Crim Law Flashcards

1
Q

What is the hierarchy of non-fatal offences?

A

Wounding or grievous bodily harm with intent (s 18 Offences Against the Person Act ‘OAPA’ 1861)- the most serious offence but committed less frequently (indictable);

Wounding or grievous bodily harm (s 20 OAPA 1861) (either-way);
Assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s 47 OAPA 1861) (either-way);
Battery (summary); and
Assault (summary)- the least serious offence but along with battery committed most frequently.

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2
Q

What is the AR and MR for assault?

A

· Actus reus (AR)- causing the victim to apprehend immediate and unlawful personal violence; and

· Mens rea (MR)- intentionally or recklessly causing the victim to apprehend immediate and unlawful personal violence; and

· Absence of a valid defence- self-defence, intoxication or consent.

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3
Q

What does apprehension mean for AR of assault?

A

Apprehension means to make the victim expect or anticipate but not necessarily fear immediate and unlawful personal violence

Words alone and silence is enough

If the victim is caused to apprehend such a threat, it is irrelevant that the defendant does not in fact have the means to carry out that threat.

Words can however negate an assault

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4
Q

What does immediate mean for AR of assault?

A

Does not mean instantaneous but some time not excluding the immediate future (R v Constanza) or imminent (R v Ireland).

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5
Q

What does unlawful mean for AR of assault?

A

Not done in self-defence or with the victim’s consent.

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6
Q

What does personal violence mean for AR of assault?

A

All the victim has to anticipate is an unwanted touch.

for an assault, the victim must apprehend physical violence.

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7
Q

What is the AR and MR for Assault occasioning actual bodily harm (s 47)?

A

Actus reus
* Assault- meaning an assault or battery
* Occasioning- normal principles of causation apply
* Actual bodily harm

Mens rea
* Mens rea for the assault or the battery. Intent or recklessness as to:
- causing the victim to apprehend immediate and unlawful personal violence; or
- applying unlawful force upon another.

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8
Q

What is the AR and MR of battery?

A

· Actus reus (AR)- application of unlawful force; and
· Mens rea (MR)- intentionally or recklessly applies unlawful force; and
· Absence of a valid defence- self-defence, intoxication or consent

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9
Q

What is application for battery?

A

Application- Battery can be inflicted:
* Directly (Collins v Wilcock).
* Indirectly (R v Martin, DPP v K). e.g. D digging a pit which V then falls into as being an indirect battery.
* By an omission (Santana Bermudez).

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10
Q

What does force mean for battery?

A

Means the merest of touch (Collins v Wilcock) and doesn’t have to be rude, hostile or aggressive (Faulkner v Talbot).
* Touching someone’s clothes is enough (R v Thomas).
* Where the battery results in harm which is more than trivial, the defendant will be liable for the more serious offence under the OAPA 1861, s 47.

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11
Q

What are examples of battery?

A

Mere touch
* An unwanted kiss
* A slap
* Scratches/ grazes, minor bruising or superficial cuts

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12
Q

What does occasioning mean for s 47?

A

the assault or battery must result in actual bodily harm being caused to the victim. Normal principles of causation apply.

This offence can also be committed through an omission

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13
Q

What could constitute as ABH?

A

A
Temporary loss of sensory function (e.g. sight or hearing)
Temporary loss of consciousness
Extensive bruising
Cutting someone’s hair without their consent
Minor fractures
Psychiatric injury that is more than trivial- beyond mere fear, distress or panic

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14
Q

What is the AR and MR for s20?

A

Actus reus
* Wound; or
* Infliction of grievous bodily harm.

Mens rea
D must intend or be reckless as to the causing of some harm.

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15
Q

What constitutes as a wound?

A

There must be a break in the continuity of both layers of the skin. Both the dermis and epidermis must be broken.

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16
Q

What does infliction mean?

A

The same as cause

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17
Q

What does GBH mean?

A

Serious harm

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18
Q

How is GBH assessed?

A

Psychiatric injury may amount to GBH if sufficiently serious, but its cause and effect will need to be proved by expert evidence.

The jury should consider the effect of the injuries on the victim, taking into account the victim’s age and health. The jury can also look at the totality of the injuries

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19
Q

What are the AR and MR of s18?

A

Actus reus
* Wound; or
* Causing grievous bodily harm.

Mens rea
D must intend to cause grievous bodily harm or intent to resist or prevent the lawful apprehension or detention of any person,
coupled with the intention or recklessness as to causing some bodily harm.
Intention can be direct (aim, purpose, R v Moloney) or oblique, R v Woollin.

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20
Q

When can juries find s18 by oblique intent?

A

Juries are not entitled to find s 18 by oblique intent unless they feel sure:
* serious injury was a virtual certainty as a result of the defendant’s action (objective element); and
* the defendant appreciated that (subjective element).

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21
Q

What are examples of GBH?

A

Permanent loss of sensory function
Permanent disability
Broken bones
Fractured skull
Substantial blood loss
* Wound- breaking both layers of skin, the dermis and epidermis

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22
Q

What is the mens rea of assault occasioning actual bodily harm?

A

The mens rea for the assault or battery

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23
Q

What is the mens rea of section 20 Offences Against the Person Act 1861, malicious wounding or inflicting grievous bodily harm?

A

Intention or recklessness as to causing some harm

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24
Q

What is the mens rea of section 18 Offences Against the Person Act 1861, malicious wounding or causing grievous bodily harm with intent?

A

Intention to cause grievous bodily harm

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25
Q

A girl picks up a gun and points it at a boy’s head. The girl and the boy know that the gun is not loaded.

Which one of the following statements best describes the legal position?

A

The girl has no criminal liability as has not committed either an assault or a battery

The girl has not threatened unlawful violence on the boy nor touched him without consent, so does not fulfil the definitions of assault or battery.

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26
Q

What is actual bodily harm?

A

The injury need not be
serious or permanent in nature, but it must be more than ‘transient or trifling’.

The defendant causes actual bodily harm where they:
*
give the victim a split lip;
*
stab the victim’s arm so that the injury requires three stitches;
*
cause significant bruising to the victim’s face;
*
kick the victim’s leg causing swelling to the knee;
*
cut a substantial piece of the victim’s hair; or
*
cause a temporary loss of consciousness;
but not where the victim only suffers:
*
a very small bruise;
*
a minor scratch; or
*
a red mark on the skin, from a slap, which quickly fades.

The question of whether harm could include psychiatric injury was considered in the combined
appeals of Ireland and Burstow . The judges confirmed that it could,
with the severity of the psychological harm determining the statutory assault for which the
defendant is liable. On a practical point, medical evidence will be required by the prosecution
to establish a more serious assault and, in this context, it would almost certainly be from a
psychiatrist.

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27
Q

What is grievous bodily harm?

A

Grievous bodily harm is defined in the case of DPP v Smith [1961] AC 290 as ‘really serious
harm’. The judges were of the view that the term should be given its ordinary and natural
meaning. This is a question of fact for the jury, which considers the effect of the injuries on
the particular victim, taking account of their age and health; thus, it will be whatever the
magistrates or the jury regards as serious enough.
For example, grievous bodily harm would include:
*
a fractured skull
*
severe internal injuries
*
broken limbs
*
disfigurement caused by acid being thrown on the victim
*
really serious psychiatric injury.

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28
Q

What elements must be proven for theft?

A

Actus reus:
* Appropriation (s 3 Theft Act 1968)
* Property (s 4 Theft Act 1968)
* Belonging to another (s 5 Theft Act 1968)
Mens rea:
* Dishonestly (s 2 Theft Act 1968)
* With the intention to permanently deprive (s 6 Theft Act 1968)

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29
Q

What is appropriation?

