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Bio 211 > Lab Practicum Final > Flashcards

Lab Practicum Final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what do fluid membranes do?

A

allow a certain amount of fluid to come out without breaking

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2
Q

what happens if the beet cell wall is damaged?

A

red betacyanin molecules leak out of the cell membrane

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3
Q

selectively permeability

A

a membrane that allows small, uncharged molecules and hydrocarbons to pass through the phospholipid bilayer while some larger molecules and ions can only pass through specific transport proteins that traverse the membrane

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4
Q

betacyanin

A

a reddish pigment found in beets (Beta vulgaris) that is contained in the vacuole of the cell (the vacuole is surrounded by the tonoplast which is surrounded by the cell membrane)

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5
Q

tonoplast

A

vacuolar membrane

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6
Q

how does temperature change in general affect membrane damage?

A

the membrane has a specific temperature that it functions the best at, and very high and very low temperatures damage the cell membrane

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7
Q

how does raising the temperature affect a cell membrane?

A

raising the temperature causes the membrane to become more fluid, causing the phospholipid bilayer to shift more, allowing more molecules in and out of the cell

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8
Q

how does lowering the temperature affect a cell membrane?

A

lowering the temperature causes the cell to freeze and the cell membrane becomes more rigid, causing it to be more easily damaged when brought back to room temperature

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9
Q

how does organic solvent concentration affect cell membrane damage?

A

higher concentrations of organic solvents results in more membrane damage

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10
Q

which organic solvent damages cell membranes more, acetone or methanol?

A

acetone

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11
Q

how do acetone and methanol damage cell membranes?

A

they dissolve phospholipids which make up the cell membrane

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12
Q

substrate

A

a molecule that binds with an enzyme and undergoes chemical rearrangement

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13
Q

how do enzymes work?

A

enzymes accelerate the rate of chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy needed to trigger the reaction

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14
Q

active site

A

the place on an enzyme that reacts with a substrate

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15
Q

denature

A

inactivate enzymes by altering their 3D shape and inhibiting their substrate binding efficiency

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16
Q

amylase

A
  • an enzyme that is found in the saliva of animals that consume starch as part of their diet
  • controls the initial digestion of starch by breaking it down into disaccharide maltose molecules
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17
Q

maltose

A

produced as a result of starch consumption

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18
Q

effect of temperature on starch consumption

A

37* C is optimal for starch consumption due to the fact that amylase is not as effective at extremely low or high temperatures

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19
Q

effect of pH on starch consumption

A

a certain pH is optimal for starch consumption

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20
Q

how does concentration of amylase affect starch consumption?

A
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21
Q

aerobic cellular respiration formula

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy (ATP & heat)

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22
Q

aerobic respiration

A

metabolic pathways that require oxygen

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23
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

metabolic pathways that do not require oxygen

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24
Q

glycolysis

A

the initial step in both cellular respiration and fermentation: the splitting of glucose into two pyruvate molecules; proceeds with or without oxygen

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25
Q

where does glycolysis occur?

A

the cell’s cytosol

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26
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?

A

oxygen

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27
Q

respirometer

A

apparatus for measuring rate of oxygen consumption

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28
Q

manometer

A

the part of the respirometer that shows when the oxygen is consumed

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29
Q

respiration rate calculation

A

(volume of O2 consumed (mL))/(weight (g) X time (minutes))

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30
Q

mouse Latin name

A

Mus musculus

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31
Q

effect of temperature on oxygen consumption

A

lowering the temperature increases oxygen consumption

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32
Q

ascarite

A

absorbs CO2

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33
Q

drierite

A

absorbs water vapor

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34
Q

ATP

A

adenosine triphosphate

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35
Q

citric acid cycle and electron transport chain take place…

A

within the mitochondria

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36
Q

how many net ATP molecules are formed as a result of fermentation?

A

2

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37
Q

how many net ATP molecules are formed as a result of cellular respiration?

