Lab Quiz 4 & 5 Material + Ch. 8 Bone (E3) Flashcards
1
Q
What key feature distinguishes bone from the other connective tissues?
A
Its mineralized matrix
2
Q
What is the purpose of bone’s mineralized matrix? List 2 functions.
A
Support & protection
3
Q
The mineral is calcium phosphate in the form of {…} crystals.
A
Hydroxyapatite
4
Q
By virtue of its mineral content, bone also serves as a storage site for these 2 ions.
A
What are calcium & phosphate?
5
Q
Which 2 major collagen molecules are found in bone? Which is more prominent as a major structural component?
A
Type I (more prominent) and Type V
NOTE: Type I Collagen is, in fact, the most prominent structural component of bone!
6
Q
PROTEOGLYCAN macromolecules contain a core protein with various numbers of covalently attached side chains of {…}.
A
Glycosaminoglycans
7
Q
Some proteoglycans, such as keratan sulfate, contain {…}, a bone-specific protein that strongly binds to hydroxyapatite crystals.
A
Osteoadherin
8
Q
This multiadhesive glycoprotein serves as a glue between the collagen and hydroxyapatite crystals.
A
What is osteonectin?
9
Q
This multiadhesive glycoprotein is produced exclusively by osteocytes in response to mechanical stress.
A
What is podoplanin (E11)?
10
Q
This multiadhesive glycoprotein is critical for bone matrix mineralization.
A
What is the dentin matrix protein (DMP)?
11
Q
These multiadhesive glycoproteins, called BONE SIALOPROTEINS, are responsible for mediating the attachment of cells to the bone matrix and initiating calcium phosphate formation during the mineralization process, respectively.
A
What are BSP-1 (osteopontin) and BSP-2?
12
Q
BONE-SPECIFIC, VITAMIN K-DEPENDENT PROTEINS serve a variety of functions and include {…}, which captures calcium from the circulation and attracts and stimulates osteoclasts in bone remodeling; protein {…} (single letter), which assists in the removal of cells undergoing apoptosis; and {…} (MGP), which participates in the development of vascular calcifications.
A
1) Osteocalcin
2) S
3) Matrix Gla-protein
13
Q
This is a duo of small regulatory proteins, such as BONE MORPHOGENIC PROTEINS (BMPs), SCLEROSTIN (a BMP antagonist), and INTERLEUKINS (IL-1, IL-6).
A
What are growth factors and cytokines?
14
Q
Recombinant human {…}, also known as {…} (OP-1), is now used clinically to induce bone growth after bone surgery involving large bone defects, spinal fusions, or implantation of graft materials.
A
1) BMP-7
2) Osteogenic protein-1
15
Q
Within the bone matrix are spaces called {…}, each containing a bone cell, or {…}. The osteocyte extends numerous processes into small tunnels called {…}, which course through the mineralized matrix, connecting adjacent lacunae and allowing contact between the cell processes of neighboring osteocytes.
A
1) Lacunae
2) Osteocyte
3) Canaliculi
16
Q
These bone cells are derived from mesenchymal stem cells; they give rise to osteoblasts.
A
What are osteoprogenitor cells?
17
Q
These bone cells secrete the extracellular matrix of bone; once the cell is surrounded by its secreted matrix, it is called an OSTEOCYTE.
A
What are osteoblasts?
18
Q
These bone cells remain on the bone surface when there is no active growth. They are derived from those osteoblasts that remain after bone deposition ceases.
A
What are bone-lining cells?
19
Q
These bone cells resorb bone and are present on bone surfaces where bone is being removed or remodeled (reorganized) or where bone has been damaged.
A
What are osteoclasts?
20
Q
The principal organs of the musculoskeletal system.
A
What are bones?
21
Q
The structural component of bones.
A
What is bony tissue?
22
Q
This class of bones is longer in one dimension than other bones and consists of a shaft and two ends (e.g., the tibia and the metacarpals).
A
What are long bones?
23
Q
This class of bones is nearly equal in length and diameter (e.g., the carpal bones of the hand).
A
What are short bones?
24
Q
This class of bones is thin and plate-like (e.g., the bones of the calvaria [skullcap], scapula, and sternum) and is composed of a layer of spongy bone sandwiched between two layers of thick, compact bone.
A
What are flat bones?
25
This class of bones has a shape that does not fit into any one of the three groups just described; the shape may be complex (e.g., a vertebra), or the bone may contain air spaces or sinuses (e.g., the ethmoid bone).
What are irregular bones?
26
Long bones have a shaft, called the {...}, and two expanded ends, each called an {...}.
1) Diaphysis
2) Epiphysis
27
The flared portion of the bone between the diaphysis and the epiphysis is called the {...}. It extends from the diaphysis to the {...} line.