A

‘Any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner amounts to an appropriation …’

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30
Q

Can appropriation happen with the consent of the owner?

A

In R v Gomez the majority in the House of Lords decided that a defendant can appropriate property even with the consent of the owner.

‘When theft is alleged and that which is alleged to be stolen passes to the defendant with the consent of the owner, but that consent has been obtained by a false representation, has, (a) an appropriation within the meaning of section 1(1) of the Theft Act 1968 taken place, or, (b) must such a passing of property necessarily involve an element of adverse [interference] with or usurpation of some right of the owner?’

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31
Q

Can someone steal a gift?

A

Yes, person could be guilty of stealing a valid inter vivos gift

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32
Q

Can appropriation happen later?

A

In such circumstances, when the defendant does form the necessary mens rea later it will then be necessary to apply the Theft Act 1968, s 3(1), which provides for a later assumption of the owner’s rights to amount to an appropriation:
‘Any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner amounts to an appropriation, and this includes, where he has come by the property (innocently or not) without stealing it, any later assumption of a right to it by keeping or dealing with it as owner.’

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33
Q

Is an innocent purchaser guilty if theft?

A

The Theft Act 1968, s 3(2) exempts a defendant from liability for theft where the defendant purchases goods in good faith and for value, then later discovers that the seller had no title to the property, but decides to keep it.

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34
Q

What amounts as property for theft?

A

‘Property’ includes money and all other property, real or personal, including things in action and other intangible property.
Generally, all property may be stolen, although there are certain exceptions in relation to land (s 4(2)), things growing wild (s 4(3)), and wild creatures(s 4(4)).

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35
Q

When is the exception for land seen as theft?

A

A
In general land cannot be stolen. However, a person can be guilty of theft if, for example:
(a) By a trustee in breach of trust
(b) By a person who is not in possession of the land if they appropriate anything forming part
of the land either by severing it or after it has been severed
(c) By a tenant who takes something fixed to the land that they are not supposed to take.
* s 4(2)(a)- D is authorised to sell land and sells more than they are meant to;
* s 4(2)(b)- D is a trespasser or invited guest and removes a fence or a lavender plant;
* s 4(2)(c)- D is a tenant and removes or sells without removing, a fixed greenhouse.

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36
Q

What wild plants fall under the exception to property for theft?

A

Mushrooms;
* Flowers;
* Fruit; and/ or
* Foliage.

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37
Q

How can D be guilty of theft with regards to plants?

A

D can however be guilty of theft if:
* The purpose of picking from the wild plant is:
- A reward;
- To sell; or
- For another commercial purpose.
* D uproots or cuts parts of the wild plant.
* D picks cultivated plants.

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38
Q

What falls under the wild animals exception for property for theft?

A

D will not be guilty of the theft of:
* Untamed animals; and/ or
* Animals not ordinarily kept in captivity.

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39
Q

What animals could D be guilty of theft for?

A

D can be guilty of theft of:
* Tamed animals (for example, pets such as a cat or dog);
* Animals kept in captivity (for example, in a zoo); and/ or
* Animals in the course of being reduced into possession (for example, have been trapped).

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40
Q

o s. 1 Theft Act 1968

A

A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it

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41
Q

o s. 8 Theft Act 1968

A

Section 8(1) TA 1968 defines robbery as follows: “A person is guilty of robbery if the person steals, and immediately before or at the time of doing so, and in order to do so, they use force on any person or puts or seeks to put any person in fear of being then and there subjected to force.”

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42
Q

o s. 9 Theft Act 1968

A

Burglary.

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43
Q

o s. 10 Theft Act 1968

A

Aggravated burglary is defined at section 10 TA 1968 Act as follows: “A person is guilty of aggravated burglary if they commit any burglary and at the time has with them any firearm or imitation firearm, any weapon of offence, or any explosive.

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44
Q

What property can be stolen?

A

A
What property can be stolen?
* Money- notes, coins including other currencies
* Real property- land in certain circumstances discussed already
* Personal property, for example a coat, a ring, a car, water, gas
* Intangible property such as things in action (a right to sue/ recover)- company shares, trademarks, patents, copyright, a debt, a credit in a bank account, forged cheques, cheques drawn on accounts in credit or those drawn on accounts within the agreed overdraft limit (as the bank is obligated to honour the cheque)
* Unlawful or illegal items such as Class A drugs (Smith, Plummer and Haines [2011] EWCA Crim 66)

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45
Q

What property cannot be stolen?

A

Wild plants and animals- except in certain circumstances discussed already
* Electricity (Low v Blease [1975] Crim LR 513)
* Corpses and body parts except those which have been taken into another’s possession or control such as:
* Corpses in hospitals
* Blood given to a blood bank
* Corpses or body parts which have ‘acquired different attributes’ for scientific or teaching purposes (Kelly and Lindsay [1999] QB 621)
* Confidential information does not fall within the definition of intangible property (Oxford v Moss (1978) 68 Cr App R 183)
* Services such as a train journey
* Cheques drawn on accounts over the agreed overdraft limit (as the bank is not obligated to honour the cheque)

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46
Q

What is the definition of belonging to another?

A

‘Property shall be regarded as belonging to any person having possession or control of it, or having in it any proprietary right or interest …’

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47
Q

What about abandoned property?

A

Property can cease to belong to another if it has been abandoned. However, the courts do not readily find that property has been abandoned.

householders do not abandon goods that are put in their domestic waste. The householder intends the goods to be collected by the local authority, so a refuse collector could be guilty of theft if appropriating goods from a bin with the relevant mens rea.
Property is not abandoned just because the owner has stopped looking for it. Smith, Hogan and Ormerod’s Criminal Law notes that a husband who has lost his wedding ring and has long since given up looking for it, will not have abandoned it.

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48
Q

How do you assess whether property has been abandoned?

A

t will depend on whether the owner wants the property or wants it to go to another party, or whether the owner does not mind what happens to it.

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49
Q

Does possession and control only apply to the specified property?

A

No, The courts have found that property can belong to persons who have possession or control, not just of the specified property, but over the land upon which it was found. This can be so even if the owner of the land is unaware of its existence.

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50
Q

Can you steal your own property?

A

Yes,

v Turner (No 2) [1971] 1 WLR 901
FACTS: The defendant took his car to a local garage. He later contacted the mechanic to check if the car was ready and was told that it was. The defendant took the car using his spare keys without paying the bill. He was convicted of theft and appealed.
HELD: The Court of Appeal held that the mechanic was in possession and control of the car and, therefore, the car did ‘belong to another

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51
Q

When is property that is given to D still considered as belonging to the owner?

A

The general civil rule is that title in property passes at the time that the parties intend it to pass. The Theft Act 1968, section 5(3) can be used to cover cases where property is handed over for a particular purpose, and the title in that property passes to the accused before D has formed a dishonest intention to use it for an unauthorised purpose.
The Theft Act 1968, s 5(3) provides:
‘Where a person receives property from or on account of another, and is under an obligation to the other to retain and deal with that property or its proceeds in a particular way, the property or proceeds shall be regarded (as against him) as belonging to the other.’

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52
Q

What happens if someone acquires someone else’s property by mistake?

A

As with s 5(3), this provision only requires the obligation, whether that is the case is a matter of law. Under the law of restitution, when someone is aware they have acquired property by a mistake they are usually under a legal obligation to restore it.

‘Where a person gets property by another’s mistake, and is under an obligation to make restoration (in whole or in part) of the property or its proceeds or of the value thereof, then to the extent of that obligation the property or proceeds shall be regarded (as against him) as belonging to the person entitled to restoration, and an intention not to make restoration shall be regarded accordingly as an intention to deprive that person of the property or proceeds.’

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53
Q

In what 3 situations is appropriation of property not dishonest?

