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BI211 > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

0
Q

Calorie

A

The amount of heat needed to raise 1 g of water 1 degree c.

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1
Q

Metabolic rate

A

All chemical reactions occurring in the cells of a body at a given time. Includes anabolic and catabolic

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2
Q

Direct calorimetry

A

Subject is placed in a well insulated sealed chamber surrounded by a water jacket, as body temp increases, the temp of the surrounding water increases.

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3
Q

Indirect calorimetry

A

Used in lab 9. Uses a repirometer. Records the rate at which the individual consumes oxygen

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4
Q

RMR

A

Determined by measuring the o2 utilization by the body converting to the amount of heat produced and factoring in the body surface area.

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5
Q

For a balanced diet, how much energy do you get per l of o2?

A

4.86

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6
Q

What are the conditions needed for RMR?

A

No food for 12 hours
Physically and mentally relaxed
Room where the temp is 65-85f

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7
Q

What are the conditions for bmr?

A

No drugs– includes caffeine nicotine etc
No high sugar meals for 24 hours
Minimize emotional disturbance
Good nights sleep

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8
Q

What is the range for healthy RMR?

A

Within 10% of a predicted RMR

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9
Q

Tidal volume

A

Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath

Is around 500ml

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10
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume (irv)

A

Extra volume that can be forcibly inspired beyond the normal tidal volume, is around 3000ml. Requires voluntary contraction of respiratory muscles

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11
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Amount of air that can be forcibly expired father the end of a normal tidal expiration. Is around 1200ml

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12
Q

Residual volume

A

Amount of air remaining in lungs even after the most forceful expiration. Is about 1200ml.

This air provides air in the alveoli to aerate the blood even between breaths and helps the alveoli from collapsing

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13
Q

Anatomical dead space (vd)

A

The amount of air that remains in the respiratory passages after each expiration. It fills the outer respiratory passages after inspiration and never reaches the lung tissue. Because it is expired first in the next expiration.

Is around 150ml

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14
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

Expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume.

Is the amount remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration

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15
Q

Vital capacity

A

Is the tidal plus irv and rev. Is the maximum amount of air that can be exchanged in a single breath.

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16
Q

Total lung capacity

A

Maximum volume that the lungs can hold with the greatest inspiratory effort is irv+ erv+tidal volume + residual volume

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17
Q

Minute ventilation

A

The amount of new air moved into the respiratory passages each minute.

Is equal to tidal volume divided by respiratory rate

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18
Q

What is a healthy fev1?

A

80% of vc

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19
Q

What is a healthy fev3?

A

95% of vc

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20
Q

Obstructive lung disease

A

Increased airway resistance but are within 10% of predicted vc.

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21
Q

Restrictive lung diseases

A

Have healthy airway resistance and reduced vc

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22
Q

Bmr equation

A

Heat produced / surface area

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23
Q

%bmr

A

Measured bmr-standard bmr/standard bmr

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24
Q

Hydrolysis

A

Addition of water to breakdown polymers.

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25
Q

Carb digestion

A

Begins with salivary amylase (only 3-5%)

Most occurs in SI with pancreatic amylase

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26
Q

Protein digestion

A

Occurs in stomach and SI
Stomach–pepsins most active at low ph
Further broken down by pancreatic enzymes in the is including trypsin, chemo trypsin and carboxypeptidases

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27
Q

Fat digestion

A

Most occurs in the SI via pancreatic lipases

Emulsified via bile (synthesized in liver, stored in gall bladder, and released in response to cck secreted by SI)

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28
Q

Benedict’s test

A

Starch +salivary amylase–> maltose

-) blue (means no breakdown
(+) several colors– means sugar breakdown

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29
Q

Blue Benedict’s test

A

Negative. Means starch is present and sugar did not break down

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30
Q

Green yellow or red Benedict test

A

Is positive. Means maltose is present and sugar did breakdown

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31
Q

Lugols test

A

Starch + salivary amylase –> maltose

Tests for starch

(-) brown = hydrolyzed starch
(+) black = starch is still present

32
Q

Black Lugols test

A

(+) means starch is present ( so no carb breakdown)

33
Q

Brown Lugols test

A

Hydrolyzed starch is present. Digestion has occurred

34
Q

Biurets test

A

Protein + pepsin –> polypeptides
Tests for the presence of peptide linkages
(+)-violet protein is present
(-) no color, pink or blue. Means there has been protein breakdown and less peptide linkages are present.

35
Q

Protein digestion components in this lab

A

Egg whites and pepsin solution

36
Q

Violet Biurets test

A

Positive means there are peptide linkages present and the protein did not break down

37
Q

Clear, blue or pink Biurets test

A

Negative. Means protein has broken down and less peptide linkages are present.