A

32

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38
Q

pyruvate

A

a 3-carbon molecule; 2 are formed from glycolysis that are shipped to the mitochondria where they are broken down completely into CO2 and H2O which allows ATP to be made

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39
Q

what happens to pyruvate in an anaerobic environment?

A

pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid or fermented into CO2 and ethanol during the alcoholic fermentation pathway

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40
Q

alcoholic fermentation equation

A

C6H12O6 –> 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + ATP + heat

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41
Q

lactic acid fermentation equation

A

C6H12O6 –> 2CH3CHOHCOOH (lactic acid) + ATP + heat

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42
Q

yeast latin name

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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43
Q

what carbohydrates are yeast cells able to use for energy?

A

glucose, maltose, starch

44
Q

how to calculate the volume of gas produced in a fermentation tube

A

V = pir^2h

45
Q

how does fermentation affect the pH of a solution

A

decreases pH

46
Q

how does the production of CO2 relate to the fermentation of a specific sugar?

A

more CO2 = more sugar consumption

47
Q

how does temperature affect the volume of CO2 produced?

A

higher temperature = more CO2 produced

48
Q

how does yeast concentration affect the volume of CO2 produced?

A

higher yeast concentration = more CO2 produced

49
Q

cell cycle

A

all of the events that occur from the time that a cell is formed to when it divides

50
Q

the cell cycle is divided into two main parts:

A

interphase and the mitotic phase

51
Q

interphase: G1

A

the cell grows by synthesizing new organelles

52
Q

interphase: S

A

cell replicates the genetic material so that when it divides there will be two sets of chromosomes for the resulting cells

53
Q

interphase: G2

A

the cell produces enzymes and structures that are needed to undergo cell division

54
Q

karyokinesis

A

the process in the mitotic phase where the nuclear material divides and results in two daughter nuclei that have the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parental nucleus

55
Q

cytokinesis

A

follows karyokinesis; seperates the cytoplasm, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells

56
Q

percentage of cell cycle: interphase

A

about 90%

57
Q

percentage of cell cycle: prophase

A

about 12.5%

58
Q

percentage of cell cycle: metaphase

A

about 1.07%

59
Q

percentage of cell cycle: anaphase

A

about 0.71%

60
Q

percentage of cell cycle: telophase

A

about 0.89%

61
Q

function of mitosis

A
  • create genetically identical cells that are not sex cells

- grows multicellular organisms and is how unicellular organisms reproduce

62
Q

chi^2 (x^2) =

A

sum[(O - E)^2/E], where O = observed and E = expected

63
Q

degrees of freedom

A

always 1 less than the number of classes of possible outcomes

64
Q

multiple allelic traits

A

traits with more than two alternate forms of alleles

65
Q

codominant state

A

traits may have two alternate alleles that are expressed simultaneously with both being equal in their dominance to each other

66
Q

controlled research study 6 formal sections

A

Abstract, Introduction, Materials and Methods, Results, Discussion, and References

67
Q

Observational study

A

no control group, subjects are merely observed without any sort of manipulation of the scenario

68
Q

review article

A

reviewing a study that has already been done

69
Q

CSE Style Reference

A

Last name of each author followed by first initial and middle initial if present (seperate each author’s name with a comma). Full title of the article. Name of the journal year that the article was published; volume number of the journal(issue number of the journal): page numbers-of the article.

70
Q

NCBI

A

National Center for Biotechnology Information

-type NCBI into google,

71
Q

GenBank

A

part of the International Nucleotide Sequence Database Collection, which comprises the DNA DataBank of Japan (DDBJ), the European Molecular Biology Laboratory (EMBL), and GenBank at NCBI
Purpose: to find the specific DNA sequence for anything

72
Q

FASTA format

A
  • begins with a single-line description, followed by lines of sequence data
  • the description line (defline) is distinguished from the sequence data by a greater than (>) symbol at the beginning
73
Q

paper chromatography

A

samples containing different molecular components are placed on specially treated paper (the stationary phase) and put into a container with solvent (the moving phase)

74
Q

how does paper chromatography work?