A

s 2(1)(a)- D has a right in law to deprive the other of the property;
s 2(1)(b)- D would have the other’s consent if the other person knew; or
s 2(1)(c)- the person to whom the property belongs cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps.

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54
Q

Does dishonesty need to be reasonably held?

A

A
No, As long as it is genuinely held D will not be dishonest.

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55
Q

What is the test for dishonesty?

A

(i) What was the defendant’s knowledge and belief as to the facts?
(ii) Given that knowledge and those beliefs, was the defendant dishonest by the standards of ordinary decent people?

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56
Q

If you are willing to pay for the property does this stop it being theft?

A

The Theft Act 1968, s 2(2) provides that a person can appropriate property dishonestly, despite being willing to pay for the property.
This allows people to be convicted of theft when they take property that the owner does not wish to sell, intending to pay for that property.

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57
Q

Can there be dishonesty after the ownership is passed?

A

No, dishonest intent must be formed at a time when the goods belong to another. A person cannot be convicted of theft if D only forms the dishonest intent after ownership of the property has passed to D. An example can be found in Edwards v Ddin [1976] 1 WLR 942. The general civil rule is that title in property passes at the time at which the parties intend it to pass.

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58
Q

What does intention to permanently deprive mean?

A

A person appropriating property belonging to another without meaning the other permanently to lose the thing itself is nevertheless to be regarded as having the intention of permanently depriving the other of it if his intention is to treat the thing as his own to dispose of regardless of the other’s rights; and a borrowing or lending of it may amount to so treating it if, but only if, the borrowing or lending is for a period and in circumstances making it equivalent to an outright taking or disposal.’

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59
Q

What does the court classify as under this requirement: Intention to treat the thing as their own to dispose of regardless of the other’s rights?

A

(1) The dictionary definition of ‘to dispose of’
- The defendant attempting to sell the owner their own property
- The defendant using the owner’s property for bargaining (ransom cases)
- Rendering the property useless.
(2) Intending to treat it in a manner which risks its loss.
(3) More than ‘dealing with’ is required.

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60
Q

Section 6(1) states an intention to treat the thing as their own to dispose of regardless of the others rights, will amount to an intention to permanently deprive which can mean:

A

(1) The dictionary definition of ‘to dispose of’- ‘to deal with definitely: to get rid of; to get done with, finish. To make over by way of sale or bargain, sell’, R v Cahill. Examples include:
- The defendant attempting to sell the owner their own property, R v Scott
- The defendant using the owner’s property for bargaining (ransom cases), R v Raphael.
- Rendering the property useless, DPP v J.
(2) Intending to treat it in a manner which risks its loss, R v Fernandes.
(3) More than ‘dealing with’ is required, R v Vinall.
(4) Borrowing or lending for a period and in circumstances making it equivalent to an outright taking or disposal, s 6(1). Was the intention to return it minus all its goodness, virtue and practical value? (R v Lloyd)
(5) Theft Act 1968, section s 6(2)- a person who parts with property under a condition as to its return, which they may not be able to perform.

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61
Q

What can appropriation include?

A

(a) A shopper switching a price label on a piece of meat – R v Morris [1984] AC 320.
(b) Property passing with the consent of the owner – DPP v Gomez [1993] AC 442 (where a
shop manager handed over goods on receipt of a fraudulent cheque).
(c) The receipt of a gift – R v Hinks [2000] UKHL 53.

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62
Q

Can D commit multiple thefts of the same property?

A

R v Atakpu [1994] QB 69 confirms that the
defendant can only commit theft of the property once.

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63
Q

What can someone cannot steal?

A

(a) Mushrooms, flowers, fruit or foliage growing wild on land
A person who picks these items is innocent of theft provided this was not done for reward,
sale or other commercial purposes. Thus, if a person picks a bunch of buttercups growing
by the roadside, the flowers will not be ‘property’ under s 1 of the TA 1968 unless they
intend to sell them.

(b) Wild creatures
Although wild creatures are excluded as property, there are exceptions. If a wild animal
is tamed or ordinarily kept in captivity, for example a lion in a zoo, it may be stolen.
Similarly, a wild creature that has been reduced into possession may be stolen; this would
apply if the owner of land had snared a wild rabbit and someone else then took it.

electricity and confidential information.

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64
Q

What is required for basic crim damage?

A

Destroy or damage
Property
Belonging to another
Without lawful excuse
Intention or recklessness as to the damage or destruction of property belonging to another

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65
Q

What constitutes as destroy or damage?

A

‘[Criminal damage includes] not only permanent or temporary physical harm but also permanent or temporary impairment of value or usefulness.’

Whether criminal damage has occurred is a
matter of fact and degree but, usually, if expense is incurred in rectifying the consequences of
the defendant’s act, this will be sufficient. An example would be:
*
drawing on a pavement using soluble chalks because the local authority would have to
pay the clean- up costs – Hardman v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary
[1986] Crim LR 330; but not
*
spitting on a police officer’s raincoat because this could simply be wiped off to restore
the jacket to its previous condition – A (a juvenile) v R [1978] Crim LR 689. (The lack of any
attempt to do so led to a small stain.)

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66
Q

What constitutes as property for criminal damage?

A

‘In this Act “property” means property of a tangible nature, whether real or personal, including money and-
(a) including wild creatures which have been tamed or are ordinarily kept in captivity, and any other wild creatures or their carcasses if, but only if, they have been reduced into possession which has not been lost or abandoned or are in the course of being reduced into possession; but
(b) not including mushrooms growing wild on any land or flowers, fruit or foliage of a plant growing wild on any land.

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67
Q

What constitutes as belonging to another?

A

‘Property shall be treated for the purposes of this Act as belonging to any person—
(a) having the custody or control of it;
(b) having in it any proprietary right or interest (not being an equitable interest arising only from an agreement to transfer or grant an interest); or
(c) having a charge on it.’

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68
Q

What constitutes as recklessness for crime damage?

A

The House of Lords, stated that to convict a person of reckless criminal damage the prosecution must prove that:
a) at the time of committing the actus reus, the accused was subjectively aware of a risk; and
b) in the circumstances known to the accused, it was objectively unreasonable for the accused to take that risk.

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69
Q

What is required for arson?

A

Arson is criminal damage by fire, however slight. Basic arson is charged under s 1(1) ands 1(3) CDA 1971. Below you can see the additions to the actus reus and mens rea:
Actus reus
* Destroy or damage by fire
* Property
* Belonging to another
* Without lawful excuse
Mens rea
Intention or recklessness as to the destruction or damage of property belonging to another by fire.

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70
Q

What constitutes as a lawful excuse?

A

Any general defence- where relevant, can apply to any offence of criminal damage/ arson under the CDA 1971 (s 5(5)); or
Section 5(2) CDA 1971 lawful excuse defences- where relevant, can apply to basic criminal damage or basic arson (but not the aggravated form of these offences which are covered in a separate element).
There are two lawful excuse defences in section 5(2) CDA 1971:
* section 5(2)(a): operates where the defendant believes that the owner would have consented to the damage; and
* section 5(2)(b): operates where the defendant acts to protect their or another’s property.

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71
Q

Does D’s belief for lawful excuse need to be reasonable?

A

No, only necessary for it to be honestly held.

This includes when D is intoxicated.

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72
Q

Can God consent to the damage?

A

however powerful, genuine and honestly held, that God had given consent was not a lawful excuse under the domestic law of England.

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73
Q

What are the four requirements for the section 5(2)(b) defence ?

A

a) R v Baker & Wilkins - The defendant must act to protect property.
b) Section 5(2)(b)(i)- The defendant must believe that the property was in immediate need of protection (subjective test, see s 5(3)).
c) Section 5(2)(b)(ii)- The defendant must believe that the means of protection adopted are reasonable (subjective test, see s 5(3)).
d) R v Hunt- The damage caused by the defendant must be (objectively) capable of protecting the property.

