

All parties - the woman, the friend, the buyer and the buyer’s daughter

The woman and the friend only

The woman, the friend and the buyer’s daughter

The woman only

A

The woman and the friend only

This is correct. The woman granted the interest over the Land and is therefore bound by it (often under the ordinary rules of contract law). The enforcement rules are only relevant to subsequent owners of the Land. The friend is bound under the basic rule of priority as the friend is a donee.
The buyer and the buyer’s daughter will not be bound. The buyer is a purchaser for valuable consideration and therefore s 29 LRA 2002 will apply. Because the man has failed to protect the interest in accordance with the relevant registration rule, the buyer will not be bound by it. Although the buyer’s daughter is a donee, rather than a purchaser for valuable consideration, and the basic rule of priority will therefore apply, the man’s interest has been ‘lost’ when the Land was sold to the buyer. It will not resurrect itself.

262
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Which of the following options is a ‘registrable disposition’ to which s 29 will apply?

Transfer /grant of a legal estate / grant of a legal mortgage

Sale of a freehold estate only

Contract to transfer the freehold estate

Grant of a easement or restrictive covenant

A

Transfer /grant of a legal estate / grant of a legal mortgage

This is correct. A registrable disposition is a transaction which must be completed by registration I.e., the transactions that must be completed by registration under LRA 2002, s 27(2) but it really is most applicable on transfer of a legal estate or the grant of a legal mortgage or legal lease.

263
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

What is the term given to interests which MUST be registered in order to be legal interests in land?

A

Registrable dispositions

264
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Which one of the following is NOT a registrable disposition under the Land Registration Act 2002?

Grant of a landlord’s right of entry

Grant of a legal easement

Creation of mortgage or charge

Transfer of freehold

Creation of a restrictive covenant

A

Creation of a restrictive covenant

265
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Which one of the following equitable interests CANNOT be protected by entering a notice in the charges register?

Contract for the purchase of the freehold

Interest in a trust of land

Equitable easements

Restrictive covenants

Estate contracts

A

Interest in a trust of land

266
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Which of the following statements is the best explanation of restrictions?

A restriction imposes conditions which must be complied with before a disposition of land can be registered.

A restriction protects an interest in a trust of land by requiring the purchaser to overreach the interest.

A restriction makes the relevant interest binding as a new owner of the land.

A

A restriction imposes conditions which must be complied with before a disposition of land can be registered.

267
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

To whats system of land ownership does the doctrine of overreaching apply?

Registered land only

Both registered and unregistered land

Unregistered land only

A

Both registered and unregistered land

268
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

Which of the following statements correctly explains what happens if a beneficial interest behind a trust is not overreached?

The interest remains in the land, but will not necessarily be binding

The interest disappears and is lost forever

The interest will be binding on a new owner of the land

A

The interest remains in the land, but will not necessarily be binding

This is correct. If an interest is not overreached, it remains in the land. It is not automatically binding on a purchaser though, it will depend if the holder of the interest is in ‘actual occupation’.

269
Q

Registered Land: Enforcement of interests

A woman has the benefit of a right of way which is a legal easement over a man’s land implied under the rule in Wheeldon v Burrows. The woman uses the right of way on a monthly basis. The man has just sold the burdened land to a buyer. Can the woman enforce the easement against the buyer?

The woman cannot enforce it against the buyer as the woman is not in actual occupation of the burdened land

The woman can enforce it against the buyer as implied easements are automatically binding as overriding interests

The woman can enforce it against the buyer as it is an overriding interest

The woman cannot enforce it against the buyer as a legal easement is a registrable disposition and it has not been properly registered on the facts

A

The woman can enforce it against the buyer as it is an overriding interest

Correct. Schedule 3, para 3 states thatimplied legal easements can be overriding interests provided that they are obvious from a reasonable inspection of the burdened land (which this probably is) OR that they have been exercised within the 12 months immediately prior to the sale (which this definitely has been).
Express legal easements are registrable disposition under s 27 LRA 2002.

270
Q

What does it mean for someone to be equity’s darling?

A

If someone is equity’s darling, it means they will not be bound by the equitable interest, and this means the interest will be lost forever.

271
Q

What is the purpose of the doctrine of notice in relation to unregistered land?

A

The doctrine of notice now only applies to equitable easements and restrictive covenants created pre-1926 and interests in a trust of land that have not been overreached. It determines whether a purchaser has notice of an interest in the land.

272
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What happens if a land charge is not registered correctly?

A

Failure to register a land charge correctly means it will not be binding on a purchaser of the land. Actual knowledge is irrelevant, but it would still be binding on someone who is gifted or inherits the land.

273
Q

How are equitable interests protected in unregistered land?

A

Equitable interests created after 1926 over unregistered land need to be protected by way of a Land Charge, under the Land Charges Act 1972. This provides a means of ensuring the binding nature of these interests on purchasers.

274
Q

What are the two categories of people affected by the enforcement of interests over unregistered land?

A

The enforcement of interests over unregistered land affects both interest holders (those with a benefit in a piece of land) and new owners of a piece of land. Interest holders want to ensure their interests are binding on future owners, while new owners need to know what interests they will be bound by before purchasing the land.

275
Q

What is the doctrine of notice in relation to equitable interests in unregistered land

A

The doctrine of notice determines the enforceability of certain equitable interests in unregistered land. Before 1926, it applied to all equitable interests, but since then, it only applies to equitable easements and restrictive covenants created before 1926, as well as equitable interests in a trust of land that have not been overreached.

276
Q

What is an epitome of title and when is it used?

A

An epitome of title is a bundle of relevant copy documents that contain relevant details about the property. It is used to show the buyer the history of the land and is required during the process of deducing title.

277
Q

How are legal and equitable third-party rights enforced in unregistered land?

A

To ascertain if there are any third-party proprietary rights that could bind them as the new owner of unregistered land, purchasers need to identify whether any legal or equitable rights exist. Unlike registered land, there is no central register for these rights. Instead, a buyer must conduct extensive searches to determine what rights exist.

278
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Which equitable interests can be protected by entry into the Land Charges Act 1972?

A

Interests that can be protected by entry into the Land Charges Act 1972 include puisne mortgages, estate contracts, restrictive covenants created after 1926, equitable easements created after 1926, and a spouse’s matrimonial right of occupation. However, interests in a trust of land and equitable easements and restrictive covenants created pre-1926 cannot be protected by a Land Charge.

279
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What are the three types of notice under the doctrine of notice?

A

The three types of notice are actual notice, constructive notice, and imputed notice. Actual notice refers to the purchaser actually knowing of the equitable interest. Constructive notice occurs when the purchaser fails to pursue a line of enquiry that should have been made. Imputed notice is notice received by the buyer’s agent, which is imputed to the buyer.

280
Q

What is the rule regarding the enforceability of legal interests over unregistered land?

A

All legal interests, such as a legal lease, legal easement, or first legal mortgage, are binding on new owners of unregistered land. The enforceability of legal interests does not depend on whether the purchaser has knowledge of them.

281
Q

What is the consequence of non-entry of a Land Charge?

A

If a Land Charge is not registered before the completion of a purchase, it will be void against a purchaser of the land or any interest in the land. However, it will still be binding on someone who is gifted or inherits the land.

282
Q

What were the rules for enforcing legal and equitable rights before 1926?

A

Before 1926, legal rights were automatically binding on a successor in title to the land affected. Equitable rights, on the other hand, were only enforceable against a successor if their conscience had been affected, making it just for them to take the land subject to that interest. A bona fide purchaser for value of a legal estate without notice of a prior interest would take the land free from that interest.

283
Q

What obligations does a purchaser have to avoid constructive notice?

A

A purchaser must make proper investigations of the title deeds and inspect the land to avoid constructive notice. This includes checking for any evidence of rights of way and making enquiries of all occupiers of the land. Failing to pursue reasonable enquiries may result in being fixed with constructive notice.

284
Q

How are equitable interests over unregistered land enforced?

A

Equitable interests over unregistered land must be protected by registering them as a Land Charge. Failure to protect equitable interests by Land Charge means they will not be binding on a purchaser of the burdened land, even if the purchaser has knowledge of the interest. However, equitable interests in a trust of land cannot be registered as a Land Charge.

285
Q

What is the significance of the case Midland Bank Trust Co Ltd v Green [1981] AC 513?

A

In this case, it was established that the state of the purchaser’s knowledge is irrelevant when it comes to the entry of a Land Charge. The case involved an option to purchase unregistered land that was not protected by a Land Charge, and the court held that the option was not binding on the purchaser, who was the mother of the person with the option.

286
Q

What is the significance of the Land Charges Act (LCA) 1972 in protecting equitable interests in unregistered land?

A

The majority of equitable interests created post-1926 need to be protected as a Land Charge under the Land Charges Act (LCA) 1972. However, not all equitable interests can be protected under the LCA 1972. The doctrine of notice continues to apply for certain equitable easements and restrictive covenants created before 1926, as well as equitable interests in a trust of land that have not been overreached.

287
Q

Can an equitable interest be revived after becoming void for want of notice?

A

No, once an equitable interest becomes void for want of notice, it cannot be revived. It is then not binding on a subsequent buyer who has notice of the equitable right. This ensures that ‘Equity’s Darling’ can realize the full value paid for the land on a subsequent sale.

288
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Can an equitable interest be revived after becoming void for want of notice?

A

No, once an equitable interest becomes void for want of notice, it cannot be revived. It is then not binding on a subsequent buyer who has notice of the equitable right. This ensures that ‘Equity’s Darling’ can realize the full value paid for the land on a subsequent sale.

289
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What is the requirement for entry of a Land Charge?

A

The Land Charge is entered against the name of the landowner as it appears in the title deeds. If the Land Charge is entered against an incorrect name, the protection is considered null and void.

290
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What interests cannot be protected by a Land Charge?

A

Interests in a trust of land and equitable easements and restrictive covenants created pre-1926 cannot be protected by a Land Charge. However, a spouse’s matrimonial right of occupation, which is not an interest in the land, can be protected.

291
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What is the purpose of the Land Charges Register?

A

The Land Charges Register is a mini scheme of registration that applies to unregistered land only. It allows for the entry of Land Charges against the name of the landowner, providing notice to all persons for all purposes.

292
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

What equitable interests are subject to the doctrine of notice since 1926?

A

Since 1926, the doctrine of notice only applies to equitable easements and restrictive covenants created before 1926, as well as equitable interests in a trust of land that have not been overreached.

293
Q

What are the differences in enforcing legal and equitable rights in registered and unregistered land?

A

In registered land, legal rights automatically bind successors in title, while equitable rights need to be protected as a Land Charge. In unregistered land, legal rights still bind the whole world, but equitable rights require extensive searches and may need to be protected as a Land Charge depending on the circumstances.

294
Q

What is the effect of overreaching on equitable interests in unregistered land?

A

Overreaching is the process by which a beneficiary’s interest in unregistered land is detached and transferred to the monies paid. If overreaching occurs, the equitable interest is no longer binding on the land and becomes attached to the monies. However, if overreaching does not occur, the equitable interest remains in the land and its enforceability depends on the doctrine of notice.

295
Q

What is the purpose of a Land Charges search and what does it reveal?

A

A Land Charges search is conducted against the names of the unregistered landowners to determine if any land charges are registered against them. The search reveals the presence of land charges, such as a puisne mortgage, estate contract, restrictive covenant, or equitable easement. The registration of a Land Charge confirms the validity of the interest in the land and ensures it is binding on future owners.