38
Q

Litmus test

A

Lipid + lipase –> fa + glycerol

Tests for presence of acids
(+) pink lipid breakdown occurred
(-) blue no lipid breakdown.

39
Q

Lipid breakdown components in this lab

A

Heavy cream and pancreatin

40
Q

Systolic blood pressure

A

Higher pressure

Corresponds to ventricular contraction

41
Q

Diastolic blood pressure

A

The smaller number

Corresponds to ventricular relaxation

42
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

Used to measure blood pressure

Cuff, manometer to read out pressure, inflating bulb to create pressure, exhaust valve.

43
Q

Ausculatory method

A

Detect both systolic and diastolic blood pressure by hearing kortkoffs sounds

44
Q

Kortkoffs sounds

A

Created by blood jetting through the compressed vessel when it opens enough to let blood through

45
Q

Palpating method

A

Blood pulse through the artery is felt.

Only measures systolic pressure. Will be able to feel pulse at the point where cuff pressure = systolic pressure

46
Q

Pulse qualities

A

Rate, rhythmicity, and strength of pulse

47
Q

P wave

A

Atrial depolarization

48
Q

Qrs

A

Ventricular depolarization

49
Q

T

A

Ventricular repolarization

50
Q

ECG

A

Electrocardiogram

Wave of depolarization moves across heart and electrical activity is recorded

51
Q

Myofibrils

A

Repeating units of thick and thin filaments within each muscle fiber

52
Q

Sarcomere

A

Functional unit of skeletal muscle contraction

Is one repeat of am yo fibrillation

53
Q

Thin filaments

A

Actin, troponin and tropomyosin. Tropomyosin coils around actin and troponin is bound to the coil.

54
Q

Thick filament

A

Myosin. Has long tail and globular heads with binding sites for actin and ATP.

Is energized when bound to ATP hydrolyzed but still bound.

55
Q

What happens in muscle when ca is bound?

A

Conformational change in e troponin tropomyosin complex. Troponin binds ca tropomyosin moves. Energized ATP can bind if actin

56
Q

Motor units

A

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that are inner gated y it

57
Q

All or none law of a skeletal muscle contractions

A

All muscle fivers inner aged by a stimulated motor neuron will contract maximally

58
Q

How is skeletal muscle strength increased?

A

The number of actin and myosin heads that bind will increase or the frequency tht actin and myosin bind and unbind per single action potential should increase.

Or increase the frequency of stimuli

59
Q

Minimal stimulus voltage

A

When a stimulus is strong enough to reach threshold of one motor neuron to fire an action potential. A stronger stimulus will reach threshold of multiple motor neurons recruiting additional motor neurons to produce contraction

60
Q

Maximal stimulus voltage

A

The strength of the stimulus that activates all of the motor units of a muscle.

61
Q

Muscle fatigue

A

Decaying of the strength of contraction. Due to the cessation of electrical activity due to accumulation of k+ and lactic acid and the depletion if ATP.

62
Q

Adaptation

A

When a continuous stimulus of constant strength is applied to a receptor a progressive decrease of responsiveness of the receptor occurs over time. The receptor becomes unresponsive to stimulus of the same type.

63
Q

Sensory units

A

A single sensory neuron and all of the receptors it inner area

64
Q

What factors impact the precision to localize stimuli?

A
  • size of receptive field
  • number of receptive fields
  • density of overlap of sensory units
  • density of receptors within a receptive field
65
Q

Lens

A

Directly behind the iris

66
Q

What happens to see far away?

A

Ciliary relax–zonular fibers taught–lens is flat

67
Q

What happens to see near

A

Contract ciliary muscles– fibers loose–lens convex

68
Q

Lens

A

Can bend to refract rats if light

69
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent front of eye

Important for focus onto the retina

70
Q

Photoreceptors

A

Convert light energy into a neural signal

71
Q

Rods

A

Activated by low levels of light and detect black and white

72
Q

Cones

A

Activated by bright light and detect color

73
Q

Fovea centralis

A

Region of the retina with the highest concentration if concession but no rods

74
Q

Optic disk

A

Blind spot.

A region that contains no photoreceptors–empty era

75
Q

Presbyopia

A

Age related decline in the ability of the lens to become convex to focus on near objects

76
Q

Nearsighted

A

The eyeball is too long and can focus on near objects but lens focus distant objects IN FRONT OF THE RETINA

AKA MYOPIA

77
Q

Visual acuity equation

A

d/D
d= distance from chart
D= distance at which the line can be read with normal vision.

78
Q

What does 20/80 mean?

A

This person can see an object at 20 ft that a normal person can see at 80ft.

BI211 (11 decks)

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