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74
Q

To which offences do the lawful excuse defences within the Criminal Damage Act 1971 section 5(2) potentially apply?

A

Basic criminal damage and basic arson

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75
Q

What is required for aggravated crim damage or arson?

A

Actus reus
* Destroy or damage (by fire)
* Property- s 10(1)
Mens rea
* Intention or recklessness as to the destruction or damage of property (by fire).
* Intention or recklessness as to the endangerment of life by the damage or destruction (by fire).

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76
Q

Does life need to be endangered for aggravated crim damage or arson?

A

No

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77
Q

How should danger to life arise foraggravated crim damage or arson?

A

Danger to life must arise from the damaged property, not the means of damaging it. If the damage is caused by fire, the risk to life will always be from the damaged property, R v Steer.

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78
Q

Do the lawful excuse defences in section 5(2) apply to aggravated criminal damage or aggravated arson?

A

No

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79
Q

Lawful excuse?

A

s 5(2)(a) – Honest belief in the owner’s consent – subjective
s 5(2)(b) – Protection of property
*
Was D’s (real) purpose the protection of property? – objective
*
If yes, did D honestly believe:

​ the property was in immediate need of protection; and

​ the means adopted were reasonable? – subjective

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80
Q

AR and MR for murder?

A

The actus reus- that the defendant unlawfully killed another human being under the Queen’s peace; and

· The mens rea- that the defendant committed the actus reus with malice aforethought, meaning intention to kill or intention to cause grievous bodily harm; and

· No valid defence- such as self-defence.

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81
Q

A solider lawfully kills an enemy in battle. What criminal liability is the solider likely to have, if any?

A

None

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82
Q

A disgruntled ex-employee feels he is owed money from his former employer and wants to make her pay. The ex-employee goes to his former place of employment and stabs the manager with his knife, killing her.

What criminal liability is the ex-employee likely to have, if any?

A

Murder

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83
Q

A homeowner who had been previously burgled, suffers from paranoia and post traumatic stress disorder (which will be recognised medical conditions for the purposes of diminished responsibility). The homeowner, who now believes that everyone that comes onto his land is an intruder, shoots a delivery person in the back of the head as they are walking back to their van having dropped off a package. The delivery person dies.

Self-defence is only available if the homeowner uses force that is not grossly disproportionate.

What criminal liability is the homeowner likely to have, if any?

A

Voluntary manslaughter

On the face of it, the homeowner has the actus reus and mens rea of murder. As the homeowner suffers from paranoia and post traumatic stress disorder, this suggests he may be able to rely on the partial defence of diminished responsibility. Self-defence is unlikely to be available in this scenario as the homeowner has acted with grossly disproportionate force.

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84
Q

When is it lawful to kill?

A

Killing enemy soldiers in battle;
* Advancement of justice- an example of this is the lawful application of the death penalty. Although we no longer have the death penalty in this country there are occasions when person could be tried in this country for a killing which occurred in a country which does have the death penalty;
* Self-defence- killing will be lawful where the force used was reasonable and necessary to prevent crime or protect self, others or property.

85
Q

What happens if a pregnant women is stabbed and this causes her child to be born prematurely and die?

A

The child was not a live person when stabbed and therefore this could not be murder.

86
Q

What are the types of voluntary manslaughter?

A

Diminished responsibility and loss of control

87
Q

Who is the burden of proof on for diminished responsibility?

A

The burden falls upon the defence to prove on the balance of probabilities that the defendant was acting under diminished responsibility

88
Q

What are the elements of diminished responsibility?

A

D must have an abnormality of mental functioning (s 2(1)), meaning ‘state of mind so different from that of ordinary human beings that the reasonable man would term it abnormal’, R v Byrne.
* The abnormality of mental functioning must:
* Arise from a recognised medical condition (s 2(1)(a))which can be diagnosed or not at the time of the killing. D must not be acting out of hatred, jealousy or bad temper.
* Have substantially impaired (something greater than ‘more than merely trivial’, R v Golds) the defendant’s ability (s 2(1)(b)) to understand the nature of D’s conduct, form a rational judgment and/ or exercise self-control, s 2(1A).
* Provide an explanation for D’s conduct (s 2(1)(c)), even if it is not the only cause, s 2(1B) and Dietschmann.
* Diminished responsibility is not available for attempted murder, R v Campbell.

89
Q

Would an undiagnosed recognised medical condition at the time of the killing be sufficient for diminished responsibility?

A

Yes

90
Q

Which of the following best describes the sentencing powers available to a judge in respect of a defendant who is found to have killed under diminished responsibility?

Mandatory life sentence

Acquittal

Sentencing discretion

A

Sentencing discretion

91
Q

When would medical expert evidence be useful for diminished responsibility?

A

For all the elements

92
Q

What are the requirements for the loss of control defence?

A

There are three key requirements of the loss of control defence:
* D must have lost self-control;
* due to the fear and/ or anger qualifying trigger; and
* a person of the defendant’s sex and age, with a normal degree of tolerance and self-
restraint and in the circumstances of the defendant, might have reacted in the same or in
a similar way as the defendant did.

93
Q

What constitutes loss of control?

A

defendants must be unable to restrain themselves. A mere loss of temper would not be enough. This need not be sudden.

The defence will be lost should it be established that the defendant was acting out of a ‘considered desire for revenge’,

94
Q

What can be qualifying triggers for loss of control?

A

Fear

Anger

95
Q

What is needed for the anger trigger?

A

things said and/ or done;

that constitute circumstances of an extremely grave nature;

and
that caused D to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged.

96
Q

When can D not rely on the anger trigger?

A

D cannot rely on the anger trigger if:
* D incited it as an excuse to use violence, sections 55(6)(b); or
* The thing said/done constituted sexual infidelity- section 55(6)(c)

97
Q

What is the normal person test for loss of control?

A

‘a person of D’s sex and age, with a normal degree of tolerance and self-restraint and in the circumstances of D, might have reacted in the same or in a similar way to D.’

98
Q

What are the limitations to the loss of control defence?

A

The defence of loss of control cannot be used:
* In an act of ‘considered desire for revenge’- section 54(4) CJA 2009.
* As an excuse to use violence- sections 55(6)(a) and (b). It is not enough that the defendant ‘started it’.
* If the thing said/done constituted sexual infidelity- section 55(6)(c). However, it is likely that in most cases where sexual infidelity has caused the defendant to lose their self-control, there will be other factors which could make up a qualifying trigger. It will then be possible to include sexual infidelity within the argument that a qualifying trigger exists, to ensure that the jury has the ‘whole story’.
* For attempted murder,see R v Campbell and Smith, Hogan and Ormerod’s, Criminal Law.

99
Q

Can intoxication be used to find diminished responsibility?

A

Voluntary intoxication is not, on its own, capable of being relied upon to found the defence of diminished responsibility, Dowds. If the defendant has an abnormality of mental functioning (AMF) and is voluntarily intoxicated,

Can only be used if D has alcohol dependency syndrome

100
Q

How does intoxication operate within loss of control?

A

Did D lose self-control?

Did D act due to the fear or anger qualifying trigger?

D’s drug or alcohol addition can be taken into account in assessing the magnitude of the qualifying anger trigger if D was taunted about the addiction.
Normal person test- an intoxicated person is not precluded from using the defence. If D is addicted to drugs or alcohol this will be a characteristic given to the normal person but the normal person will still have normal levels of tolerance and self-restraint and be sober, Asmelash.

101
Q

A defendant is a drug addict who kills under a loss of control having been taunted about his addiction by the victim. The defendant was intoxicated at the time. When considering the defendant’s criminal liability at what point in your loss of control analysis will you take into account the addiction?