296
Q

What is the significance of nominal consideration in relation to equitable interests over unregistered land?

A

Nominal consideration refers to a small or token amount paid for the transfer of an interest in unregistered land. Even if the consideration is nominal and the buyer has knowledge of the interest, an equitable interest that is not protected by Land Charge will not be binding on the purchaser of the burdened land. However, it will still be binding on a donee (someone who is gifted or inherits the land).

297
Q

On the sale of unregistered land, the seller must deduce title (proof ownership) by sending what to the buyer?

A

Epitome of title

298
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Which of the following category of rights may need protecting by way of a Land Charge?

Legal interests

Equitable interests created post-1926

Equitable interests created pre-1926

A

Equitable interests created post-1926

299
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Could a person who is gifted the land ever be ‘equity’s darling’?

A

No, because they are not a purchaser for value

300
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Which of the following category of rights are only subject to the doctrine of notice?

Equitable interests created post-1926

Equitable interests created pre-1926

Legal interests

A

Equitable interests created pre-1926

301
Q

Which of the following rights over unregistered land should be protected by a Land Charge?

Puisne mortgage

Restrictive covenant created in 1910

Equitable easement created in 1922

A beneficial interest in a trust a trust

Legal mortgage

A

Puisne mortgage (a second legal mortgage)

302
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

The entry of a Land Charge is protected against what?

A

The name of the land owner at the time the interest is created

303
Q

Which of the following rights over unregistered land would be subject to the doctrine of notice?

Restrictive covenant created in 1960

Interest in a trust of land that has not been overreached

Legal mortgage

Puisne mortgage

Equitable easement created in 1928

A

Interest in a trust of land that has not been overreached

304
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Which of the following options correctly describes Equity’s Darling?

A purchaser for value of an estate without notice

A bona fide purchaser of a legal estate with notice

A bona fide purchaser for value of a legal estate without notice

A purchaser for value of an estate with notice

A bona fide seller of a legal estate without notice

A

A bona fide purchaser for value of a legal estate without notice

305
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Which of the following options correctly describes constructive notice?

A buyer will be bound by those equitable interests its solicitor knows about

A buyer will be bound by all equitable interests its agent knows or ought to know about

A buyer will be bound by all legal interests as legal rights bind the world

A buyer will be bound by those equitable interests it ought reasonably to have known about

A buyer will be bound by those equitable interests it knows about

A

A buyer will be bound by those equitable interests it ought reasonably to have known about

306
Q

Enforcement over unregistered land

Once an interest is void against Equity’s Darling, will it be binding on a subsequent owner who has actual notice of the right?

No, it cannot be revived so as to bind a subsequent buyer

Yes, if the subsequent owner is not Equity’s Darling

Yes, if the land is then registered

No, it will not be binding because it should be entered as a Land Charge

A

No, it cannot be revived so as to bind a subsequent buyer

307
Q

Principles of unregistered title

Principles of unregistered title

What two interests will a buyer of an unregistered legal estate purchase it subject to?

A

Any legal interest over the estate, whether or not they were aware, and

Any equitable interest of which they have notice

308
Q

Principles of unregistered title

How are legal interests generally discovered?

A

Checking the deeds, or inspecting the property

309
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What does it mean when a seller deduces title to the buyer, and what is the traditional way of doing so ?

A

Seller proves that they own the land they are contracting to sell, by producing documents commencing with a good root of title demonstrating an unbroken chain of ownership for a minimum of 15 years

310
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What are the four requirements of a good root of title?

A

At least 15 years old
Deal with the whole legal and equitable interest in the property
Contain adequate description of the property
Do nothing to cast doubt on title

311
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is the epitome of title?

When does the seller send this?

A

A chronological list of all the documents, together with a copy of each

In the contract package

312
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is required for most equitable rights and interests to be enforceable against subsequent buyers?

A

Registration with Land Charges Department of HM Land Registry

313
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is an equitable interest land charge registered against, and who makes the application for it?

A

It is against the name of the estate owner at the time the land charge was created, not the address of the property

Applied for by the person who claims the right

314
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What are the two Class C equitable interest land charges relevant to the SQE?

A

A
C(i): Puisne mortgage, i.e. a legal mortgage not protected by deposit of title deeds, e.g. a second legal charge
C(iv): Estate contract, e.g. protects the interest of someone who has an option to purchase or has executed a contract to purchase but before completion
Second mortgage can’t be protected by title deeds as first lender has them

315
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What are the two Class D equitable interest land charges relevant to the SQE?

A

D(ii): Restrictive covenant
D(iii): Equitable easement

316
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What does a Class F equitable interest land charge protect?

A

A non-owning spouse’s statutory right of occupation in the matrimonial home

317
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is the relevance of registration of these land charges?

Does registration bind subsequent owners?

A

They constitute actual notice of the interest

Yes, because registration is actual notice of the interest to all persons

318
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is the consequence of an equitable land charge not being registered?

A

It is void against a purchaser for value

Unless the doctrine of notice applies and they have other actual, constructive, or imputed notice

319
Q

Principles of unregistered title

To what two things does the doctrine of notice apply, and under it, what four things must a buyer show to take free of any equitable interest?

A

Only applies to equitable interests pre-dating 1925 and beneficial interests under a trust.

To take free, the buyer must show they:
1. Were a BFP for V without N
2. Acquired a legal estate/interest, not just an equitable interest

320
Q

Principles of unregistered title

When will a person be deemed to have constructive notice?

A

When they would have discovered something with reasonable enquiry

321
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What is imputed notice?

A

Notice given to an agent of a buyer is deemed to be given to the buyer

Things an agent should have known can also be imputed to a principle, i.e. things the agent should have constructive notice of can be imputed to the principle.

322
Q

Because interests are either:

  1. Registered (and therefore binding on th

Principles of unregistered title

Why is notice irrelevant in the registered system?

A

Because interests are either:
1. Registered (and therefore binding on the buyer) or
2. Protected as overriding interests (which automatically bind the transferee irrespective of registration or notice)

Failing that neither legal nor equitable interests are binding and any other notice cannot save them

323
Q

Q
Principles of unregistered title

What does someone receiving unregistered property as a gift take the property subject to?

A

Any equitable interest, even if without notice

Paying value is the key defence mechanism in this situation

324
Q

Principles of unregistered title

What does it mean for an interest in unregistered land to override first registration, and what are four examples of interests which do this?

A

It means that it is sheltered from and superior to the first registration of the land

Lease for seven years or less
Legal easement
Local land charge
Interest of a person in full occupation

325
Q

Principles of unregistered title

How does an interest which overrides cease to be overriding?

A

If the buyer is aware of it, they must disclose it to HMLR, after which it is protected by an entry on the register

326
Q

Principles of unregistered title

Under the Limitation Act 1980, how long must the owner of an estate in unregistered land allow someone else to occupy it before the lose the right to recover the land?

A

12 years

10 years in the registered system

327
Q

Principles of unregistered title

In relation to unregistered land, what three things must an applicant for adverse possession show with regard to possession?

A

Actual
Exclusive
Without permission of the landowner
The point of adverse possession is that the applicant treat the land as theirs as of right, hence why the law should transfer it to them

328
Q

Principles of unregistered title

Where this 12 year period is met, does the legal owner lose the legal title?

A

No, but they hold the legal estate on trust for the squatter who can apply for registration

In the registered system, the squattor only has the opportunity to apply for registration, which if objected to, will usually cause the application to be rejected

329
Q

Registration of title

What are the four main triggering events?

A

Grant of first legal mortgage
Transfer, e.g. conveyance on sale, assent, deed of gift
Grant of lease exceeding seven years
Assignment of lease with more than seven years remaining
Requires registration within two months if occurring after 1 December 1990

330
Q

Registration of title

What two things happen if registration is not applied for within the two month window in the case of (1) a conveyance and (2) a lease or mortgage?

A

Transfer of legal estate is void, and legal estate reverts to the transferor
Lessor/mortgagor retains full legal title but holds as trustee of the lessee/mortgagee
Cost of remedying failure to register falls on the party in default

Two month window may be extended if good reason is provided to the Registr

331
Q

Registration of title

What is the impact of a failed legal registration becoming an equitable estate?

A

It will lose priority to other transactions which create interests in the estate before defect is cured

332
Q

Registration of title

What are the five classes of title?

A

A
Absolute freehold (legal estate plus all benefitting interests)
Qualified (specified interest is excepted from registration)
Possessory (based on factual possession; does not affect rights which pre-dated registration)
Good leasehold
Absolute leasehold (best as HMLR has inspected freehold and checked for superior leases)

333
Q

Registration of title

Absolute freehold title is the best kind of title. What are the only two interests absolute freehold title is subject to?

A

A
Interests on the register after registration, e.g. charges, notices, restrictions
Overriding interests at registration

334
Q

Registration of title

How can good leasehold and possessory title be upgraded, and what are they upgraded to?

A

Good leasehold becomes absolute leasehold if landlord’s freehold title is produced.

Possessory becomes absolute freehold if possessory title is not challenged for 12 years since it was granted.

335
Q

Registration of title

Other than freehold and leasehold estates in land, what three interests can be registered, and get their own title number and register

A

Rentcharges
Franchises
Profits a prendre in gross

336
Q

Registration of title

How can a party with an interest in unregistered land ensure that they are notified if an application for registration is made regarding their land?

A

Register a caution against first registration, and the caution gets its own title number and register

Owner of estate can apply to HMLR for caution to be cancelled on grounds that cautioner lacks the interest they claim

337
Q

Registration of title

What are four types of disposition which do not operate until registered?

Three are triggering events

A

Transfer of freehold estate (for value, by court order, by gift, or by PRs)
Grant of legal lease with more than seven years
Express grant or reservation of legal easement, legal profit, or legal rentcharge
First legal mortgage

338
Q

Registration of title

In the registered system, when does title pass?

A

When the disposition is registered at HMLR

Completion of the contract in unregistered system

339
Q

Registration of title

What are the three registers on the register of title, and what appears on each?

A

Property register (basic details; rights benefitting the land)
Proprietorship register (class of title; name of estate holder; restrictions on the land)
Charges register (rights of others burdening the land, e.g. mortgage or easement)

340
Q

Registration of title

What is a notice?

A

Entry on the charges register of burdened land in respect of an interest affecting the registered estate, or
Entry on the property register of benefitting land in respect of an interest benefitting the estate.

341
Q

Registration of title

What is a restriction?

A

An entry on the proprietorship register used to prevent any dealing with the land otherwise than in accordance with the terms of the restriction

E.g. in a tenancy in common: “No disposition by a sole proprietor…”

342
Q

Registration of title

What is an overriding interest in the registered system?

A

Interest which is binding on both the proprietor and a person who acquires an interest despite the fact that the interest does not appear on the affected register of title

343
Q

Registration of title

What are the three overriding interests in the registered system?

A

Legal leases for seven years or less
Legal easement or profit, not expressly created by deed
Interest of person in actual occupation, except spouse who must use an F land charge

344
Q

Registration of title

What is the main difference between interests which override in the unregistered system and overriding interests in the registered system?

A

Local land charge is an interest which overrides in the unregistered system but not an overriding interest in the registered system

345
Q

Registration of title

What is the requirement for the type of easement that can be overriding in the registered system, and what type of easement cannot be, and why?

A

It must be a legal easement and must not be an express easement, i.e. it must arise from implied grant/reservation or prescription.

An expressly created easement (i.e. created by deed) cannot be overriding.

Because an express easement must be registered in its own right to be effective, and when it is placed on the charges register of the burdened land, it becomes binding anyway.

