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Bacteriology Midterms > LABORATORY > Flashcards

LABORATORY Flashcards

1
Q

A beta-hemolytic streptococcus that has been isolated from an ear culture grows up to the
edge of a 0.04-unit bacitracin disk. Which of the following tests would help to determine if
the organism is Enterococcus?
a. growth in 6.5% NaCl broth
b. growth in the presence of penicillin
c. optochin susceptibility
d. fermentation of 10% lactose

A

growth in 6.5% NaCl broth

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2
Q

A reliable test for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is:
a. optochin susceptibility
b. catalase
c. coagulase
d. oxidase

A

coagulase

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3
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue Agar inhibits the growth of the following except:
a. fungi
b. gram-positive bacteria
c. none of the above
d. gram-negative bacteria

A

fungi

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4
Q

A zone of _______ in Optochin Susceptibility test is considered susceptible and presumptive
identification for Streptococcus pneumoniae.

a. 12 mm
b. 8 to 10 mm
c. 14 to 16 mm

A

14 to 16 mm

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5
Q

All are examples of selective media, except:
a. Blood Agar
b. Cystine Tellurite Blood Agar
c. Bacitracin Chocolate Agar
d. Gentamicin Blood Agar

A

Blood Agar

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6
Q

Colorless colonies in MacConkey agar are said to be:
a. non-lactose fermenter
b. lactose fermenter
c. sucrose fermenter
d. non-sucrose fermenter

A

non-lactose fermenter

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7
Q

Eosin Methylene Blue Agar inhibits the growth of the following except:
a. fungi
b. gram-positive bacteria
c. none of the above
d. gram-negative bacteria

A

fungi

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8
Q

In the optochin (ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride) susceptibility test, if there is a zone of
inhibition of 19-30 mm surrounding the disk following overnight incubation at 37”C, the
colony most likely consists of: 95
a. intestinal bacilli
b. streptococci
c. staphylococci
d. pneumococci

A

pneumococci

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9
Q

Indicates that the antimicrobial agent in question may be an appropriate choice for treating
the infection caused by the organism.
a. Intermediate
b. Susceptible
c. Susceptible-Dose Dependent
d. Non-susceptible

A

Susceptible

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10
Q

MacConkey agar supports the growth of all the following bacteria, except:
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Shigella flexneri

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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11
Q

pH requirement for most clinically relevant bacteria
a. 6.5-7.5
b. 7.2-8.5
c. 6.0-7.2
d. pH is rarely necessary

A

6.5-7.5

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12
Q

The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for
which of the following:
a. Beta-galactosidase
b. Beta-lactamase
c. Permease
d. Phosphatase

A

Beta-galactosidase

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13
Q

The Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar is recommended for the detection of hydrogen sulfide
production by:
a. Clostridia
b. Mycobacteria
c. Enterobacteriaceae
d. Corynebacterium

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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14
Q

This is the agar used to be able to see the different hemolysis of certain bacteria.
a. Blood Agar
b. Tryptic Soy Agar
c. Chocolate Agar
d. MacConkey Agar

A

Blood Agar

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15
Q

This test differentiates micrococcal, staphylococcal, and streptococcal species.
a. Bile Solubility Test
b. Catarrhalis Test
c. Catalase Test
d. CAMP test

A

Catalase Test

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16
Q

This test is used to determine the ability of an organism to grow in high concentrations of
salt. It is used to differentiate enterococci from non-enterococci.
a. Citrate Test
b. Methyl Red-Vogues Proskauer
c. Urease Test
d. Salt Tolerance Test

A

Salt Tolerance Test

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17
Q

This test is used to differentiate a pyocyanogenic pseudomonas from other Pseudomonas
spp.
a. Indole Motility Test
b. Bile Esculin Test
c. Citrate Test
d. Growth at 42°C

A

Growth at 42°C

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18
Q

True about inoculation of urine sample
a. 10 uL calibrated loops can also be used for urine cultures.
b. Suprapubic aspirate sample has lower bacterial count so calibrated loops are not required
c. A sterile needle with a calibration of 1 uL is used for urine culture
d. Colonies are counted in the tertiary or last quadrant

A

10 uL calibrated loops can also be used for urine cultures

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19
Q

When performing a Kovac Indole Test, the substrate must contain:
a. Paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. Ornithine
c. Indole
d. Tryptophan