A

The anger trigger and the normal person test

102
Q

What are the requirements for unlawful act manslaughter?

A

he court stated that to be guilty of the offence the prosecution must prove that:
(1) the defendants intentionally (voluntarily) did an act;
(2) the act was unlawful;
(3) the unlawful act was dangerous; and
(4) the unlawful act caused the death of the victim.

103
Q

What constitutes an unlawful act for unlawful act manslaughter?

A

There are three aspects to the defendant’s act being unlawful. It must be:
* a criminal act;
* an intrinsically unlawful act; and
* an act rather than an omission.

104
Q

How does supplying drugs work for unlawful act manslaughter?

A

(4) The unlawful act caused the death of the victim- the act must have both factually and legally caused the death of the victim. If D:
* directly administers a drug to V, D causes V’s death as consent by the V is no defence- Cato.
* merely supplies V with the drugs, or assists V, D does not cause V’s death, so long as V is a fully informed and responsible adult who freely and voluntarily self-administers, Kennedy.

105
Q

What is the test for whether the unlawful act was dangerous for the purposes of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

Sober and reasonable people would inevitably recognise must subject the other person to, at least, the risk of some harm, albeit not serious harm

106
Q

What are the requirements for gross negligence manslaughter?

A

The basic requirements for gross negligence manslaughter as laid down in Adomako are as follows:
a) the existence of a duty of care;
b) breach of that duty;
c) that the breach causes death;
d) that there was a risk of death; and
e) that the breach of duty was so bad as to amount to ‘gross negligence’.

107
Q

What is duty of care?

A

The existence of a duty of care- everyone has a general duty to take care to avoid injury by a positive act to their neighbour. Liability can arise for an omission in circumstances where the defendant is under a specific duty to act.

108
Q

What is the test for whether there is a risk of death for the purposes of gross negligence manslaughter?

A

Was there an obvious and serious risk not merely of injury or even serious injury, but of death?

109
Q

Types of voluntary manslaughter?

A

The three situations where the law recognises that a person who has killed another with the
necessary mens rea for murder should be treated differently are:
(a) diminished responsibility;
(b) loss of control; and
(c) suicide pact

110
Q

4 elements for diminished responsibility?

A

(a) an abnormality of mental functioning; which
(b) arose from a recognised medical condition; and
(c) substantially impaired the defendant’s ability to understand the nature of their conduct,
and/ or form a rational judgment and/ or exercise self- control; and
(d) provides an explanation for the defendant’s act or omission in doing the killing.

111
Q

Substantial impairment of the defendant’s ability?

A

they must also demonstrate that this impaired their ability to do one of the three things set out
in s 2(1A) of the Homicide Act 1957, specifically:
(a) to understand the nature of their conduct; and/ or
(b) form a rational judgment; and/ or
(c) exercise self- control.

112
Q

Factors that may satisfy the test for considered desire for revenge?

A

(a) the defendant arms themselves with a weapon;
(b) there is evidence of planning; or
(c) there is a significant delay between the provoking words or conduct and the killing.

113
Q

How can sexual infeditly be considered for loss of control?

A

*
Sexual infidelity cannot be relied upon on its own as a qualifying trigger, but its existence
does not prevent reliance on the defence where there are other qualifying triggers.
*
Where other factors suggest a qualifying trigger, sexual infidelity may also be taken
into account in assessing whether things done or said amounted to circumstances of an
extremely grave character and gave the defendant a justifiable sense of being seriously
wronged.
*
Sexual infidelity can be taken into account in the third component of the defence in
examining whether a person of the defendant’s sex and age, with a normal degree of
tolerance and self- restraint and in the circumstances of the defendant, might have reacted
in the same or in a similar way.

114
Q

Test for dangerous act for unlawful act manslaughter?

A

all sober and reasonable people would inevitably recognise must subject the
other person to, at least, the risk of some harm … albeit not serious harm.

In determining whether the reasonable person would have recognised a risk of some harm,
they are deemed to have the knowledge the defendant had, or should have had, at the time
of the offence.

115
Q

How do the courts assess whether a duty of care exists?

A

A defendant will only be liable for gross negligence manslaughter if a duty exists. Determining
this issue is a matter of both law and fact.
*
Where there is a clear duty, as between a medical practitioner and a patient, or a
statutory duty, the judge can direct the jury that a duty of care exists.
*
Where the existence of a duty is not clear, the judge must decide whether there is any
evidence that is capable of establishing one. If not, the offence falls at the first hurdle.
*
If there is such evidence, the jury will determine whether a duty of care is present in the
scenario before it.

116
Q

What are the three ways of committing fraud?

A

fraud by false representation, section 2;
* fraud by failure to disclose, section 3; and
* fraud by abuse of position, section 4.

117
Q

What the requirements for fraud by false representation?

A

Actus reus- false representation
* Express or implied representation
* Representation as to fact, law or state of mind
* Representation must be untrue or misleading
A false representation can arise in certain circumstances of overcharging (Silverman, Jones) and representations include those made to a machine (s 2(5)).
Mens rea-
* Dishonesty- use the test from Ivey v Genting Casinos
* Mens rea for the false statement
* Intention to make a gain or cause a loss- see s 5

118
Q

What can an implied representation arise from?

A

what the defendant says- in R v King [1979] Crim LR 122 a second-hand car dealer who stated that the mileage reading on a particular car ‘may not be correct’ impliedly represented that he was not certain the reading was wrong when in fact he knew it was wrong as he had altered it; or

the defendant’s conduct- in DPP v Ray [1974] AC 370 the court held that the respondent made a continuing implied representation when entering a restaurant, ordering and eating a meal that he had the means and the intention of paying for it before he left.
Pure silence, without an accompanying action cannot amount to a representation, R v Twaite.

119
Q

What is required for fraud by failure to disclose?

A

Actus reus-
* Existence of a legal duty to disclose e.g. from statute, a transaction of the utmost good faith, contained in the express or implied terms of a contract, arising from a custom in a particular trade or market or arising from a fiduciary relationship.
* Failure to disclose information to another person- a matter of fact.
Mens rea-
* Dishonesty - use the test from Ivey v Genting Casinos
(i) What was the defendant’s knowledge and belief as to the facts?
(ii) Given that knowledge and those beliefs, was the defendant dishonest by the standards of ordinary decent people?
* Intention to make a gain or cause a loss- see s 5.

120
Q

What type of legal duty to disclose is a contract of insurance?

A

A duty within a transaction of the utmost good faith

121
Q

Can you be criminally liable for fraud by failure to disclose if there was no gain or loss?

A

Yes

the mens rea does not require an actual gain or loss just an intention to make a gain, cause a loss or expose someone to a risk of loss.

122
Q

What is required for fraud by abuse of position?

A

Actus reus
* Occupy a position- which requires D to look after V’s financial wellbeing. Determined on a case-by-case basis. Can be a professional, fiduciary or long-term business relationship or even within the family or voluntary work.
* Abuse that position – use it incorrectly or put it to improper use, R v Pennock and Pennock
Mens rea
* Dishonesty - use the test from Ivey v Genting Casinos:
(i) What was the defendant’s knowledge and belief as to the facts?
(ii) Given that knowledge and those beliefs, was the defendant dishonest by the standards of ordinary decent people?
* Intention to make a gain or cause a loss- see s 5

123
Q

Can fraud by abuse of position be committed by omission?

A

Yes

124
Q

Who decides whether the defendant occupies a position for the purposes of fraud by abuse of position?

A

The judge and the jury have a role in this

The jury will decide on the facts whether the necessary relationship exists for D to have occupied a position in which they are expected to safeguard or not act against the financial interests of another person. However, before the jury decide this, the judge will consider whether the particular facts are capable of giving rise to D occupying a position and may give specific directions to the jury on this point.