346
Q

Registration of title

Other than not being an express easement, one of what two options must be satisfied for a legal easement to be overriding in the registered system?

A

Known to the buyer or obvious on reasonable inspection, or
Exercised within one year of the date of the disposition

347
Q

Registration of title

What must a person claiming the overriding interest have in addition to mere occupation?

A

A property right in the land, e.g. tenancy or right to remain

348
Q

Registration of title

What will make an interest cease to be overriding?

A

If upon disclosure to HMLR during applying for registration or a registrable disposition, the interest is capable of registration, it will cease to be overriding and will be protected by an entry on the register of title

349
Q

Registration of title

In the registered system, how is the process of adverse possession different?

A

A
Period is 10 years instead of 12
Squatter does not acquire any rights automatically
They merely receive a right to apply for registration of title at the end of the period
Landowner given opportunity to object, and if they do the application will usually fail
Other elements are the same: actual, exclusive possession, without landowner permission

350
Q

Registration of title

In what three situations may an application for adverse possession still be granted even though the landowner objects?

A

Unconscionable for the proprietor/landowner to seek to displace the applicant (i.e. on the facts, applicant should be regarded as the proprietor)
Applicant is for some other reason entitled to be proprietor
Reasonable mistake as to boundaries

351
Q

What are the two estates under the Law of Property Act 1925?

A

Freehold estate (uncertain duration)
Leasehold estate (fixed duration)

352
Q

Estates and interests in land

What are the five types of legal interest, and how must they be created?

A

Legal mortgage
Legal easement
Rentcharge
Right of entry
Profits a prendre
Must be created by deed.

353
Q

Estates and interests in land

In what four situations is a deed not needed to transfer property?

A

A
Assents by personal representatives
Disclaimers under the Insolvency Act 1986
Surrenders by operation of law
Leases, tenancies or other assurances not required by law to be in writing

354
Q

What is co-ownership and how does it arise?

A

Co-ownership arises when land is owned by more than one person. It can be either concurrent co-ownership, where two or more people together own the same estate in the same piece of land at the same time, or co-ownership through joint purchase, where individuals jointly purchase their own homes.

355
Q

What is the process of changing the form of co-ownership from a joint tenancy to a tenancy in common called?

A

The process of changing the form of co-ownership from a joint tenancy to a tenancy in common is called severance.

356
Q

What are the requirements for co-ownership of land?

A

The requirements for co-ownership of land include unity of interest, unity of title, and unity of time. Unity of interest means that the interest in land held by each co-owner must be of the same nature and duration. Unity of title means that all co-owners must acquire their title from the same document. Unity of time means that the interest of each co-owner must vest at the same time.

357
Q

How can a notice of severance be served to other equitable joint tenants?

A

A notice of severance can be served by handing it over personally or posting it. If posted, it will be deemed served if it has been left at the last known place of abode or business of the joint tenants. If sent by registered post and not returned undelivered, it will be deemed served at the time a registered item would in the ordinary course of events be delivered.

358
Q

What happens if a co-owner decides to change their form of co-ownership from a joint tenancy to a tenancy in common?

A

If a co-owner decides to change their form of co-ownership from a joint tenancy to a tenancy in common, it is known as severance. The co-owner who severs holds an undivided share in the equitable interest, while the remaining co-owners continue to hold the remaining interest as joint tenants.

359
Q

What is the practical significance of holding land as a joint tenant or as a tenant in common?

A

The practical significance of holding land as a joint tenant or as a tenant in common arises when one co-owner dies. Joint tenants are regarded as a single entity, and therefore when one joint tenant dies, survivorship applies and the interest of the deceased joint tenant accrues to the surviving joint tenants. On the other hand, survivorship does not apply to an interest held by a tenant in common, which will pass in accordance with the deceased’s will or under the intestacy rules if there is no will.

360
Q

What is the difference between legal title and equitable title in co-ownership?

A

In co-ownership, the legal title to the land is held by the trustees, who have powers and duties of management. The equitable title is held by the beneficiaries, who have a proprietary right (an equitable interest) in the land subject to the trust. The legal title is registered at the Land Registry, while the equitable title does not appear on the registers.

361
Q

What is the effect of severance on co-ownership?

A

Severance does not bring co-ownership to an end; it simply changes the basis on which the equitable co-owners continue to hold the equitable title. Before severance, three co-owners hold the equitable title as joint tenants. If one of them dies, the deceased joint tenant’s interest accrues to the remaining two co-owners. After severance, the right of survivorship does not apply to an interest that has been severed. If a co-owner has severed their interest in equity, the deceased tenant in common’s share passes under their will or by the intestacy rules if there is no will.

362
Q

What is the significance of the provision stating that a notice is deemed to have been served?

A

The provision stating that a notice is deemed to have been served means that the notice is considered served when it has been delivered. It does not require the notice to be received or read. This has been confirmed by case law.

363
Q

What are express trusts and how are they created in co-ownership?

A

Express trusts of land are created when a piece of land is transferred to one person to hold on trust for another. The person holding the legal title is the trustee, while the person holding the equitable interest is the beneficiary. Formalities, such as a written declaration of trust signed by the declarant(s), must be followed to create an express trust.

364
Q

What are the modes of severance for an equitable joint tenancy?

A

The modes of severance for an equitable joint tenancy are notice in writing and other acts or things. Notice in writing involves giving a notice to all other equitable joint tenants, demonstrating an unequivocal and irrevocable intention to sever the joint tenancy. Other acts or things refer to unilateral acts by a joint tenant, mutual agreement of the joint tenants, or mutual conduct that indicates the interests are treated as constituting a tenancy in common.

365
Q

What are the rules for holding the legal title in co-ownership of land?

A

The rules for holding the legal title in co-ownership of land are kept simple. There must be a maximum of four legal owners, who must be of full age and sound mind. The legal title holders must hold the property as joint tenants, meaning they must have unity of interest, unity of title, and unity of time. If land is transferred to more than four people, the first four named who are of full age and sound mind will be the legal title holders.

366
Q

What happens if only a few of the equitable joint tenants are served with a notice of severance?

A

If only a few of the equitable joint tenants (not all of them) are served with a notice of severance, the notice is completely ineffective. This was established in the case of Kinch v Bullard [1999] 1 WLR 423.

367
Q

What are implied trusts and how do they arise in co-ownership?

A

Implied trusts of land can arise informally, without any writing. They can be resulting trusts or constructive trusts. Resulting trusts may be implied when a property is bought in one person’s name but another person makes a financial contribution. Constructive trusts respond to unconscionability and are imposed when it would be unconscionable for the legal owner to deny the interest of another person.

368
Q

What is the effect of severance on the legal and equitable title of a joint tenancy?

A

Severance does not affect the legal title, which must be held by co-owners as a joint tenancy. However, severance affects the equitable title, allowing co-owners to choose to hold it as joint tenants or tenants in common.

369
Q

What is the purpose of severance in co-ownership?

A

Severance is the process of separating off the share of a joint tenant in co-ownership. It converts joint tenancy into tenancy in common, where the parties hold separate shares. The right of survivorship no longer applies.

370
Q

What is the difference between the legal title and the equitable title in co-ownership of land?

A

The legal title is the public face of co-ownership, where the trustees are named as registered proprietors on the proprietorship register at the Land Registry. The legal title holders deal with buyers and lenders. On the other hand, the equitable title is the private face of co-ownership, where the names of the equitable owners do not appear on the registers of title and the way the equitable interests are held is not disclosed.

371
Q

How can an equitable joint tenancy be severed by notice in writing?

A

An equitable joint tenancy can be severed by giving a notice in writing to all other equitable joint tenants. The notice does not need to be signed but must demonstrate an unequivocal and irrevocable intention to sever the joint tenancy immediately. It must also be served correctly, given to all other joint tenants, and can be handed over or left at their last known place of abode or business.

372
Q

What was the outcome of the case Re 88 Berkeley Road [1971] Ch 648?

A

In the case of Re 88 Berkeley Road [1971] Ch 648, the court ruled that there was no distinction between giving and serving notice. The notice was effectively served under LPA 1925, s 196(4) by registered post as it had been signed for and had not been returned undelivered.

373
Q

How does severance affect the shares of former joint tenants?

A

If a joint tenant successfully severs the equitable joint tenancy, they will hold a tenancy in common, which is an equal share based on the number of former joint tenants, not on the proportion of contributions made to the initial price. The remaining equitable joint tenants will continue to hold the equitable title as joint tenants. However, if there are only two joint tenants, severance will affect both of them.

374
Q

How does co-ownership through joint purchase work?

A

Co-ownership through joint purchase occurs when individuals jointly purchase their own homes. They share the ownership of the property concurrently, with both the legal and equitable titles held by the co-owners.

375
Q

What is the process of severing an equitable joint tenancy?

A

Severance is the process of converting an equitable interest held as a joint tenancy into an interest held as a tenancy in common. It can be done by any joint tenant. An express declaration that the owners hold as tenants in common will prevail, but falling short of an express declaration, words such as ‘in equal shares’ or ‘equally’ may indicate an intention to have separate shares.

376
Q

What are the three types of unilateral acts that can result in severance of a joint tenancy?

A

The three types of unilateral acts that can result in severance of a joint tenancy are acts of total alienation, acts of partial alienation, and involuntary alienation. Acts of total alienation occur when the severing owner disposes of the interest permanently, such as through sale or gift. Acts of partial alienation occur when the severing owner temporarily disposes of the interest, such as through mortgage or lease. Involuntary alienation occurs when a joint tenant is declared bankrupt by the court.

377
Q

What are the different types of trust of land?

A

The different types of trust of land are express trusts and implied trusts. Express trusts are created through formalities, while implied trusts can arise informally. Implied trusts can be resulting trusts or constructive trusts.

378
Q

What are the three ways identified by Page-Wood VC in Williams v Hensman (1861) 1 J & H 546 to sever a joint tenancy?

A

Page-Wood VC identified three possible ways to sever a joint tenancy: a unilateral act by a joint tenant operating on its own share, mutual agreement of the joint tenants, and any course of dealing that indicates the interests were mutually treated as constituting a tenancy in common.

379
Q

What is the effect of severance on the legal and equitable titles?

A

Severance is the process by which a joint tenant can convert an interest into a separate share held as a tenant in common. The legal owners will remain as joint tenants, and the equitable joint tenancy can be severed. If the severance is done by one of the methods recognized in section 36(2) of the Law of Property Act 1925, the joint tenant who instigates the severance will have a separate equitable share as a tenant in common. The remaining equitable joint tenants will continue to hold the equitable title as joint tenants.

380
Q

What is the role of trustees in co-ownership?

A

In co-ownership, the trustees hold the legal title to the land and carry out administrative functions. They sign documents such as mortgage and transfer deeds. The trustees have powers and duties of management.

381
Q

What is the requirement for severance by mutual agreement of joint tenants?

A

Severance by mutual agreement of joint tenants occurs when all equitable joint tenants agree that one person’s interest is severed, creating a tenancy in common. The agreement does not need to be a specifically enforceable contract to sell the interest, but it must amount to an agreement that one person’s interest is separate or severed.

382
Q

What is the distinction between total alienation and partial alienation as acts of severance?

A

Total alienation refers to acts of total alienation where the severing owner disposes of the interest permanently, such as through a sale or gift. Partial alienation refers to acts where the severing owner temporarily disposes of the interest, such as through a mortgage or lease.

383
Q

What is the role of beneficiaries in co-ownership?