1) Metaphysis
2) Epiphyseal
28
The large cavity filled with bone marrow that forms the inner portion of the bone.
What is the medullary cavity?
29
The fibrous connective tissue capsule covers the outer surface of the bone.
What is the periosteum?
30
If the bone forms a freely movable joint (also called a {...} joint), the contact areas of the two bones are referred to as articular surfaces.
Synovial
31
The articular surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage, also called {...} cartilage, because of its location and function.
Articular
32
Simple trauma to a joint by a single incident or by repeated insult can damage the articular cartilage, causing it to calcify. Eventually, the cartilage is replaced by bone. This process can lead to {...} (i.e., bony fusion in the joint and subsequent loss of motion).
Ankylosis
33
Inflammation of the joints.
What is arthritis?
34
This type of arthritis is caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, particularly those of the toes and fingers.
What is gouty arthritis (gout)?
35
The {...} capsule that surrounds the joint cavity is composed of an outer fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue and inner layer of {...} membrane that is attached to the edges of {...} cartilages.
1) Articular
2) Synovial
3) Articular
36
Aside from movable joints, what are 2 other types of joints?
Slightly moveable & immovable
37
The surgical replacement of joints due to {...}, the most frequent idiopathic disease of joints characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage, is called an {...}. During this procedure, the damaged articular surface with underlying bone tissue is removed and replaced with an artificial joint (called a {...}) made of metal, plastic, or ceramic materials designed to mimic the normal anatomic structures of the joint.
1) Osteoarthritis
2) Arthroplasty
3) Prosthesis
38
Which areas will you not find bone covered by a periosteum?
Areas where bones articulate
39
The periosteum that covers an actively growing bone consists of an outer fibrous layer that resembles these tissues.
What are dense, irregular connective tissues?
40
The inner, more cellular layer in contact with bone contains skeletal {...} cells, including osteoprogenitor cells.
Stem
41
What is the main component (fibrous OR cellular layer) of the periosteum when active bone formation is not in progress on the bone surface?
Fibrous layer
42
Which layer is underdeveloped when there is no active bone formation on the bone surface? Fibrous or cellular?
Cellular layer
43
These are the relatively few cells in the INNER CELLULAR LAYER present when active bone formation is not in progress on the bone surface. These cells can undergo division and become osteoblasts under the appropriate stimulus.
What are periosteal cells?
44
A 90-kDa extracellular matrix protein secreted by periosteal cells that is a key regulator of periosteal responses to mechanical stress, injury, and bone repair.
What is periostin?
45
Collagen fibers from these structures extend obliquely or at right angles to the long axis of the bone, where they are continuous with the collagen fibers of the extracellular matrix. These fibers are called {...} or {...} fibers. They extend into the outer circumferential and interstitial lamellae but usually do not enter the osteons.
1) Perforating
2) Sharpey
46
The lining tissue of both the compact bone facing the marrow cavity and the trabeculae of spongy bone within the cavity is referred to as {...}, a layer of connective tissue that contains {...} cells.
1) Endosteum
2) Osteoprogenitor
47
OSTEOPROGENITOR and BONE-LINING CELLS are difficult to distinguish at the microscopic level. They are both flattened in shape with elongated nuclei and indistinguishable cytoplasmic features. Because of their location within the bone cavities, they are frequently called this type of cell.
What is endosteal?
48
This type of bone marrow consists of blood cells in different stages of development and a network of reticular cells and fibers that serve as a supporting framework for the developing blood cells and vessels.
What is red bone marrow?
49
This type of marrow consists mainly of fat cells.
What is yellow marrow?
50
What are the two distinct structural arrangements (i.e., classifications) of bone tissue?
1) Compact (dense)
2) Spongy (cancellous)
51
The thin, anastomosing spicules of bone tissue that make up the sponge-like meshwork of spongy bone.
What are trabeculae?
52
Mature bone is largely composed of cylindrical units called {...} or {...} systems. The osteons consist of concentric {...} of bone matrix surrounding a central canal, the {...} (Haversian) canal, which contains the vascular and nerve supply of the
osteon.
1) Osteons
2) Haversian
3) Lamellae
4) Osteonal
53
Between the osteons are remnants of previous concentric lamellae called {...} lamellae.
Interstitial
54
The term for the mature bone of Haversian systems.
What is lamellar bone?
55
This type of lamellae follows the entire inner and outer circumferences of the shaft of a long bone, appearing much like the growth rings of a tree.
What are circumferential lamellae?
56
These are channels in lamellar bone through which blood vessels and nerves travel from the periosteal and endosteal surfaces to reach the osteonal (Haversian) canal; they also connect osteonal canals to one another.
What are perforating (Volkmann) canals?
57
These are openings in the bone through which blood vessels pass to reach the marrow.