125
Q

A man starts visiting his elderly neighbour, helping with her shopping and collecting her pension from the Post Office. How is the man occupying a position for the purposes of fraud by abuse of position?

A

Voluntary work

126
Q

Examples of when there is legal duty to disclose?

A

xamples of where there is a legal
duty to disclose would include those derived from:
*
statute (such as the provisions governing company prospectuses or the requirement to
notify a change in circumstances in relation to a welfare benefits claim);
*
the fact that the transaction is one of utmost good faith (for example, contracts of
insurance);
*
the express or implied terms of the contract;
*
the custom of a particular trade or market; and
*
the existence of a fiduciary relationship between the parties (such as agent and
principal).

127
Q

Examples of position for abuse of position?

A

he FA 2006 does not define the
word ‘position’, but suggested examples are between:
*
trustee and beneficiary;
*
director and company;
*
professional person and client;
*
agent and principal;
*
employee and employer.

128
Q

Actus reus?

A

The actus reus elements of an offence are all those that do not relate to the state of mind
of the defendant.

129
Q

Mens rea?

A

Mens rea is the technical term for the mental state required for a particular offence.
If the prosecution cannot achieve this, the accused will not be convicted.

130
Q

What can the defence of intoxication be used for?

A

A way to negate the mens rea of an offence; or

An influencing factor on another legal principle/ defence.

131
Q

When can intoxication operate to negate the mens rea?

A

In any crime where the intoxication is caused by drink or drugs taken involuntarily, i.e. ‘spiking’ or ‘lacing’ someone’s drink or food with a drug or alcohol.

In any crime where the intoxication is caused by drugs taken voluntarily, but in bona fide pursuance of medical treatment.

In any crime where the intoxication is caused by non-dangerous drugs taken voluntarily (dangerous drugs are those which are illegal or alcohol)

In crimes where a specific intent is required (generally where the offence cannot be committed recklessly).

132
Q

What Qs should you ask to see if intoxication negates MR?

A

Is the defendant voluntarily intoxicated or involuntarily intoxicated?

Is the intoxicant a dangerous alcohol/drug or a non-dangerous drug?

Is it a crime of basic intent or specific intent?

133
Q

When can voluntary intoxication be a defence?

A

A
The House of Lords held that voluntary intoxication could be a defence to a charge of specific intent, where the defendant’s intoxication negated the mens rea required for the offence charged.
However, voluntary intoxication would not be a defence to a charge of basic intent.

134
Q

How does intoxication work to negate MR?

A

Intoxication working to negate the mens rea
The court will ask did the defendant form the mens rea even though intoxicated?
* If yes- a drunken intent is still intent, D will be criminally liable, see Kingston. Another example would be if D takes drugs or alcohol in order to commit a specific intent crime (sometimes referred to as ‘Dutch courage’).
* If no- D lacks the mens rea and will be acquitted e.g. D was so intoxicated they did not know what they were doing.
The court will ask did the defendant form the mens rea even though intoxicated, in cases of:
* Involuntary intoxication (such as being drugged without consent);
* Voluntary intoxication by non-dangerous drugs (e.g. Hardie, the D who took Valium to calm his nerves); or
* Voluntary intoxication and D has committed a specific intent crime (e.g. murder).
Where D is voluntary intoxicated by dangerous drugs/ alcohol and commits a less serious crime of basic intent (where recklessness is a form of mens rea available), the defendant will be deemed reckless if they would have foresaw the risk of harm if sober, Coley, McGhee and

135
Q

How does intoxication work with the other defences?

A

A
Intoxication and other defences
* Self-defence- D cannot rely on a drunken mistake as to the need to use self-defence.
* Loss of control and diminished responsibility- can still be pleaded if D was intoxicated but it does impact various aspects of the legal analysis.
* Consent- if the jury are satisfied that V consented to the accidental infliction of injury or D (even wrongly) believed that V consented (due to their intoxication), D may have a defence, Richardson & Irwin.
* Statutory defences- where these allow for an honest belief, D will be able to use the defence even if their belief is due to voluntary intoxication, see Jaggard v Dickinson on the lawful excuse defence for criminal damage.

136
Q

Involuntary intoxication may be raised successfully as a defence to which crimes?

A

Crimes of both specific and basic intent involving dangerous or non-dangerous substances

137
Q

When will intoxication prevent the defendant from using another defence?

A

When a drunken mistake caused the defendant to use self-defence

138
Q

What is the question a court will ask regarding a defendant’s mens rea if they are voluntarily intoxicated by dangerous drugs/ alcohol and commit a basic intent offence?

A

Would the defendant have formed the mens rea if sober?

139
Q

what happens if D has a valid justification or excuse for their behaviour?

A

If a valid and complete defence exists, D will not be criminally liable.

140
Q

Can consent prevent D from being liable for a crime?

A

Sometimes

For example, for property offences there is a statutory defence for a defendant who believes the owner consents. This is found in the Criminal Damage Act 1971, s 5(2)(a) and the Theft Act 1968, s 2(1)(b).

141
Q

What are the elements for the defence of consent?

A

There are two elements to consent, whether the:
- victim consented; or
- defendant honestly believed the victim consented.

It is for the prosecution to prove both that the victim did not consent and that the defendant did not believe in the victim’s consent. So if the defendant wrongly believed the victim consented, the defence could be available, R v Richardson and Irwin. Equally if the victim consented, even if the defendant did not know this, the defence could be available. Whether the defence of consent is available will depend on the level of harm inflicted on the victim and the circumstance in which the harm was inflicted.

142
Q

When is consent a defence to an offence against the person?

A

The general rule is that consent is only available as a defence to assault and battery.

Consent is available as a defence, even where actual bodily harm or worse is caused provided the defendant:
* intended only to commit a battery with the consent of the victim; and
* did not see the risk of inflicting actual bodily harm.

If however, the defendant intended to cause actual bodily harm, then consent is not available as a defence, even if the victim consented (unless the conduct falls into one of the exceptions which follow).

143
Q

What the requirements for consent for offences against the person?

A

s the offence more than assault/ battery?
· No- Consent is available if: V consented or D honestly believed that V was consenting.
· Yes- Did D intend to cause ABH or above?
o Yes- Consent is no available unless any of the exceptions apply.
o No & did not see risk- Consent is available, Meachen.
o No & reckless- No guidance from court but if prohibited harm then check to see if one of the exceptions apply.

144
Q

What are the exceptions to the general rule that consent is only available as a defence to assault and battery? If ABH was caused what are the exceptions for consent that could be used for D’s defence?

A

the victim can consent to offences against the person of ABH and above if the situation falls under one of the public interest exceptions such as:

Medical treatment;
Sport;
Horseplay;
Tattooing, body piercing and personal adornment; and
Sexual gratification/ accidental infliction of harm.

145
Q

What is the exception for consent for medical treatment?

A

Consent can be given for surgery and other medical treatment that causes harm. Consent can be given to a high risk of death.

146
Q

What is the exception for consent for sport?

A

Consent to incidental injury during sport - but if the offence against the person is caused “off the ball” there is no defence of consent

147
Q

Consent to incidental injury during sport - but if the offence against the person is caused “off the ball” there is no defence of consent

A

R v Jones (1986) 83 Cr App R 375
Some boys at a youth club tossed two other boys into the air, resulting in one suffering a ruptured spleen and the other a broken arm. The Court of Appeal held that they ought to have been allowed to raise the issue of consent to injuries sustained through ‘rough and undisciplined’ horseplay, for the jury to then consider.

148
Q

What is the exception for consent for Tattooing, body piercing and personal adornment?