A

In co-ownership, the beneficiaries hold the equitable title to the land. They are the true owners of the property and have a proprietary right (an equitable interest) in the land subject to the trust. The names of beneficiaries are kept private and do not appear on the registers.

384
Q

What are the two ways in which severance can occur according to the Law of Property Act 1925?

A

Severance of an equitable joint tenancy can take place by either notice in writing or ‘other acts or things.’ The latter is deliberately vague and was intended to continue recognizing the modes of severance identified in Williams v Hensman (1861).

385
Q

How can severance occur through mutual conduct?

A

Severance can occur through mutual conduct when the co-owners treat their interests as constituting a tenancy in common. This can be demonstrated by prolonged negotiations or conduct that suggests recognition and treatment of one person’s interest as separate. However, severance through mutual conduct is dependent on the facts of the case and can be hard to prove.

386
Q

What happens when an equitable joint tenant mortgages their equitable interest?

A

When an equitable joint tenant mortgages their equitable interest, it is considered an act of severance, resulting in a tenancy in common. This is different from when all legal joint tenants create a legal mortgage or charge over the property, which does not result in severance.

387
Q

How are express trusts of land created?

A

Express trusts of land are created when a piece of land is transferred to one person to hold on trust for another. The trust must be evidenced in writing and signed by the declarant(s).

388
Q

What are resulting trusts and how do they arise in co-ownership?

A

Resulting trusts may be implied in co-ownership when a property is bought in one person’s name but another person makes a financial contribution. The person holding the legal title holds the property on trust for both parties in proportion to their contributions.

389
Q

What is the effect of severance on the size of shares?

A

If a joint tenant successfully severs the equitable joint tenancy, they will hold a tenancy in common, which is an equal share depending on how many equitable joint tenants there were before severance. If there were only two equitable joint tenants before severance, both will hold as tenants in common. Severance only affects the owner who instigates the severance; the remaining equitable joint tenants will continue to hold their shares as joint tenants.

390
Q

What is the effect of severance on the interests of co-owners in an equitable joint tenancy?

A

Severance results in the co-owner who severs holding an undivided share in the equitable interest. The remaining co-owners continue to hold the remaining interest as joint tenants.

391
Q

What is the effect of one joint tenant unilaterally acting on their own share to sever a joint tenancy?

A

When one joint tenant unilaterally acts on their own share to sever a joint tenancy, it creates a logical inconsistency as joint tenants do not have a share in the first place. However, the act itself creates the share, and severance can take place without the knowledge or consent of the other joint tenant(s).

392
Q

What are constructive trusts and how do they arise in co-ownership?

A

Constructive trusts are imposed in co-ownership when it would be unconscionable for the legal owner to deny the interest of another person. They respond to unconscionability and can be imposed in various circumstances.

393
Q

What are the three types of unilateral acts that can result in severance?

A

The three types of unilateral acts that can result in severance are acts of total alienation, acts of partial alienation, and acts of involuntary alienation. Total alienation refers to permanent disposals of the interest, partial alienation refers to temporary disposals, and involuntary alienation occurs when a joint tenant is declared bankrupt.

394
Q

What are the formalities to be observed for a notice in writing to have the effect of severing a joint tenancy?

A

There are no particular formalities to be observed for a notice in writing to have the effect of severing a joint tenancy. The notice does not even need to be signed, but it must demonstrate an unequivocal and irrevocable intention to sever the joint tenancy immediately.

395
Q

What was the outcome of the case First National Security v Hegarty [1985] QB 850?

A

In the case of First National Security v Hegarty [1985] QB 850, the court held that a notice of severance sent by ordinary post and signed for by the recipient, even if not read, was effectively served and resulted in severance.

396
Q

What are the requirements for a notice in writing to be served correctly and have the effect of severing a joint tenancy?

A

To be served correctly and have the effect of severing a joint tenancy, the notice must be given to all other equitable joint tenants. It can be handed over or left at their last known place of abode or business. The notice does not have to be read to be effective, and severance takes place the moment the notice is served.

397
Q

What are the unities required for a joint tenancy to exist?

A

For a joint tenancy to exist, the co-owners must hold the four unities of title: unity of possession, unity of interest, unity of time, and unity of title.

398
Q

What is the requirement for a notice of severance to be validly served?

A

According to the Law of Property Act 1925, s 36(2), a notice of severance must be in writing and demonstrate an unequivocal and irrevocable intention to sever the equitable joint tenancy immediately. It must also be served correctly by giving it to all of the other equitable joint tenants.

399
Q

What is the effect of severance on the legal title?

A

Severance does not affect the legal title; the legal owners will remain as joint tenants. Severance only affects the equitable title, converting it into a tenancy in common.

400
Q

How can a joint tenancy be severed by mutual agreement?

A

Severance by mutual agreement occurs when all equitable joint tenants agree to sever one person’s interest, thereby creating a tenancy in common. This mode of severance is closely linked to severance by mutual conduct, and the dividing line between the two is unclear.

401
Q

What is the effect of severance by other acts or things?

A

Severance by other acts or things refers to the ways in which an equitable joint tenancy may be severed by unilateral or mutual acts of the equitable joint tenants. This includes a unilateral act by one joint tenant, mutual agreement of the joint tenants, or any course of dealing that indicates the interests were mutually treated as constituting a tenancy in common.

402
Q

What is the significance of an agreement in severing a joint tenancy?

A

The significance of an agreement is not that it binds the parties, but that it serves as an indication of a common intention to sever the joint tenancy. In the case of Burgess v Rawnsley, the agreement to sever the joint tenancy was reached even though it was never acted upon and the interest was never actually bought.

403
Q

What is the concept of severance by mutual conduct?

A

Severance by mutual conduct occurs when the parties have not reached a point of mutual agreement to sever the joint tenancy, but their conduct demonstrates that they are treating their shares in the property as separate. It may arise from ongoing negotiations or a prolonged course of dealing, although it can be difficult to prove.

404
Q

What factors does the court consider when making a decision in relation to applications for orders under section 14 of Trusts of Land & Appointment of Trustees Act (TLATA) 1996?

A

The court must consider all factors listed in section 15 of TLATA 1996. These factors include the intentions of the person(s) who created the trust, the purposes for which the property is held, the welfare of any minor occupying the land, the interests of secured creditors, and the circumstances and wishes of beneficiaries of full age or majority.

405
Q

What factors does Section 15(1) of Trusts of Land & Appointment of Trustees Act TLATA 1996 require the court to consider in relation to the welfare of minors occupying or expected to occupy land subject to a trust?

A

Section 15(1) of TLATA 1996 requires the court to consider the welfare of any minor who occupies or might reasonably be expected to occupy any land subject to the trust as their home. This factor is heavily dependent on circumstances, and the court may attach great weight to the continuity of living arrangements for young children.

406
Q

What are the requirements for holding legal title as joint tenants?

A

To hold legal title as joint tenants: - There can be a maximum of 4 legal owners. - All co-owners must be over 18. - Legal title must be held by the co-owners as joint tenants.

407
Q

How has the court’s approach to the interests of secured creditors in cases of co-ownership changed over time?

A

Pre-TLATA 1996, the court tended to prioritize the interests of secured creditors even when there were children in the property and the purpose for which the property was bought continued. However, post-TLATA 1996, the interests of secured creditors are just one factor to be considered, and there is no presumption for or against a sale at the start.

408
Q

How can a joint tenancy be severed by unilateral acts?

A

Severance by unilateral acts can occur when one joint tenant sells, mortgages, or gifts their share, or when they are declared bankrupt. These acts operate on the share and can sever the joint tenancy.

409
Q

What are the characteristics of equitable title?

A

Equitable title has no maximum number of owners, minors can hold equitable title, and co-owners can hold it as joint tenants or tenants in common. It is important to understand the distinction between legal and equitable ownership and the rules that govern how it can be held.

410
Q

What does Section 15(3) of TLATA 1996 require the court to consider in relation to the circumstances and wishes of beneficiaries?

A

Section 15(3) of TLATA 1996 requires the court to have regard to the circumstances and wishes of any beneficiaries of full age or, in the case of dispute, of the majority (according to the value of their combined interests). The court must consider the wishes of beneficiaries who are over 18, and in case of a dispute, the majority’s wishes are taken into account.

411
Q

What is the significance of prolonged negotiations in severance by mutual conduct?

A

Prolonged negotiations alone are unlikely to prove severance by mutual conduct, as ongoing negotiations suggest a lack of mutuality. In the case of Gore and Snell [1990], the court held that there was no point at which both parties considered that either of them had a separate share.

412
Q

What is the role of the court in resolving disputes relating to co-owned land?

A

The court has jurisdiction to hear applications regarding disputes involving co-owned land. It can make orders for sale, occupation, or determining the nature or extent of a beneficiary’s interest. The court must consider all relevant factors listed in TLATA 1996, section 15, in reaching its decision.

413
Q

What does Section 14 of TLATA 1996 allow anyone with an interest in land to do?

A

Section 14 of TLATA 1996 allows anyone with an interest in land to apply to the court for an order in relation to that land. The usual form of order requested is an order for sale of the property, which can be postponed for a period of time.

414
Q

What happens to the interest of a tenant in common upon their death?

A

If a tenant in common dies, the right of survivorship does not apply. Their interest can pass under their will, and a third party can inherit the equitable interest, which continues to be held as a tenancy in common.

415
Q

What is the concept of mutual agreement in severing a joint tenancy?

A

Severance by mutual agreement occurs when all joint tenants agree, either expressly or impliedly, to change the basis on which they hold the equitable title to the property. It involves an agreement that one person’s interest is separate or severed from the joint tenancy.

416
Q

What is the difference between mutual agreement and mutual conduct in property ownership?

A

Mutual agreement refers to parties explicitly agreeing to treat their shares in a property as separate, while mutual conduct refers to parties behaving in such a way over a period of time that demonstrates they are treating their shares in the property as separate.

417
Q

What is the purpose of the Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 (TLATA 1996) in relation to co-owned land?

A

TLATA 1996 provides provisions for the resolution of disputes relating to co-owned land. It grants courts jurisdiction to hear applications regarding disputes involving co-owned land, allowing anyone with an interest in the land to apply for an order relating to it. The court may make orders for sale, occupation, or determining the nature or extent of a beneficiary’s interest.

418
Q

Under what circumstances is there a presumption of a tenancy in common?

A

There will be a presumption that the parties hold the equitable title as tenants in common when there are unequal contributions to the purchase price or when the property is purchased for commercial use. However, this equitable presumption can be overridden if the parties make an express declaration in the transfer deed to hold as equitable joint tenants.

419
Q

How can an interest in a trust of land be created?

A

An interest in a trust of land can be created either expressly or impliedly. An express interest arises when a trust of land is declared in writing and signed by the declarant. An implied interest can arise when a person makes a financial contribution to the purchase price of the property, creating a trust without any formality requirement.

420
Q

How is an interest in a trust of land protected?

A

An interest in a trust of land is protected by a restriction in the proprietorship register of the title. This acts as an alert and instruction to anyone inspecting the registered title, informing them of the existence of the trust. If the land is sold or mortgaged, the interest is overreached, meaning it is transferred from the land to the monies paid to the trustees.

421
Q

What does unity of possession mean in joint tenancy?

A

Unity of possession means that all co-owners need to be equally entitled to possess the whole of the premises.

422
Q

What is overreaching in relation to an interest in a trust of land?