What are nutrient foramina?
58
Where in a long bone will you find the greatest numbers of nutrient foramina? List 2 structures/areas.
Diaphysis & epiphysis
59
The nutrient arteries that supply the diaphysis and epiphysis arise developmentally as the principal vessels of the {...} buds.
Periosteal
60
Bone tissue initially formed in the skeleton of a developing fetus.
What is immature bone?
61
Immature bone does not display an organized lamellated appearance. On the basis of its collagen fiber arrangement, such bone is referred to as this.
What is nonlamellar?
62
List 2 other names for nonlamellar bone.
Bundle or woven bone
63
True or False: Immature bone forms more rapidly than mature bone.
True
64
The process of new bone formation.
Osteogenesis
65
Osteogenesis requires a population of renewable {...} cells (osteoblast precursor cells) that are responsive to molecular stimuli that transform them into bone-forming cells.
Osteoprogenitor
66
The key factor that triggers the differentiation of osteoprogenitor cells is a transcription factor called {...} (CBFA1), also called {...} (RUNX2).
1) Core binding factor alpha-1
2) Runt-related transcription factor 2
67
Several clinical studies have demonstrated that {...} (PEMF) stimulation assists in the healing of bone fractures by increasing bone tissue regeneration.
Pulsed electromagnetic field
68
Morphologically, osteoprogenitor cells resemble the {...} cells that form the innermost layer of the periosteum and the {...} cells that line the marrow cavities, the osteonal (Haversian) canals, and the perforating (Volkmann) canals.
1) Periosteal
2) Endosteal
69
The initial unmineralized bone.
HINT: Bone-like
What is an osteoid?
70
What 2 components constitute the osteoid?
Type I collagen & bone matrix proteins
71
Bone matrix proteins produced by the osteoblast include {...} proteins, such as osteocalcin and osteonectin; {...} glycoproteins, such as bone sialoproteins (BSP-1 [osteopontin] and BSP-2); thrombospondins; various {...} and their aggregates; and {...} (TNAP).
1) Calcium-binding
2) Multiadhesive
3) Proteoglycans
4) Tissue nonspecific alkaline phosphatase
72
The osteoblast is also responsible for the calcification of bone matrix. The calcification process appears to be initiated by the osteoblast through the secretion into the matrix of these small, 50- to 250-nm, membrane-limited sacs.
What are matrix vesicles?
73
Is the cytoplasm of an ACTIVE OSTEOCYTE acidophilic or basophilic?
Basophilic
74
In contrast to the secreting osteoblasts found in active matrix deposition, {...} osteoblasts are flat or attenuated cells that cover the bone surface. These cells resemble osteoprogenitor cells.
Inactive
75
How are osteoblast processes able to communicate with other osteoblasts and osteocytes?
Via gap junctions
76
The mature bone cell enclosed by bone matrix that was previously secreted as an osteoblast.
What is an osteocyte?
77
Osteocytes’ cytoplasmic processes are enclosed by {...} within the matrix.
Canaliculi
78
In addition to typical cell-to-cell communication (i.e., gap junctions), osteocyte processes contain {...} (the unopposed half of gap junction channels) that provide communication between cells and the extracellular matrix.
Hemichannels
79
Recent discoveries show that osteocytes are metabolically active and multifunctional cells. They are involved in the process of {...}, in which they respond to mechanical forces applied to the bone.
Mechanotransduction
80
The movement of interstitial fluid through the canalicular system generates this type of potential at the moment when stress is applied.
What is transient electrical (streaming) potential?
81
The streaming potential opens {...} calcium channels in the membranes of the osteocytes over which the tissue fluid flows.
Voltage-gated
82
The shear stress of the fluid flow also induces the opening of {...} that allow the release of accumulated intracellular molecules into the extracellular space of the canaliculi.
Hemichannels
83
An osteocyte responds to reduced mechanical stress by secreting enzymes called {...} (MMPs).
Matrix metalloproteinases
84
The reversible remodeling of the pericanalicular and perilacunar bone matrix induced by osteocytes under increased mechanical stress.
What is osteocytic remodeling?
85
This signaling mechanism is essential for osteoclast differentiation and maturation.
What is the RANK-RANKL signaling mechanism?
86
Bone development model in which cartilage serves as the precursor to bone.
What is endochondral ossification?
87
Bone development model in which bone is formed by a simpler method, without the intervention of a cartilage precursor.
What is intramembranous ossification?
88
Which bones typically develop via endochondral ossification?
Extremities & weight-bearing parts of axial skeleton
89
Which bones typically develop via intramembranous ossification?
Flat bones (e.g., skull, face, mandible, clavicle)
90
In intramembranous ossification, bone formation is initiated by condensation of {...} cells that differentiate into {...}.