A

R v Wilson [1997] QB 47 (CA)
FACTS: The defendant used a hot knife to brand his initials onto the buttocks of his wife, at her request. He argued consent to a charge under the OAPA 1861 s 47, and was successful.

DOES NOT INCLUDE BODY MODIFICATION in particular the removal of an ear, the removal of a nipple and the division of a tongue into a fork like a reptile, in the category of tattooing and personal adornment.

149
Q

What is the exception for consent for Sexual gratification/ accidental infliction of harm exception?

A

R v Dica [2004] QB 1257
The Court of Appeal held that if the complainant consents to the risk of contracting HIV through having sexual intercourse, the defendant does have a defence to a charge under the OAPA 1861, s 20.

R v Brown
The consensual sadomasochistic activity that occurred in R v Brown such as burning their genitals or beatings for sexual pleasure was not deemed to be a suitable exception. The courts considered the nature of the act rather than the circumstance in which it occurred.

R v Emmett (1999) The Times, 15 October
FACTS: The parties were involved in consensual activities with the defendant tying a plastic bag over his fiancée’s head in order to increase her sexual pleasure. He also, with her consent, poured lighter fuel on her breasts and set fire to it.
HELD: The court saw this as violent conduct which moved beyond those acts which can be consented to.

150
Q

What is another defence for offence against the person that is not consent?

A

A parent has a defence of reasonable chastisement in applying force to a child.

In considering whether or not a parent could use this defence, the jury must look at the nature and context of the parent’s behaviour, its duration, the physical and mental consequences for the child, and the reasons why the punishment was inflicted.

151
Q

What does self-defence refer to?

A

here a person acts to:
* protect themselves;
* protect someone else;
* protect property;
* prevent a crime; or
* assist in the arrest of an offender.

152
Q

What are the statutory and common law defences for self-defence?

A

The CJIA 2008, s 76(2) identifies the defences to which the section applies:
(a) the common law defence of self-defence; and
(aa) the common law defence of defence of property; and
(5) the defence provided by section 3(1) of the Criminal Law Act 1967 … (use of force in prevention of crime or making arrest).

The common law defence envisaged two possible reasons for acting:
* In the protection of life and limb of yourself or another: see e.g. R v Gladstone Williams(1984) 78 Cr App R 276 (CA).
* In the protection of property: R v Hussey (1925) 18 Cr App R 160 (CA).

153
Q

When can self-defence be used?

A

self defence can only be used to protect yourself or another, or property from imminent attack: i.e. from a threat of physical force, not a threat to one’s peace of mind

154
Q

What is the test for self-defence?

A

A defendant is entitled to rely on any of these defences if:
* the defendant honestly believed that the use of force was necessary; and
* the level of force the defendant used in response was objectively reasonable in the circumstances as the defendant believed them to be.

These requirements are know as the trigger and response.

155
Q

What kind of defence is self-defence?

A

It is a complete defence, so D will either be acquitted by self-defence or the defence will fail

156
Q

How is D honestly believed that the use of force was necessary is assessed?

A

A defendant is to be judged on the facts as they subjectively believed them to be, whether the belief is reasonable or not.
For instance, if a defendant mistakenly believed that they were being attacked with a deadly weapon and used such force as was reasonable to repel an attack with a deadly weapon, then D has a defence; it is immaterial that they were mistaken and they were in fact being attacked with something less deadly.

157
Q

Will mistaken belief for self-defence be valid if D was intoxicated?

A

If the mistaken belief is due to the voluntary intoxication of the defendant, then the defendant will not be able to rely on their mistake

158
Q

Can self-defence be anticipatory?

A

A defendant may make the first blow and still rely on the defence.

159
Q

Can self-defence be used by the antagonist?

A

Yes

160
Q

Can Force can be used against an innocent third party?

A

this defence was capable of extending to the use of force against an innocent third party to prevent a crime being committed by someone else. The court felt that facts capable of giving rise to such a defence would only rarely be encountered and might include:
* a police constable bundling a passerby out of the way to get at a person the constable believed was about to shoot a firearm or detonate an explosive device; or
* a person seeking to give car keys to another to enable them to drive and X, believing that other to be unfit to drive through drink, knocked the keys out of the first person’s hands and retained them.

161
Q

When does the reasonableness of the level of force in self-defence differentiate?

A

non-‘householder’ cases; and
* ‘householder’ cases

162
Q

What are the relevant provisions for non ‘householder’ cases?

A

considering the force used, the jury must decide if the force used was objectively reasonable, given the facts as the defendant subjectively believed them to be, CJIA 2008, s 76(3), s76(4) ands76(6).

163
Q

question to be asked when judging whether the response was reasonable for the purposes of self-defence?

A

Was the level of force used objectively reasonable in the circumstances as D subjectively believed them to be?

164
Q

What is a householder case?

A

A householder case is one where D:
* Acts to protect themselves or another.
* Uses force while in or partly in a building, or part of a building, that is a dwelling (including vehicles, vessels and buildings that are dwellings and places of work if connected by an internal access route);
* Is not a trespasser at the time the force is used; and
* Believed the victim to be in, or entering, the building or part as a trespasser.

165
Q

What are the two Qs asked to the jury for householder cases?

A

Was the force grossly disproportionate in the circumstances as D believed them to be? If it was, there can be no defence.

If not, was the level of force reasonable? The jury should take into account that the level of force should not be weighed to a nicety and that if the defendant believed in a moment of unexpected anguish that they were using reasonable force, that was very good evidence that the force was reasonable. R v Ray (Steven) listed circumstances which the jury should consider in determining whether the degree of force used by a householder was reasonable e.g. the shock of coming upon an intruder, the time of day, the vulnerability of the occupants, particularly children etc.

166
Q

How does the general defence of intoxication work?

A

The general defence of intoxication can work by negating the mens rea for the offence or is a relevant consideration to another legal principle or another defence.

167
Q

How does the self-defence defence work?

A

Self-defence requires the ‘trigger’ that the use of force is necessary and a ‘response’ that the level of force is reasonable. What is deemed reasonable will depend on whether it is a householder or non-householder case.

168
Q

How does consent as a defence work?

A

Consent is available for offences of assault or battery and may be available for offences of ABH or higher depending on the circumstances and/or whether any exceptions apply.

169
Q

When is the defence of consent implied?

A

s the law that people impliedly consent to the inevitable physical contact that occurs as
part of everyday life.

170
Q

When is consent valid?

A

*
Consent is only valid if it is freely given by a fully informed and competent adult.
*
Consent is not valid if it is obtained by fraud as to the identity of the defendant or fraud
as to the nature and quality of the act.

171
Q

When do householder cases for self-defence apply?

A

A ‘householder’ case is defined in the statute as one in which the defendant uses force in self-
defence or in defence of another while in or partly in:
*
a building or part of a building that is a dwelling;
*
forces accommodation; or
*
a vehicle or vessel that is a dwelling.

172
Q

How do you distinguish between principal offenders and accessories?

A

The principal (P) is the person who, with appropriate mens rea, commits the actus reus of the offence. It is always possible to have more than one principal.

There are five ways in which someone can be liable as an accessory.
(1) To aid
(2) To abet
(3) To counsel
(4) To procure
(5) To be a party to a joint enterprise.

173
Q

Can someone be guilty of an offence if another person performs the AR?

A

n certain circumstances, a person may be guilty of an offence as a principal, even if another person actually performs the actus reus. This occurs where the person acting can be described as an ‘innocent agent’.

174
Q

What are examples of innocent agents?

A

A woman gave a child a dose of poison and the child gave it to the victim.
The woman was the principal offender.

An employer told his employees to make accounting transactions which (unknown to those employees) resulted in fraudulent transfers. The employer was the principal and the employees were innocent agents.

175
Q

What are the five ways in which someone can be liable as an accessory?