A

Overreaching is the process by which the equitable interest in the land is transferred from the land to the monies paid to the trustees. For overreaching to occur, the purchase money or loan must be paid to two trustees (or two legal owners if there are two) or one legal owner and another appointed trustee. If overreaching does not occur, the beneficiary may have an overriding interest in the land if they are in actual occupation of the land.

423
Q

What formalities must be complied with in order to create an express trust of land?

A

The declaration of trust must be evidenced in writing signed by the person creating the trust.

424
Q

Which of these statements is an accurate explanation of unity of time?

The co-owners must move into the property at the same time.

The co-owners must sign the transfer deed at the same time.

The co-owners’ interests must all last for the same length of time.

The co-owners’ interests must all take effect at the same time.

A

The co-owners’ interests must all take effect at the same time.

425
Q

What effect does making a will have on an equitable joint tenancy?

It will sever the equitable joint tenancy

It will sever the legal joint tenancy

It will sever the legal and equitable joint tenancies

It will have no effect

A

It will have no effect

426
Q

A and B bought a property together and paid 75% and 25% of the purchase price respectively. They declared themselves to be equitable joint tenants. A severed the joint tenancy. What is the position now in equity?

A is now a tenant in common as to 75% and B is a joint tenant as to 25%

A is now a tenant in common as to 50% and B is a joint tenant as to 50%

A and B are now tenants in common as to 50% each

A and B are now tenants in common as to 75% for A and 25% for B

A

A and B are now tenants in common as to 50% each

When the joint tenancy was severed, A received an equal share irrespective of the size of A’s initial contribution: Goodman v Gallant

427
Q

Which statement best describes the effect of severance of an equitable joint tenancy?

It brings co-ownership to an end

It changes the basis on which the equitable title will be held in future

It prevents survivorship from operating

It enables a co-owner to dispose of his equitable share to whoever he pleases

A

It changes the basis on which the equitable title will be held in future

This is correct. Severance does not destroy co-ownership but simply changes the basis on which the parties hold the equitable interest in the future

428
Q

A, B, C and D bought a house together. A and D contributed 15% of the purchase price each; B contributed 20% and C contributed 50%. They declared themselves to be equitable joint tenants. C severed the joint tenancy. What share will C now have?

C continues as legal joint tenant but has 50% of the equitable title as tenant in common

C has 25% of both the legal and equitable titles

C has 50% of both the legal and equitable titles

C continues as legal joint tenant but has 25% of the equitable title as tenant in common

A

C continues as legal joint tenant but has 25% of the equitable title as tenant in common

This is correct. The legal joint tenancy cannot be severed. If the equitable joint tenancy is severed the holder takes an equal share as tenant in common, irrespective of the size of their initial contribution

429
Q

On whom must notice in writing be served to effect severance?

On all equitable joint tenants

On all legal and equitable joint tenants

On all equitable owners

On all legal and equitable owners.

A

On all equitable joint tenants

430
Q

What statutory formalities apply to a notice in writing?

The notice must be made in signed writing.

The notice in must be in writing, incorporate all the relevant terms and must be signed

The notice must be contained in a valid deed

The notice need not comply with any formalities

A

The notice need not comply with any formalities

431
Q

The main purpose of the writing may not be severance, but the intention to sever can be implied from what is written.

Which of the following pieces of writing (if either of them) is severance likely to be inferred from in the circumstances?

Severance cannot be inferred from either of the other options in the circumstances.

A request for such order ‘as may be just’ relating to the matrimonial home

An application to court for an order that the matrimonial home be sold immediately and the proceeds of sale split equally.

A

An application to court for an order that the matrimonial home be sold immediately and the proceeds of sale split equally.

Yes this is correct and is akin to the facts of Re Draper’s Conveyance [1969] where a divorce petition that had this wording was held to be enough to sever the joint tenancy.

432
Q

Why was there no severance by mutual conduct in Gore and Snell v Carpenter?

Because the ongoing negotiations had not produced a final agreement

Because the ongoing negotiations had not continued for a long enough period

Because it was not possible to infer from ongoing negotiations any mutual working towards a final end in view

A

Because it was not possible to infer from ongoing negotiations any mutual working towards a final end in view

This is correct. The negotiations did not have any particular aim (unlike in Davis v Smith) and there was no evidence that there was no ‘mutual’ acceptance that Mrs Carpenter would hold tenancies in common. In that situation, the parties were not ‘mutually’ conducting themselves towards the same end.

433
Q

In Burgess v Rawnsley what did the court say must be present in order for the joint tenancy to be severed by mutual agreement?

An inferred agreement to end the co-ownership

An express or inferred agreement to change the basis on which co-ownership will continue

An express agreement to sell the property

A specifically enforceable contract for one party to ‘buy the other out’

A

An express or inferred agreement to change the basis on which co-ownership will continue

This is correct. Co-ownership does not end on severance of the joint tenancy: it continues on a different basis. An agreement to do this can be expressly stated, or (as in this case) inferred from what the parties said and did.

434
Q

X and Y are equitable joint tenants. Their relationship breaks down and they each instruct solicitors to agree how their assets, including the property will be separated.They do not come to an agreement before Y dies.

A

Mutual conduct (possibly)

435
Q

X and Y are equitable joint tenants. Their relationship breaks down and X agrees to buy Y’s share of the house for £100,000. The agreement is formalised and Y subsequently decides it wants £110,000 instead.

A

Mutual agreement

436
Q

X is the equitable joint tenant of a house in which it shares with two other co-owners. X was declared bankrupt last week.

A

Involuntary alienation

437
Q

X, Y and B are equitable joint tenants. Y mortgages its equitable interest in the property.

A

Partial alienation

438
Q

X, Y and B are equitable joint tenants. They together grant a legal mortgage over the property.

A

No severance

439
Q

X, Y and B are equitable joint tenants. X gifts its equitable interest to Y.

A

Total alienation

440
Q

Why did the judge in Davis v Smith conclude that the joint tenancy had been severed by mutual conduct?

The parties had agreed to put the house on the market

The parties had engaged in prolonged negotiations

The parties had negotiated on the basis that their assets including the house would be realised and divided.

The parties had already split the proceeds of surrender of a life policy

A

The parties had negotiated on the basis that their assets including the house would be realised and divided.

441
Q

Who is entitled to make a court application in relation to co-owned land under Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996, s 14?

Anyone who has an interest in the land

Anyone who has or expects to have an interest in the land

The legal owners only

The legal owners and any legal mortgagees only

The beneficial owners only

A

Anyone who has an interest in the land

442
Q

Which of the factors in Trusts of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996, s 15 is given the greatest weight in making a decision, according to the provisions set out in the statute?

The statute states that the interests of minors living in the property carry greater weight.

None – the statute gives no indication of any factor having greater weight than the others.

The statute states that the interests if secured creditors carry greater weight.

The statute states that the purpose for which the property was purchased carries greater weight.

The statute states that the circumstances and wishes of the beneficiaries carry greater weight.

A

None – the statute gives no indication of any factor having greater weight than the others.

443
Q

Test to establish whether it is a joint tenancy or a tenancy in common in equity?

A
  • Unity of possession – each co-owner has the right to possession of all of the land. Actual possession is not required. Unity of possession is required for both a joint tenancy and a tenancy in common in equity.
  • Unity of interest – each co-owner must have identical rights over the land. This is the hallmark of a joint tenancy. A tenancy in common can have unequal shares and, therefore, no unity of interest.
  • Unity of title – each co-owner must have acquired their interest from the same document. For example, the same transfer or conveyance.
  • Unity of time – the co-owners receive their interests at the same time.

The second test: does the deed transferring the land to the co-owners contain an express declaration? This is conclusive.

The third test: does the deed transferring the land to the co-owners contain words of severance?

The fourth test: does equity presume a tenancy in common?

444
Q

Methods of severance?

A

Written notice
* Acts operating on the joint tenant’s share
* Mutual agreement
* Course of dealing
* bankruptcy;
* homicide; and
* post-acquisition money management.

445
Q

What is a covenant?

A

A covenant is a promise which is usually contained in a deed, although a deed is not essential.

446
Q

What is a coventee?

A

The person who receives the benefit of the covenant and owns the dominant land

447
Q

What is the convenor?

A

the person who makes the promise.The covenantor can be sued if the covenant is breached.

448
Q

What is a positive covenant?

A

A positive covenant obliges the covenantor to “put their hand in their pocket” and do something to comply with the covenant, either spend money or energy. The covenant cannot be complied with by inaction.

449
Q

What is a negative/restrictive covenant?

A

A promise not to do something. This restricts the use of the land and can be complied with by inaction. ** Examples of restrictive covenants ** - Not to use the land for business purposes

450
Q

What is needed for a covenant to be enforced in equity?

A

For a covenant to be enforced in equity, It must be shown that the benefit and burden have both passed using the rules of equity

451
Q

What is needed for a covenant to be enfored in common law?

A

For the covenant to be enforced at common law, it must be shown that the burden and benefit have both passed using the common law rules.

452
Q

What must the successor in title to the dominant land show in order to enforce the covenant?

A

That the benefit of the covenant has passed to them

453
Q

In order for a successor covenantee to enforce a covenant against a successor covenantor, what must the successor covenantee show?

A

That the benefit of the covenant has passed to the successor covenantee and that the burden of the covenant has passed to the successor covenantor

454
Q

Can a positive covenant be enforced in equity?

A

Positive covenants will not be enforced against a successor covenantor in equity.

455
Q

What is the test for figuring out whether a covenant is positive or negative?

A

This is known as the ‘hand in pocket’ test. If covenantors have to put their hands in their pockets to find money to spend to perform the covenant, it is positive.

456
Q

What is a mixed covenant?

A

A mixed covenant is a promise which has positive and restrictive elements.

Example: a covenant not to build on the land (the restrictive part of the covenant) without the consent of the owner (the positive post of the covenant) of the dominant land.

457
Q

How do you interpret mixed covenants?

A

Mixed covenants, can be interpreted in one of two ways:
as separate covenants or
as one obligation with a condition attached

458
Q

What is the overall approach to be taken when interpreting covenants as positive, negative or mixed?

A

Look at underlying substance of the covenant rather than the precise words used.

459
Q

Which case sets out the test for the ‘hand in pocket’ test?

A

Haywood v Brunswick

460
Q

Which approach is correct in interpreting a covenant not to build any extension to a house without the consent of the dominant owner?

A

This is a mixed covenant which is predominantly negative with a positive condition attached

461
Q

What is the general rule for covenants?

A

As a general rule, the burden of a covenant does not pass to a successor at common law

462
Q

What are the 4 rules for the burden of certain covenants to pass to successors?

A

The covenant must be restrictive
- The covenant must accommodatethe dominant tenement
- There must be intention for the burden of the covenant to run
- There must be notice of the covenant

463
Q

If a covenant is positive, what are the 3 common law rules will apply to its enforcement?

A
  1. The covenantee and successor covenantee must hold an interest in land at the time of creation and enforcement
  2. The covenant must touch and concern the land
  3. The dominant land and the servient land must be in proximity
464
Q

What happens of the covenant meets the requirements?

A

If they are satisfied, you then need to see if there is intention that the burden should run.

465
Q

How can intention be shown?

A
  1. EXPRESSLY: the covenant is worded in such a way as to make it clear that successors are to be bound:
    ‘ A hereby covenants with B for himself and his successors in title to land known as…’ or
    ‘A hereby covenants with the intention of binding land known as…’
  2. IMPLIEDLY: LPA 1925, s 79 states that a covenant relating to land shall be deemed to be made by the covenantor on behalf of his successors in title, unless a contrary intention is expressed.
466
Q

Assuming there is intention for the covenant to run, what else is necessary?