A

as the solvent soaks into the paper, it forms a front which passes through the samples. some of the sample components move with the solvent, while others lag behind resulting in seperation

75
Q

absorption coefficient

A

the affinity for a component to be absorbed

76
Q

what does it mean if a molecule goes higher on the paper chromatography test?

A

it means that it has a lower absorption coefficient and a high solubility product constant (more affinity for solvent)

77
Q

what does it mean if a molecule does not go very high on the paper chromatography test?

A

it means that it has a higher absorption coefficient and a low solubility product constant (less affinity for solvent)

78
Q

matrix (chromatography)

A

everything in the sample other than the desired molecules

79
Q

single phase system

A

a system that has a single solvent

80
Q

dual phase system

A

a mixture of two different types of solvents

81
Q

thin layer chromatography (TLC)

A

a technique used for chemical seperation and analysis of multiple component mixtures

82
Q

electrophoresis

A

a technique used to seperate proteins and nucleic acids either in a free aqueous solution or in solutions held in a solid matrix such as agarose gel

83
Q

what purposes does the electrophoresis buffer serve?

A

a. to transmit electrical charge through protein samples

b. to keep the gel at a stable pH

84
Q

how can you tell if a sample contains a mixture of molecules?

A

if during chromatography or electrophoresis there are multiple colors of molecules seperated from each other

85
Q

what are the 3 practical purposes of electrophoresis?

A

a. to identify the number of compounds in a mixture
b. to identify which compounds are in a mixture
c. to identify the chemical nature of the molecules

86
Q

main purpose of PCR

A

to produce many copies of a selected gene segment or locus of DNA

87
Q

buccal epithelial cells

A

cheek cells

88
Q

what is the purpose of the Chelex beads?

A

to bind divalent magnesium ions

89
Q

why are Mg++ ions removed?

A

these ions often serve as cofactors for nucleases that will degrade your DNA sample and may interfere with the enzyme (Taq polymerase) used in the reaction

90
Q

what equipment do you need for PCR

A
  • sterile pipette tips
  • boiling water bath
  • high-speed centrifuge
  • PCR tubes
  • PCR machine (thermal cycler)
91
Q

master mix reagents

A
  • dNTP’s (10mM)
  • forward primer (4pm/uL)
  • reverse primer (4 pm/uL)
  • 10X PCR buffer
  • MgCl2
  • Taq Polymerarse
  • molecular grade water
92
Q

what is the purpose of the forward and reverse DNA primers in the PCR mixture?

A

to copy both sides of the DNA molecule

93
Q

why did we amplify DNA specifically from and intron region in the tPA gene of each student? (PCR)

A

that is where the Alu gene is located

94
Q

PCR Denaturing Step

A

break H-bonds between DNA strands

95
Q

PCR Annealing Step

A

primers bond to template DNA

96
Q

PCR Extension Step

A

Taq Polymerase makes new complementary strands

97
Q

transposons

A

jumping genes

98
Q

intron

A

the spots on a gene that do not code for amino acids

99
Q

Alu genotype

A

can be homozygous negative Alu (both DNA molecules are 100 bp long), homozygous positive Alu (both DNA molecules are 400 bp long), or heterozygous Alu (one DNA molecule is 100 bp long and the other is 400 bp long)

100
Q

BLAST

A

Basic Local Alignment Search Tool

101
Q

polymorphism

A

when variation of a DNA sequence at a given spot on a chromosome occurs too frequently to be accounted for by a new mutation alone
- can be as small as a single DNA base, but more often it is a variation in the number of repeated bases

102
Q

ethanol formula

A

C2H5OH

103
Q

lactic acid formula

A

CH3CHOHCOOH

104
Q

RFLP

A

restriction fragment length polymorphism

105
Q

STR

A

short tandem length analysis

106
Q

carotones

A
  • yellow

- moves as far as the solvent front

107
Q

carotones

A
  • yellow

- moves as far as the solvent front

Bio 211 (15 decks)

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