A

(1) To aid
(2) To abet
(3) To counsel
(4) To procure
(5) To be a party to a joint enterprise.

With the exception of procuring, these actions can be summarised as ‘assisting or encouraging the commission of the principal’s offence’.

176
Q

What is the AR and MR for accessory liability?

A

Actus reus
Any of the following five ways:
* To aid P in committing the offence
* To abet P in committing the offence
* To counsel P in committing the offence
* To procure P to commit the offence
* To be a party to a joint enterprise with P regarding one offence and during the enterprise P commits a second, different offence

Mens rea
* An intention to assist or encourage the principal’s conduct.
* If the crime requires a mens rea, an intention that the principal will do the actus reus with that mens rea. (Procuring would appear to be an exception to this rule.)
* Knowledge of existing facts or circumstances necessary for the offence to be criminal.

177
Q

What is the general rule for withdrawal with regards to secondary liability?

A

something must be done and communicated to the principal in the case of pre-panned violence (but not necessarily spontaneous violence) or a law enforcement agency.

178
Q

Conviction of secondary party and acquittal of principal?

A

Conviction of a secondary party and acquittal of the principal is possible and could occur when the principal has been acquitted due to insufficient evidence or the principal could not be found.
As long as it is clear that someone has committed the offence to which D was a secondary party, D can be convicted.

179
Q

How do attempts work with regard to secondary liability?

A

It is not an offence to attempt to aid, abet, counsel or procure an offence.

It is an offence to aid, abet, counsel or procure an attempt to commit an offence.

180
Q

Who decides whether a person has withdrawn from a joint enterprise?

A

The jury

181
Q

What does to aid P in committing the offence mean?

A

giving help, support or assistance before or at the time of the offence e.g. giving information, supplying tools or driving P

182
Q

What does to abet P in committing the offence mean?

A

incite, instigate or encourage P at the time of the offence which must be communicated to P.

Mere presence at the scene of the crime is not necessarily enough. If D has a right or duty to control the actions of another and refrains from doing so, this can be abetting e.g. parent, employer.

183
Q

To counsel P in committing the offence?

A

giving P advice or encouragement before the offence is committed.

There must be contact and consensus between P and D along with a connection between the advice and the crime.

Causation isn’t needed.

184
Q

To procure P to commit the offence?

A

to produce by endeavour. There must be a causal link between D’s act and P’s commission of the offence

185
Q

To be a party to a joint enterprise with P regarding one offence and during the enterprise P commits a second, different offence?

A

e.g. P and D commit burglary as principals, P murders the homeowner, D becomes an accessory to P’s murder.

186
Q

An intention to assist or encourage the principal’s conduct?

A

D must intend:
* to do the act which aids or encourages; and
* it to aid or encourage the commission of the crime (oblique intent is sufficient, conditional intent may be sufficient).

187
Q

What if he crime requires a mens rea (with regards to secondary liability)?

A

Conditional intention is enough here.

D can be liable for greater harm than intended for crimes where the MR does not correspond with the AR e.g. D might intend P do serious harm but if P does serious harm and V dies, D will be liable as an accessory to P’s murder.

188
Q

Knowledge of existing facts or circumstances necessary for the offence to be criminal?

A

e.g. if the offence requires lack of consent, D must know that the victim does not consent.

A defendant who deliberately shuts their eyes to the obvious has knowledge.

D need not know the exact details of the crime which will be committed e.g. V’s identity, the day of the crime or which of a number of crimes D knows P could commit.

189
Q

Joint principals (or
co- principals)?

A

Where two or more people perform
the actus reus and the mens rea of
an offence together.

190
Q

When is a mental link required?

A

For abetting and counselling

191
Q

Situations where P is not convicted but A is?

A

1)he principal offender will escape liability as they satisfy the court, they have a
defence.
2)accomplice may be convicted is where the principal
cannot be found.

192
Q

Innocent agent?

A

An innocent agent is someone who commits the actus reus of a crime but who is not guilty of
the offence because they lack the mens rea.

193
Q

How can A withdraw participation?

A

Where the defendant has a change of heart before the offence takes place, they may do so
by communicating that withdrawal. However, this must be timely and unequivocal.

Where the defendant decides to withdraw after the offence has begun, they must do more
than simply communicate their intention to do so.

Words alone may suffice where the withdrawal takes place before the offence, unless
physical assistance has also been given.

194
Q

What happens if P goes beyond the scope of the crime?

A

If the principal goes beyond the scope of the plan, the accomplice must intend to assist
or encourage the principal in the commission of the ‘new’ offence. Foresight of what the
principal might do is evidence of such intent but no more.

195
Q

What is an inchoate offence?

A

An inchoate offence occurs when the defendant takes some steps towards committing a crime but the full offence is not committed.

196
Q

What is the AR and MR for inchoate offences?

A

· Actus reus (AR)- An act which is more than merely preparatory to the commission of an offence;

· Mens rea (MR)- An intention to commit the full offence e.g. for attempted murder, the defendant must have an intention to kill; and

· Absence of a valid defence- A defendant cannot be convicted for a non-existent crime, Taaffe.

197
Q

What does ‘An act which is more than merely preparatory.’ mean?

A

‘An attempt begins when the merely preparatory acts come to an end and the defendant embarks on the crime proper or the actual commission of the offence.’

198
Q

What are examples of merely preparatory acts?

A

Being outside a post office with a threatening note and fake gun (not attempted robbery, Campbell (1990) 93 Cr App R 350)

Being in school toilets with a knife and rope but no schoolchildren (not attempted false imprisonment, Geddes [1996] Crim LR 894)

199
Q

What are examples of acts that are more than merely predatory?

A

Getting into a car with a loaded gun and pointing it at the victim (attempted murder, Jones (1990) 91 Cr App R 351)

Looking at a padlock with cutting equipment in the hedge (attempted burglary, Tosti [1997] Crim LR 746)

200
Q

Is recklessness enough for an inchoate offence?

A

No, proof of intention is required

201
Q

Is conditional intention enough for the MR of inchoate offences?

A

Yes

202
Q

Is oblique intent enough for the MR of inchoate offences?

A

Yes, if D saw the result as a virtual certainty

203
Q

Can an inchoate offence be committed when the crime is non-existent (accused believes that what they are doing is an offence, whereas it is in fact lawful)?

A

No

204
Q

Can an inchoate offence be committed when there is impossibility through inadequacy (Impossibility through inadequacy arises where the crime itself is perfectly feasible, but the defendants adopt, or seek to adopt, a method that cannot work)?

A

Yes

205
Q

Can an inchoate offence be committed when there is impossibility in fact (they cannot commit the offence they thought they could/did)?

e.g. if D stabs V, but V is already dead,

A

Yes

if D stabs V, but V is already dead, then D will be liable for attempted murder.

206
Q

What is the mens rea for attempted murder?

A

Intention to kill

207
Q

Kevin breaks into a garage that his next door neighbour uses and steals a bicycle. When Kevin’s solicitor investigates the ownership of the garage, he finds that the neighbour has built the garage on land owned by Kevin. He has been charged with attempted burglary. Kevin has broken onto his own land.

Which of the three types of impossibility would be relevant here?

A

Impossible in fact

208
Q

Donna is fed up with her husband Tim. She tells her sister Ursula that she wants to kill him. Ursula lends Donna a gun that Ursula bought the previous week. Donna produces the gun that night whilst Tim is in bed and pulls the trigger. Unknown to either Donna or Ursula, the gun is a replica which is unable to fire. Donna is charged with attempted murder.

Which of the three types of impossibility would be relevant here?

A

Impossibility through inadequacy

209
Q

Three types of impossibility?

A

Impossibility through non-existent crimes (acts as a defence)

Impossibility in fact

Impossibility through inadequacy