A

Assuming there is intention, which usually is the case, consider if the successor covenantor has notice. Is the burdened land registered or unregistered, this will determine how the covenant should have been protected so that the successor will have notice.

467
Q

How is notice for a covenant on registered land shown?

A

The covenant must be protected by the entry of a notice in the charges register of the servient title (LRA 2002, s 32)

468
Q

How is notice for a covenant on unregistered land shown?

A

The covenant must be protected by a Class D(II) Land Charge.
In either case, if not done, a purchaser for value of the burdened land will_not_ be bound, but a donee (someone who inherits of is gifted the estate) would be.

469
Q

The successor covenantor must have notice of the covenant. In registered land and unregistered land, what is the effect if the covenant has not been protected in accordance with the relevant rule?

A

A purchaser for value will not be bound by the covenant but a donee would be

Although the rules are different depending upon whether the land is registered or not, the principle is the same. A purchaser of the land would not be bound, but a donee (someone who is gifted or inherits the land) will be.

470
Q

What must be shown if a successor covenantee wishes to enforce a breach against a successor covenantor direct?

A
  • that the burden of the covenant has passed to the successor covenantor in equity and
  • that the benefit has passed to the successor covenantee in equity
471
Q

What elements must be fulfilled for the benefit to pass in equity?

A

· The covenant must ‘touch and concern’ the dominant land
· The benefit must pass by one of the methods in Renals v Cowlishaw (1878)

472
Q

What are the methods by which a covenant could be passed by equity?

A

Annexation
Assignment
Building Scheme

473
Q

What is annexation?

A

This occurs when the covenant is made in such a way that the benefit becomes a permanent part of the dominant land itself.
It therefore passes automatically when the dominant land is sold, without being specifically mentioned in the transfer deed.

474
Q

What are the three ways for annexation to occur?

A

Express annexation, implied annexation,
Statutory annexation LPA 1925, s 78

475
Q

What is express annexation?

A

This occurs where the express words of the covenant make it clear that the original parties intend the benefit to become part of the dominant land, rather than simply a personal advantage to the covenantee.

476
Q

What is statutory annexation?

A

The Court of Appeal held that the effect of s 78 LPA 1925 was to automatically annex a freehold covenant to each and every part of the land retained by the covenantee provided the following criteria is met:
* the covenant must have been created after the implementation of the LPA, ie post-1925; and
* the covenant must touch and concern the land. The test in P & A Swift Investments v Combined English Stores Group plc can be used.
The broad application of the decision in Federated Homes has been reduced by:
(i) the ability of the original covenanting parties to exclude the effect of s 78 LPA 1925 from the transfer creating the covenant (Roake v Chadha [1984] 1 WLR 40); and
(ii) the need for the land to be benefited from the covenant to be identifiable from a description, plan or other reference in the transfer, aided, if necessary, by external evidence to identify the land (Crest Nicholson v McCallister [2004] 1 WLR 2409).

477
Q

What is assignment?

A

This occurs where the benefit of the covenant has not been annexed at the outset. The benefit can nevertheless be assigned when the dominant land is transferred. As the benefit exists separately from the land itself, it is treated as a separate interest in the land and must be transferred every time the land is transferred.
The separate assignment of the benefit must comply with the formalities in LPA 1925, s 53(1)(c): in writing and signed by the person transferring the benefit.
Assignment occurs at the time the dominant land is sold. The benefit must be assigned each time the land is transferred.

478
Q

What is a building scheme?

A

When a new housing estate is built, all houses are sold subject to the same covenants. New owners who wish to enforce a covenant against a neighbour may struggle to show that the benefit of a particular covenant has passed to them.
Building schemes resolve this problem relating to restrictive covenants only.
If the conditions of a building scheme are met, the covenants are treated as a set of by-laws enforceable by and against all owners. It is not necessary to show specifically that the benefit of a particular covenant has passed to a claimant.

479
Q

What are the conditions for a building scheme?

A

All buyers buy from the same seller
The seller divided the estate into plots
The covenants were intended to benefit all plots
Each buyer buys on the understanding that the covenants are intended to benefit all plots
Later cases have interpreted these rules as guidelines rather than strict requirements.

A court will need to be satisfied that it was the intention of the parties to create a scheme of mutually enforceable obligations.

480
Q

What is the position of the original coventee?

A

When dominant land is sold, the original covenantee technically still has the benefit of the covenant and can sue on it.

481
Q

As a restrictive covenant is an equitable interest in land, equitable remedies are available to enforce the breach against the current owner. What are these equitable remedies?

A

Injunction
Typically, if the breach is threatened or ongoing, the claimant can apply for a prohibitory injunction, ordering the breach to cease.

482
Q

Where the benefit of a covenant is expressly assigned, which formalities must be complied with?

A

The assignment must be in writing and signed by the person disposing of the benefit, LPA 1925, s53(1)(c).

483
Q

What is the Continuing liability of the original covenantor?

A

The effect of the rule is that at common law, a successor covenantor cannot be sued. However, the burden of a covenant does not disappear. It remains with the original covenantor permanently. This means that it is the original covenantor who has the burden of the covenant and can be sued for both its own breaches and the breaches of its successors.

484
Q

What is the remedy for common law covenants?

A

The only remedy available against the original covenantor is damages. This is because the original covenantor is no longer in possession or control of the land.

485
Q

What is an indemnity covenant?

A

As part of the sale process, the original covenantor (the seller) should require its successor (the buyer) enter an indemnity covenant promising to comply with the covenant and to indemnify (reimburse) it for any loss incurred as a result of a breach.

Enables the original covenantor to sue their direct successor.
If there is a complete chain of indemnity to the current owner in breach, it is therefore a method of indirect enforcement.

486
Q

What does an indemnity covenant not do?

A

It does not pass the burden of the covenant and it does not enable the current owner to be sued by anyone except their predecessor in title.

487
Q

Which is the most accurate statements on the effect of LPA 1925, s79?

A

The section makes the original covenantor liable for all breaches of covenant by any person who holds the land after the original covenantor has parted with it. It does not pass the burden of the covenant.

488
Q

What is the doctrine of mutual benefit and burden in Halsall v Brizell?

A

exception to the general rule that The burden of a covenant generally does not pass at common law

489
Q

What does the doctrine of mutual benefit and burden in Halsall v Brizell include?

A
  • the burden and benefit must be linked
  • the successor covenantor must have a choice whether to take the benefit and
  • the benefit and burden must be in the same transaction
490
Q

Which of these statements is the most accurate in describing how Rhone v Stephens refined the rule in Halsall v Brizell?

A

There must be a close link between the benefit in the nature of an easement and the burden of the covenant.

491
Q

To which of these covenants would the doctrine of mutual benefit and burden apply so that the burden of the covenant could pass at common law?

A covenant to keep the servient land well maintained and tidy

A covenant to erect and maintain a boundary fence between the dominant and servient land

A covenant to contribute towards the costs of the maintenance of a tennis courts, which the the servient land owner has a right to use and chooses to use

A covenant to contribute towards the repair and maintenance of an outdoor swimming pool, which the servient land owner has a right to use. The servient land owner is, however, choosing not to use the swimming pool and it does not like swimming.

A covenant to contribute towards the costs of the maintenance of a shared driveway, which the servient land owner has no choice but to use to access the servient land

A

A covenant to contribute towards the costs of the maintenance of a tennis courts, which the the servient land owner has a right to use and chooses to use

This is correct. The is a mutual benefit - the right to use the tennis court, which the servient land owner is choosing to take. Therefore, the burden will pass using the rule in Halsall v Brizell.

492
Q

What are the conditions for implied assignment?

A
  1. The covenant must touch and concern the land
  2. There must have been an intention that the benefit should run with the dominant land
  3. The original covenantee must have a legal estate in the dominant land
  4. The successor covenantee must hold a legal estate in the dominant land
493
Q

Which are the correct formalities for expressly assigning the benefit of a covenant at common law?

A

In writing, with notice given to the covenantor: LPA 1925, s 136.

494
Q

A sells part of its land to B. B enters into the following covenant with A in the transfer deed:

B covenants with A to wash A’s car every week

Which of the following reasons best explains why the covenant will not pass to a successor in title to A?

There is no express intention that the covenant should run

The covenantee does not hold a legal estate in the land at the time the covenant is granted

There is no express assignment of the covenant

The covenant does not touch and concern the dominant land

A

The covenant does not touch and concern the dominant land

A covenant to wash the covenantee’s car every week will not touch and concern the land as it has no impact on the quality, enjoyment or utility of the land. It is simply a personal privilege.

495
Q

What is discharging a covenant?

A

Discharge if a covenant means that it is no longer valid

496
Q

What is modifying a covenant?

A

Modification of a covenant means that the scope of the covenant is altered, but it is not completely invalidated.

497
Q

What is a merger?

A

A covenant will automatically be discharged if the same person becomes the owner of both the dominant and servient land

498
Q

How can covenants be discharged or modified?

A

Covenants can be discharged or modified in several ways:
* Merger
* Express release/modification
* Implied release/modification
* On one of the grounds in LPA 1925, s 84

499
Q

When can the lands chamber modify or discharge a covenant?

Law of Property Act 1925, s 84(1)

A

The grounds are:
* S 84(1)(a): it has become obsolete due to changes in character
* S 84(1)(aa): its continued existence impedes the reasonable use of the land
* S 84(1)(b): the dominant owners expressly or impliedly agree
* S 84(1)(c): the dominant owners will not suffer injury

500
Q

Which judicial body determines applications to discharge or modify covenants?

A

The Upper Tribunal (Lands Chamber)

501
Q

How can the the dominant owner impliedly agree to discharge the covenant?

A

by doing nothing when the covenant is being breached openly.

502
Q

How can the the dominant owner expressly agree to discharge the covenant?

A

A dominant owner may expressly agree to discharge the covenant and will enter into a formal release of covenant, usually in return for a payment. The release must be made by deed.

503
Q

What type of covenants can be discharged or modified by the tribunal under LPA 1925, s84?

A

Restrictive covenants only

504
Q

he burden of a restrictive covenant may pass in equity under the doctrine in Tulk v Moxhay (1848) 2 Ph 774 provided that the following requirements are satisfied:

A

(a) the covenant must be negative (restrictive) in substance;
(b) the covenant must, at the time of the creation of the covenant, have been made to benefit dominant land retained by the covenantee;
(c) the covenant must touch and concern the dominant land;
(d) the covenant must be made with the intent to burden the servient land; and
(e) the owner of the servient land must have notice of the covenant for it to bind them

505
Q

Implied annexation?

A

In some situations the court has been willing to imply annexation where such annexation was obviously intended and it would be an injustice to ignore that intention. The required intention must be manifested in the transfer as construed in the light of all the surrounding circumstances

506
Q

Who is the mortgagee?

A

The lender who loans money to fund the property purchase

507
Q

Who is the mortgagor?

A

The borrower who grants rights over the property as security for the loan. These rights include the right to possess and sell the property in the event of default.

508
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the likely outcome for a low risk borrower?

They will be charged a low interest rate

A bank is unlikely to loan money to a low risk borrower

They will be charged a high interest rate

A

They will be charged a low interest rate

509
Q

What are the formalities for a legal mortgage?

A

Deed + Registration. Then the mortgage deed must then be registered at the Land Registry: LRA 2002, s 27(2)(f).

510
Q

What happens if the legal mortgage is not registered?

A

If it is not registered, the mortgage will not take effect as a legal mortgage in the land (s 27(1)) but could still be an equitable interest.