A

Tryptophan

20
Q

Which among the following is NOT included in the steps for Bacterial inoculum
standardization?
a. Compare turbidity of solution with a 0.5 McFarland Standard
b. All of the above
c. Adjust the turbidity of the 0.5 McFarland standard by adding NSS.
d. None of the above
e. Pick one to two distinct colonies and dispense in a sterile tube containing 0.9% NaCl Solution

A

Adjust the turbidity of the 0.5 McFarland standard by adding NSS

21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding KIA (Krigler’s Iron Agar) is true?
1. pH indicator: Phenol red
2. Ferrous ammonium sulfate: H2S production
3. Glucose, sucrose and lactose: Carbohydrate source
4. Red (+); Yellow (-)

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

A
22
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Russel Double sugar is false, except:
1. pH indicator: Andrades
2. Glucose and lactose: Carbohydrate source
3. Red (+); Yellow (-)
4. No Ferrous Ammonium Sulfate

a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

1, 2 and 3

23
Q

Which of the following statements are true?
I. Antiseptics are chemical substances used on living tissues that kill or inhibit the
growth of vegetative microbial forms
II. Disinfectants are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the growth of vegetative
forms on nonliving materials
III. Chemotherapeutic agents are chemical substances that are used in the treatment
of infectious diseases

a. Only statements I and III are correct
b. All statements are incorrect
c. Only statements II and III are correct
d. All statements are correct

A

All statements are correct

24
Q

Select the primary and differential media of choice for recovery of most fecal pathogens.

a. Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy, Colistin-Nalidixic agar
b. CNA thioglycollate and christensen urea agar
c. Blood, Campy, Mueller-Hinton agar and thioglycollate media
d. MacConkey, BAP, birdseed agar and campy agar

A

Hektoen, MacConkey, Campy, Colistin-Nalidixic agar

25
Q

Modified Thayer Martin Agar

I. Enrichment and Selective Medium for isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
II. Trimetophrim is added to inhibit swarming caused by Proteus spp.
III. Colistin is incorporated to inhibit gram-positive organism
IV. Vancomycin is added to inhibit yeast and molds

a. I and III are correct
b. I and II are correct
c. Only IV is incorrect
d. None of the following statements are incorrect.
e. III and IV are correct

A

I and II are correct

26
Q

A potato-glycerol-based medium enriched with 15%-20% defibrinated blood used for the
isolation of causative agent of whooping cough. Methicillin is used to inhibit contaminants.

a. Cystine Tellurite agar
b. Streptococcal selective agar
c. BCYE agar
d. Bordet-Gengou Agar
e. Skirrow Agar

A

Bordet-Gengou Agar

27
Q

Recommended culture media that supports growth and used for the determination of
causative agents of Tularemia or rabbit fever.

a. CIN agar
b. Loeffler medium
c. CVA agar
d. BCYE agar
e. Campy Agar

A

BCYE agar

28
Q

Transport medium
I. Formulated to maintain the viability of microorganisms without significant increase in growth
II. Cary Blair Transport medium is recommended for fecal and rectal samples
III. Amies medium is recommended for throat and vaginal and wound sample.

a. I is correct
b. I and II are correct
c. None of the following statement are correct
d. All of the following statement are correct
e. I and III are correct

A

All of the following statement are correct

29
Q

Which of the following culture media have the correct match.
I. MAC – Promotes growth of gram negative microorganism only
II. BAP – Promotes growth of gram positive and gram negative microorganism
III. CNA – Promotes growth of Gram both gram positive and gram negative microorganism
IV. PEA – Inhibits growth of gram positive microorganism

a. Only II is correct
b. I and IV are correct
c. All of the following statements are correct.
d. I, II and III are correct
e. I and II are correct

A

I and II are correct

30
Q

Which of the following culture media have the correct match.
I. MAC – plated
II. LIA – Tube (slant and butt)
III. Citrate agar – Tube (slant and butt)
IV. SIM – Semi solid
V. Urease – Plated

a. I, II and V are correct
b. Only III is incorrect
c. All are correct
d. I, II and IV are correct
e. Only V is incorrect

A

I, II and IV are correct

31
Q

Which of the following culture media uses phenol red as its indicator?