1) Mesenchymal
2) Osteoblasts
91
In this growth process, spicules enlarge and become joined in a trabecular network with the general shape of the developing bone.
What is appositional growth?
92
During appositional growth, the new osteoblasts, in turn, lay down bone matrix in successive layers, giving rise to an immature bone called this.
What is woven bone?
93
Bone tissue formed via intramembranous ossification is referred to as this.
What is membrane (intramembranous) bone?
94
In reference to the position/localization of mesenchymal cells, how are endochondral & intramembranous ossification similar?
They both begin with the proliferation 7 aggregation of these cells at the site of future bone
95
How does endochondral ossification in particular start?
A hyaline cartilage model w/ the general shape of bone is formed
96
What is the 1st sign of ossification around the cartilage model?
The appearance of a cuff of bone
97
At the first sign of endochondral ossification, the perichondrial cells in the midregion of the cartilage model no longer give rise to chondrocytes. Instead, {...} are produced. Perichondrium is no longer functional, so it becomes {...}. Moreover, because the cells within this layer are differentiating into osteoblasts, an {...} layer can now be identified within the periosteum.
1) Osteoblasts
2) Periosteum
3) Osteogenic
98
In the case of a long bone, this distinctive cuff of periosteal bone is established around the cartilage model in the diaphyseal portion of developing bone.
What is the bony collar?
99
These stem cells reside in the developing periosteum and migrate along the penetrating blood vessels, differentiating into osteoprogenitor cells in the bone marrow cavity.
What are mesenchymal stem cells?
100
These stem cells also gain access to the bone marrow cavity via new vasculature, leaving the circulation to give rise to the marrow, including all blood cell progenitors.
What are hemopoietic stem cells (HSCs)?
101
This is the initial site where bone begins to form in the diaphysis of a long bone.
What is the primary ossification center?
102
The combination of bone, which is initially only a thin layer, and the underlying calcified cartilage is described as this type of spicule.
What is a mixed spicule?
103
Shortly after birth, this ossification center develops in the proximal epiphysis.
What is the secondary ossification center?
104
With the development of the secondary ossification centers, the only cartilage that remains from the original model is the articular cartilage at the ends of the bone and a transverse disc of cartilage called this. It separates the epiphyseal and diaphyseal cavities.
What is the epiphyseal growth plate?
105
The elimination of the epiphyseal plate.
What is epiphyseal closure?
106
Vestigial evidence of the site of the epiphyseal plate is reflected by this line consisting of bone tissue.
What is the epiphyseal line?
107
Which 2 aspects of cellular activity constitute a bone-remodeling unit?
1) Osteoclast resorption
2) Osteoblast synthesis
108
What are the 2 distinct parts of a bone-remodeling unit?
1) Cutting cone (i.e., resorption canal)
2) Closing cone
109
In the adult, deposition balances resorption (i.e., bone breakdown). In an older person, resorption often exceeds deposition. If this imbalance becomes excessive, this bone disease develops.
What is osteoporosis?
110
How do parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcitonin differ in how they act on bone?
PTH - increase low blood calcium levels to normal, mobilizing calcium from bone (promoting resorption)
Calcitonin - decrease elevated blood calcium levels to normal (inhibiting resorption)
111
True or False: PTH has both anabolic and catabolic actions.
True
112
This type of fracture repair occurs when the fractured bone is surgically stabilized with compression plates, thereby completely restricting movement between fractured fragments of bone.
What is direct (primary) bone healing?
113
This type of fracture repair involves responses from periosteum and surrounding soft tissues as well as endochondral and intramembranous bone formation.
What is indirect (secondary) bone healing?
114
The initial response to a bone fracture involves the formation of this, which is a collection of blood that surrounds the fractured ends of the bone.
What is a fracture hematoma?
115
The fracture hematoma, which initially contained entrapped erythrocytes within a network of fibrin, is gradually replaced by {...} tissue, a type of newly formed loose connective tissue containing collagen type III and type II fibers.
Granulation
116
Granulation tissue transforms into a fibrocartilaginous {...} callus, which gives the fracture site a stable, semirigid structure
Soft
117
Osteogenic buds from the new bone invade the callus and begin to deposit bone within the callus, gradually replacing the original fibrous and cartilaginous callus with a {...} callus.
Hard
118
What is the key purpose of the hard callus?
To allow for weight bearing
119
How many weeks does bone healing usually take in a healthy individual?
6-12
120
How many weeks does the inflammatory process take?
1
121
How many weeks does it take for the soft callus to form?
2-3
122
How many months does it take for the hard callus to form?
3-4
123
Elongation of endochondral bone depends on the {...} growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal growth plate.
Interstitial
124
Bone increases in width (diameter) by {...} growth of new bone that occurs between the compact bone and the periosteum.
Appositional