511
Q

How is an equitable mortgage created?

A

be in writing and signed by the grantor in order to be validly created.

512
Q

What would only be an equitable mortgage?

A

Where the borrower holds an equitable interest in the land (ie they are not a legal owner, eg a beneficiary in a trust of land), any mortgage of that interest will be equitable in nature.

513
Q

What form is used to discharge a mortgage?

A

A DS1 form is used to discharge a mortgage over the whole of the land in a title.

514
Q

What form is used if only part of the mortgage is being discharged?

A

A DS3 form

515
Q

What is equity of redemption?

A

The equity of redemption is the name given to the bundle of rights which the borrower has

516
Q

What are the rights in equity of redemption?

A

here are four basic rights:
the equitable right to redeem the loan
protection from clauses which postpone or prevent redemption
protection from clauses which give collateral advantages to the lender
protection from unconscionable terms in mortgage deeds

517
Q

Can redemption be postponed?

A

Redemption can only be postponed if the borrower gains some benefit from any ‘lock in’ and gets back exactly what was mortgaged

They may allow a lender to postpone the date, but bear in mind the equitable rule that there must be no clog or fetter on the equity of redemption. Whether the right to redeem is rendered valueless is a question of fact and degree.

518
Q

Options to purchase for the mortgagor?

A

Options for the lender to purchase the property will be void unless they are genuinely part of an independent transaction

519
Q

When are collateral advantages void?

A
  • Collateral advantages will be void if they extend beyond the mortgage term unless they are genuinely part of an independent transaction.
520
Q

What are collateral advantages?

A

Lenders are entitled only to the repayment of capital advanced plus interest. If a lender tries to extract additional value from the borrower, the offending term in the mortgage deed may be struck out as being contrary to the equity of redemption. he mortgage is not to be regarded as an opportunity to take anything from the borrower other than the repayment of money. A collateral advantage will be struck out if it is unconscionable, in the nature of a penalty, or if it is repugnant to the equitable right to redeem.

e.g. The borrower mortgaged his leasehold pub to a brewery. The pub was a freehouse, meaning that beers from any brewery could be sold there. The mortgage included a solus tie requiring the borrower to sell only beer brewed by the lender. This tie was to last for the lease term, even if the loan had been repaid.

521
Q

When will unconscionable terms be struck out in mortgages?

A

Unconscionable terms must be more than simply hard bargains: they must be imposed in a morally reprehensible way, for example in a way which takes advantage of the borrower’s vulnerable position

522
Q

In Knightsbridge V Byrne, the court examined a clause which postponed the legal date for redemption. What was the outcome of the clause?

The clause was upheld because once the loan was repaid, the borrower would get back what he had mortgaged and during the mortgage he had had the benefit of a low interest rate.

The clause was struck out because once the loan was repaid, the borrower would get back an estate which was worth much less than at the time of the mortgage.

The clause was upheld because it was a commercial bargain made between two experienced business parties.

This clause was struck down because the ‘lock-in’ was deemed to be a clog or fetter on the equity of redemption.

A

The clause was upheld because once the loan was repaid, the borrower would get back what he had mortgaged and during the mortgage he had had the benefit of a low interest rate.

523
Q

When might an option for the lender to purchase the mortgaged property be upheld?

A

When it is granted in a substantially separate transaction.

524
Q

Which one of the following statements on solus ties is true?

The solus tie will not be permitted in a commercial transaction if the tie extends beyond the mortgage term even if it is a genuinely separate transaction.

The solus tie will be permitted in a commercial transaction where the tie ends after the mortgage term ends.

The solus tie will be permitted in a commercial transaction if the tie ends before or at the end of the mortgage term.

A

The solus tie will be permitted in a commercial transaction if the tie ends before or at the end of the mortgage term.

525
Q

When does the equitable right to redeem arise?

A

On the day after the legal date for redemption has passed.

526
Q

A mortgage loan contains a a legal date of redemption which falls 2 months before the end of a 25 year mortgage term. Which one of the following rights which make up the equity of redemption is likely to be relied upon here by the mortgagor to have the clause thrown out by the courts?

A

No postponement or prevention of redemption

527
Q

In Barclays Bank v O’Brien, why was the bank unable to enforce its charge against Mrs O’Brien?

The bank had unduly influenced Mrs O’Brien into signing the charge without ensuring she was fully informed.

Mr O’Brien had unduly influenced his wife to sign the charge without ensuring she was fully informed.

The bank had constructive notice of Mr O’Brien’s undue influence and failed to take reasonable steps to ensure that Mrs O’Brien was fully informed.

A

The bank had constructive notice of Mr O’Brien’s undue influence and failed to take reasonable steps to ensure that Mrs O’Brien was fully informed.

528
Q

In RBS v Etridge, the court extended the scope of the principles of constructive notice of undue influence. Which one of the following is the most accurate statements of the effect of this case?

The principles are relevant where the relationship between the person claiming undue influence and the debtor is one of husband and wife and civil partners.

The principles are relevant in every case where the relationship between the person claiming undue influence and the debtor is non-commercial.

The principles are relevant where the relationship between the person claiming undue influence and the debtor is one of husband and wife.

A

The principles are relevant in every case where the relationship between the person claiming undue influence and the debtor is non-commercial.

529
Q

In addition to a relationship of trust and confidence, what else must be shown for a claim of undue influence to succeed?

A transaction which involves fraud.

A transaction which involves misrepresentation.

A transaction which requires explanation.

A

A transaction which requires explanation.

530
Q

One of the situations where undue influence may arise is where there is a relationship of influence of which unfair advantage is taken. There are a number of relationships where there is an irrebuttable presumption that one party has influenced the other. Which ONE of the following is NOT within that number?

Trustee and beneficiary

Solicitor and client

Doctor and patient

Parent and child

Husband and wife

A

Husband and wife

Correct. In cases where undue influence is claimed, it will not be presumed but will need to be positively shown.

531
Q

How is priority for legal mortgages determined?

A

Priority of legal mortgages is determined by registration.

532
Q

How is priority for equitable mortgages determined?

A

determined by creation.

If an equitable mortgage is protected by the entry of a notice at the Land Registry, it will rank in priority to a subsequent lender, even if that subsequent lender holds a legal mortgage.

If an equitable mortgage is not protected by the entry of a notice at the Land Registry, it will rank in priority to any subsequent equitable mortgage, but a subsequent legal mortgage will take priority once registered.

533
Q

Can lenders agree the order of priority?

A

Yes, lenders can expressly agree between themselves the order of priority.

534
Q

Where a borrower has created three equitable mortgages, in favour of three different lenders, on consecutive days, how do we work out which takes priority?

Priority between equitable mortgage depends on the order in which they are created.

Priority between equitable mortgages depends on the order in which they are protected by registration.

Priority between equitable charges depends on the order specified in the mortgage deeds.

A

Priority between equitable mortgage depends on the order in which they are created.

Correct. Equitable mortgages do not have to be registered in order to be created properly. LRA 2002, s28 which relates to equitable interests, says that equitable interests take effect in the order in which they are created.

535
Q

An equitable mortgage can be (but does not have to be) protected by entering a s32 Notice on the Charges Register. If an equitable mortgage has been protected, what does that mean in terms of priority?

A

It takes priority over ALL subsequent mortgages, whether legal or equitable.

536
Q

Where a borrower has created three legal mortgages, in favour of three different lenders, on consecutive days, how do we work out which takes priority?

Priority between legal charges depends on the order specified in the mortgage deeds.

Priority between legal charges depends on the order in which the deeds are executed.

Priority between legal charges depends on the order in which they have been registered

A

Priority between legal charges depends on the order in which they have been registered

537
Q

What rights and remedies may a lender exercise?

A

The lender may:
- sue for the contractual debt, although this is of limited use if the borrower is already in arrears;
- take possession of the property as a precursor to selling it with vacant possession;
- sell the property and apply the proceeds towards the outstanding debt;
- appoint a receiver to generate income from the property to pay towards the outstanding debt; or
- apply for foreclosure, but this is very rare, and a sale would usually be ordered instead.
In exercising its rights, the lender must comply with its duties to the borrower.

538
Q

What is contractual debt action with regards to mortgages?

A

If the value of the mortgaged property is less than the outstanding mortgage debt, there is said to be negative equity. The lender may take possession of and sell the property, but if the sale proceeds so not cover the outstanding debt, the lender will wish to pursue a personal debt action against the borrower for the shortfall.

539
Q

What is the limitation for contractual debt action with regards to mortgages?

A

if the mortgage has been created by deed, as all legal mortgages must be, then the period for recovery of the debt stated in the deed (the capital) is twelve years. The limitation period for recovery of interest is six years.

540
Q

Why may a mortgagor want to possess the mortgaged property?

A

Possession will enable the lender to offer the property for sale with vacant possession, free from any rights of the borrower. Vacant possession makes a property more attractive to a potential buyer and will enable a higher price to be obtained.
Possession will enable the lender to manage the property and derive an income from it. The income can then be used to reduce the outstanding mortgage debt

541
Q

What is the procedure for sale for mortgages?

A

The power of sale must have arisen in accordance with statutory rules;
the power of sale must be exercisable in accordance with statutory rules; and
The lender must fulfil its duties on sale which have largely arisen from case law.

542
Q

What is a reciever?

A

A receiver acts as manager of the mortgaged property if the lender does not wish to take possession or to sell.

543
Q

What does a he receiver do?

A

he receiver is deemed to be the borrower‘s agent.

A receiver must act with due diligence, subject always to the main duty of paying off the mortgage debt

544
Q

What is foreclosure?

A

It allows a lender to take the mortgaged property in satisfaction of the debt, meaning that the freehold will vest in the lender, and the borrower will lose all rights to the property.

545
Q

How would a lender view foreclosure?

A

the procedure is lengthy and complex

546
Q

How would a borrower view foreclosure?

A

From the borrower’s point of view, there are some advantages in that an order of foreclosure extinguishes all other mortgages secured on the property. It also extinguishes the mortgagor’s contractual debt, so the lender cannot pursue the borrower for any surplus debt over and above the value of the property.

547
Q

The legal lender has the right to sue the borrower in person for the contractual debt. What is the limitation period for a contractual debt for a legal mortgage?

A

12 years for capital and 6 years for interest.

548
Q

What is the consequence if a lender exercises its power of sale under a legal mortgage, but the sale proceeds are insufficient to discharge the mortgage debt?

A

The lender may sue the borrower in contract for the outstanding debt.

549
Q

To whom does a receiver owe a duty to act with due diligence?

A

The borrower.

550
Q

What is the purpose of the Pre-Action Protocol 2008?

A

It sets out an expectation that lenders will explore alternative arrangements with a borrower before taking possession of residential properties.

551
Q

When does the right to possess a mortgaged property arise?

A

Legal lender has a right to possess mortgaged property from the outset

552
Q

What steps which a court will expect a lender to have taken before resorting to possession of residential property?

A
  • Possession proceedings must have started
  • The mortgaged property must be fully or partly residential
  • Borrower must be able to pay ‘any sums due’
  • ‘within a reasonable period’
  • Subject to such conditions ‘as the court thinks fit’
553
Q

Can courts postpone possession?

A
  • Courts have a statutory jurisdiction to postpone possession for a long period if the property is residential or partly residential

AJA s 36 gives the court the power to postpone possession of residential property if all sums due can be paid within a reasonable period

554
Q

What does ‘within a reasonable period’ mean for teps which a court will expect a lender to have taken before resorting to possession of residential property?