I. Urea hydrolysis
II. Mac Conkey agar
III. Triple Sugar Iron
IV. Salmonella Shigella Agar

a. II, IV
b. I, II
c. II, III
d. I, III

A

I, III

32
Q

Which of the following microorganisms have a blue reaction on Citrate utilization test?
I. Pseudomonas putida
II. Morganella morganii
III. Providencia rettgeri
IV. Edwarsiella coli
V. Yersinia tuberculosis

a. I, III, IV, V
b. III, IV
c. I, III
d. II, IV, V
e. III only

A

I, III

33
Q

In the OF – medium, which of the following results would indicate the presence of an
oxidative or oxidizing organism?

a. Yellow color of closed tube; blue green color of open tube
b. Yellow color of closed tube; yellow color of open tube
c. Blue – green color of closed tube; yellow color of open tube
d. Blue – green color of closed tube; blue green color of open tube

A

Blue – green color of closed tube; yellow color of open tube

34
Q

All of the following are true regarding decarboxylation and dihydrolase reactions, except;

a. Putrescine is the product of ornithine decarboxylation
b. Cadaverine is the product of lysine deamination
c. Citrulline forms when arginine undergoes dihydrolase reaction
d. None of the above

A

Cadaverine is the product of lysine deamination

35
Q

Acetamide utilization test is used to determine the ability of the organism to use
acetamide to release ammonia through the process of __________. The release of this
ammonia causes the medium to become _________ in color.

a. deamination, green
b. deamination, blue
c. oxidation, green
d. oxidation, blue

A

deamination, blue

36
Q

Which of the following organisms has an IMViC reaction of + + - -?

I. Escherichia coli
II. Edwardsiella tarda
III. Morganella morganii
IV. Providencia rettgeri

a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, III
d. I only

A

I, II, III

37
Q

Which of the following organisms has an LOA reaction of - + -?
I. Citrobacter freundii
II. Proteus mirabilis
III. Salmonella paratyphi
IV. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

a. I, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. II, IV

A

I, III

38
Q

Match the description given for the following gram-negative bacilli with the correct name:

TSIA: K/A, H2S positive
MacConkey: colorless colonies
Methyl red test: red
Indole test: colorless ring
Urease: magenta
ONPG test: colorless
Deaminase: burgundy
Motility: positive
ADH: yellow ODC: yellow
LDC: yellow

a. Proteus mirabilis
b. Salmonella group I
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Escherichia coli
e. Citrobacter freundii

A

Proteus mirabilis

39
Q

Match the description given for the following gram-negative bacilli with the correct name:

Triple Sugar Iron: yellow/yellow with cracks
MacConkey: pink colonies
Methyl red test: red
Indole test: colorless ring
Urease: magenta
ONPG test: yellow
Deaminase: purple
Motility: positive
ADH: yellow ODC: purple
LDC: purple
Citrate: blue

a. Escherichia coli
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Enterobacter gergoviae
d. Enterobacter sakazakii

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

40
Q

Match the description given for the following gram-negative bacilli with the correct name:

Voges Proskauer: red
Methyl red test: colorless
Indole test: colorless ring
Urease: orange
ONPG test: yellow
Deaminase: purple
Motility: positive
ADH: yellow ODC: purple
LDC: purple
Citrate: blue

a. Shigella dysenteriae
b. Hafnia alvei
c. Shigella sonnei
d. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis

A

Hafnia alvei

41
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Nitrite Reduction test is true, except:
1. (+) colorless; (-) red
2. NO2 to N2 gas
3. pH indicator: Neutral red
4. Ferrous ammonium sulfate

a. 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 , 3 and 4

A

1, 2 , 3 and 4

42
Q

Which of the following reactions will be produced by Klebsiella pneumoniae in TSI?

a. Acid butt / Acid slant, gas (-), H2S (-)
b. Alkaline butt / Acid Slant, gas (-)
c. Neutral or Alkaline butt / Acid slant
d. Acid butt / Acid slant, gas (+), H2S (-)

A

Acid butt / Acid slant, gas (+), H2S (-)

43
Q

Biological indicator used for quality control of Autoclave
a. B. stearothermophilus
b. B. cereus
c. B. anthracis
d. B. subtilis

A

B. stearothermophilus

44
Q

Process that completely eliminate all living microorganisms including bacterial spores
a. Incineration
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Irradiation

A

Sterilization

45
Q

Standardized bacterial isolate is spread on an agar plate and then paper disks containing
specific concentration of antibiotics are placed
a. Broth dilution
b. Kirby Bauer method
c. Minimal Inhibitory Concentration
d. Agar dilution

A

Kirby Bauer method

46
Q

Type of solvent used in bacterial suspension for comparison with McFarland Standard.
a. Ultra-pure water
b. Tap water
c. NSS
d. Deionized water

A

NSS

Bacteriology Midterms (7 decks)

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