A

InCheltenham & Gloucester Building Society v Norgan [1996] the Court of Appeal said that the starting point for pinpointing a ‘reasonable period’ was the remainder of the mortgage term.

555
Q

When does the mortgagee acquire the right to possess mortgaged property?

A

Immediately the mortgage deed is signed.

556
Q

Why might a lender choose to apply to the court for an order for possession?

A

To avoid possible criminal proceedings following allegations of use of force to gain entry to premises.

557
Q

AJA 1970, s 36 enables a court to postpone an order for possession provided that the borrower can pay ‘any sums due’ within a ‘reasonable period’. Which of the following best explains this?

A

The borrower must pay the arrears before the end of the mortgage term.

558
Q

Will a court postpone an order for possession to allow the borrower to sell the property?

A

Yes, if there is firm evidence of an imminent exchange of contracts.

559
Q

What happens if there is an express right to sell?

A

Most mortgage documents will include an express power of sale and will set out exactly how and when the power will be exercised. The lender will not need to rely on any statutory provisions, although it will be subject to duties on sale, in the same was as a lender relying on statutory powers.

560
Q

What happens if there is no express right to sell?

A

will be implied under LPA 1925, s 101 when the mortgage is legal.

561
Q

When does the statutory right to sell arise?

A

‘when the mortgage money has become due’ This is the earlier of the first instalment of capital payable, or the legal redemption date.

562
Q

When does the right to sell arise?

A

The right become exercisable either when the mortgage document expressly states, or when one of the criteria in LPA 1925, s 103 has been met

563
Q

What is the criteria where is 1 exists then there is the statutory right to sell?

A

If the power arises under LPA 1925, s 101(1)(i), the power will become exercisable only when at least one of the criteria in s 103 applies:
1) Notice requiring payment of the whole loan has been served by the lender and the borrower has defaulted - No arrears are necessary here: the lender can request the full loan at any time!
2) Interest is unpaid and arrears for at least two months. This does not mean that two months’ interest must be owed: there must be some interest outstanding for two months: it does not need to be a large sum!
3) There has been some breach of another mortgage provision such as a covenant to keep the mortgaged property insured or in good repair. Examples: failure to insure the property or allowing it to fall into disrepair: basically something which could affect the value of the security.

564
Q

What duties does the lender have when selling the property?

A

When exercising its right to sell, the lender has duties to act fairly to the borrower in as to the method of sale and obtaining a fair price for the property.

The lender is not under a duty to improve the proper or delay a sale

565
Q

When selling, which of the following statements best expresses the lender’s duty as to the timing of the sale in a slow market?

The lender must sell immediately the right to sell becomes exercisable.

The lender must delay the sale if there is any prospect of planning permission being granted.

The lender must wait a reasonable time for an upturn in the market.

The lender has an unfettered discretion as to when to sell and need not delay.

A

The lender has an unfettered discretion as to when to sell and need not delay.

566
Q

The lender owes the borrower a duty to take reasonable care to obtain the true market value for the property. Which of the following is the most accurate statements of what ‘true market value’ means in this context?

The lender owes a duty to carry out repairs and improvements to the property to obtain the highest possible price.

The lender must obtain the maximum possible price in that particular market but need not delay sale.

The lender cannot be expected to achieve the perfect sale price, but the price must be in the correct bracket.

A

The lender cannot be expected to achieve the perfect sale price, but the price must be in the correct bracket.

567
Q

A property has two charges secured on it. The second lender sells under the right of sale. Which of the following represents the correct procedure?

The first loan is redeemed first, then the second loan, and any surplus proceeds are divided proportionately between the first lender and the second lender.

The second loan is redeemed first, then the first loan, with any surplus being paid to the borrower.

The first loan is redeemed first, then the second loan with any surplus being paid to the borrower.

A

The first loan is redeemed first, then the second loan with any surplus being paid to the borrower.

568
Q

A lender loans money to a borrower in return for a charge by way of legal mortgage over the borrower’s registered land. The interest rate for the loan is 10% above the Bank of England’s base rate.

Which of the following statements best sets out the circumstances in which the interest rate is most likely to be held to be unconscionable?

The land is a freehold estate, the borrower is a residential owner and has also received legal advice.

The land is a freehold estate, the borrower is a commercial owner and both lender and borrower are individuals.

The land is a leasehold estate, the borrower is a residential tenant and the loan is to pay for the extension of the leasehold term.

The land is a leasehold estate, the borrower is a commercial tenant and has also received legal advice.

The land is a freehold estate, the borrower is a residential owner and the loan is to fund the borrower’s business expansion.

A

The land is a leasehold estate, the borrower is a residential tenant and the loan is to pay for the extension of the leasehold term.

This is correct and the facts are akin to the case of Cityland v Dabrah (1968). As with this case, if the property is a leasehold and the borrower is a residential tenant who needs the money to extend the length of the lease, there is a risk that the lender could take advantage of the borrower’s circumstances and impose a higher interest rate. The borrower is more likely to agree to unconscionable terms to ensure the loan is made.

569
Q

Five years ago, a business owner needed to borrow money to expand their business. The business owner granted a first legal mortgage over the registered freehold of their home to a bank as security for the loan. The ten year repayment mortgage was granted by deed, included an express power of sale and the legal date of redemption was set for one month after the mortgage was granted.

The mortgagor’s business has been struggling recently and they have been unable to pay the last three mortgage instalments.

Which of the following options represents the best advice to the lender in respect of enforcing the security?

The lender is not entitled to enforce the security on the facts.

The lender should appoint a receiver and initiate a debt action against the mortgagor because the power of sale has not yet arisen.

The lender should take possession through self-help, rather than applying for a court order, and then sell the property.

The lender should apply for a court order to obtain possession and then sell the property. However, the mortgagor may apply to have the possession order postponed.

The lender should apply for a court order to obtain possession and then sell the property. The mortgagor will not be able to apply to have the possession order postponed.

A

The lender should apply for a court order to obtain possession and then sell the property. However, the mortgagor may apply to have the possession order postponed.

This is correct and is the best answer. It is advisable for the lender to apply for an order for possession, rather than exercising self-help and it is true that the mortgagor can apply to have the possession order postponed under section 36 Administration of Justice Act 1970. The other options are less correct because possession through self-help is rarely if ever advisable with regard to residential property, the Administration of Justice Act 1970 would apply here as the mortgaged property is a dwelling, and the facts indicate that the power of sale has arisen and is exercisable (in addition to the fact that it would not make sense to appoint a receiver here).

570
Q

Last year, a business owner granted to a lender a legal mortgage over the business premises to secure a capital and interest repayment loan. The mortgage deed did not mention any power of sale for the lender. The business is declining and the owner has not made any mortgage payments for four months. Today, the owner received a letter from the lender stating that the lender intends to sell the property and recover the money due from the sale proceeds.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the lender has a right to immediately sell the property?

The lender can sell the property as the legal date for redemption has passed

The lender can sell the property as the power of sale has arisen and has become exercisable on the facts

The lender cannot sell the business owner’s property as there is no express right for the lender to do so

The lender cannot sell the business owner’s property without first complying with the Pre-Action Protocol for Possession Claims 2008

The lender cannot sell the property until three months pass after the letter warning of the sale has been received

A

The lender can sell the property as the power of sale has arisen and has become exercisable on the facts

This is correct: if there is no express power of sale in a mortgage deed (as here) then the statutory provisions in LPA 1925 apply and s 101 will give the lender such a right in a legal mortgage.
The right has arisen as one instalment of capital became due as soon as one payment had been missed: Payne v Cardiff; and the right is exercisable as some interest has been in arrears for two months: LPA 1925, s 103(ii).
As the right has become exercisable due to the missed interest repayments, there is therefore no need for the lender to serve a 3 month written warning/notice of the sale. The legal date for redemption, which is the earliest date on which the borrower can redeem the mortgage, has nothing to do with the lender’s right to sell.

571
Q

The owner of a registered freehold property, used as a venue for weddings and parties, grants a legal mortgage over the property in favour of a lender as security for a loan. The mortgage deed contains the following terms:

(i) the lender may use the property free of charge for their annual Christmas party until the end of the mortgage term; and

(ii) the lender has an option to purchase the freehold until the end of the mortgage term.

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the validity of the mortgage terms?

Term (i) and term (ii) are both unenforceable terms and likely to be struck out by a court.

Term (i) and term (ii) are both enforceable terms and likely to be upheld by a court.

Term (i) is an unenforceable collateral advantage but term (ii) is likely to be upheld by a court.

Term (i) is an enforceable collateral advantage but term (ii) is inconsistent with the right to redeem the mortgage.

Term (i) and term (ii) are both unenforceable terms and likely to be rewritten by a court.

A

Term (i) is an enforceable collateral advantage but term (ii) is inconsistent with the right to redeem the mortgage.

This is correct.
Term (i) is a collateral advantage but as it expires at the end of the mortgage term and as long as it is not onerous or in the nature of a penalty, it is likely it will be upheld by the court.
Term (ii) gives the lender the option to purchase the freehold at any time during the term and is likely to be struck out as this prevents the borrower from being able to redeem their property.

572
Q

A borrower and lender enter into a document, which is described as a ‘mortgage deed’. The document purports to grant a mortgage over the borrower’s registered legal freehold. The agreement is signed by both the borrower and lender, witnessed and then dated. The lender does not do anything further with the document.

Which of the following options best describes what kind of mortgage (if any) has been granted by the borrower?

The borrower has granted a legal mortgage because the statutory requirements of a deed have been met.

The borrower has not granted a mortgage because the document does not comply with the statutory requirements of a deed.

The borrower has granted an equitable mortgage because it is a mortgage of an equitable interest in the land.

The borrower has granted an equitable mortgage. Equity will recognise the ‘failed legal mortgage’ as a ‘contract to grant a legal mortgage’.

The borrower has not granted a mortgage because the document has not been registered.

A

The borrower has granted an equitable mortgage. Equity will recognise the ‘failed legal mortgage’ as a ‘contract to grant a legal mortgage’.

This is correct. Although a valid deed has been created on the facts - the document complies with LP(MP)A 1989, s 1 - it has not been registered by the lender. No valid legal mortgage has therefore been created on the facts. Equity will, however, recognise this an equitable mortgage in the circumstances. The document complies with LP(MP)A 1989, s 2 and equity will therefore recognise it as a ‘contract to grant a legal mortgage’. An equitable mortgage does not need to be registered to be validly created.

573
Q

A couple recently bought a holiday home in the Alps. In order to fund the purchase, they borrowed money from the bank and secured the loan by granting to the bank a legal mortgage over the freehold of their home in England.

Which one of the following options best describes whether the lender would have been put on notice of possible undue influence in the circumstances?

The lender would not be put on enquiry of undue influence because the lender has taken the necessary steps to bring home the risk of the mortgage

The lender would be put on enquiry of undue influence because the couple are buying a property in a different country

The lender would not be put on enquiry of undue influence because the loan is for the joint benefit of the couple

The lender would be put on enquiry of undue influence because there is more than one borrower

The lender would not be put on enquiry of undue influence because there is no relationship of trust and confidence between the couple

A

The lender would not be put on enquiry of undue influence because the loan is for the joint benefit of the couple

This is correct. The lender would not be put on enquiry of undue influence because the loan is for the joint benefit of the couple. In CIBC Mortgages plc v Pitt the House of Lords confirmed that a lender would not be put on notice that there is a risk of undue influence where a transaction is ostensibly for a couple’s joint benefit, as it is on the facts here.