Lab Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Objects appear upside down and backwards through a microscope .

A

true

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2
Q

Use both hands to carry the microscope; keep the instrument upright.

A

true

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3
Q

The ___________ is a device invented in the seventeenth century for magnifying objects that are too small to be seen with the naked eye.

A

microscope

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4
Q

To save time, look through the microscope and rapidly bring the objective lens and the specimen together by rotating the coarse-adjustment knob.

A

false

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5
Q

The microscopists measures ocular micrometer disk divisions with the stage micrometer.

A

true

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6
Q

When utilizing a stage micrometer scale marked in 0.01 mm, the following formula holds true: (stage divisions/ocular divisions) x (0.01 mm/stage division) = millimeters per ocular division.

A

true

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7
Q

The ______ _______ gives microscopists a mathematical way of describing the light-gathering ability of a lens system.

A

numerical apenture

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8
Q

Most modem microscopes are parfocal. This means the microscopist can add infinitely more lens systems for greater magnification and resolution.

A

false

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9
Q

A compound microscope contains two or more sets of lenses.

A

true

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10
Q

Always be sure to oil your microscope lenses before returning the instrument to its designated space.

A

false

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11
Q

The space separating a specimen and the objective lens is called ________ distance

A

working

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12
Q

The stage micrometer scale is generally ruled to 0.0001 mm.

A

false

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13
Q

The objective lens is the one nearest the observer’s eye.

A

false

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14
Q

Immersion oil has nearly the same refractive index as glass.

A

true

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15
Q

The numerical aperture of an objective lens depends on the size of the cone of light it can receive and also upon the medium in which the lens is suspended.

A

true

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16
Q

A specimen is normally placed on top of the stage micrometer and measured with the tiny ruler that is etched onto the stage micrometer.

A

false

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17
Q

Which microscopist showed the mathematical relationship between resolution and the ability of a lens to gather light?

A

Ernst Abbe

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18
Q

Which microscopist published the first drawings of bacteria in 1676?

A

Anton van Leeuwenkoek

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19
Q

Lens paper can be used to remove oil from the glass components of the microscope.

A

true

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20
Q

To calculate the total magnification of your microscope, add the magnifications of the objective and ocular lenses.

A

false

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21
Q

The area that you see through a lens is the microscopic ________

A

field

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22
Q

Increasing the size of a blurred image generally reveals further details.

A

false

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23
Q

If a lens is designed to be used with immersion oil, it is able to gather more light when the oil is utilized than when air separates the lens from the specimen.

A

true

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24
Q

Resolving power is the ability to rotate a new objective Jens into the observation position and have the field remain in focus.

A

false

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25
Q

When utilizing a stage micrometer scale marked in 0.01 mm, the following formula holds true: (stage divisions/ocular divisions) x (10 um/stage division) = micrometers per ocular division.

A

true

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26
Q

Before vortexing bacterial cells in a broth culture, always remove the test tube closure.

A

false

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27
Q

Coccobacilli are cocci; palisades are groups of four cocci.

A

false

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28
Q

Smears should be air dried before they are heat fixed.

A

true

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29
Q

Heat fix bacterial smears by holding the slide in the hottest part of the flame for 2 minutes.

A

false

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30
Q

The decolorization in the Gram stain is Gram’s iodine.

A

false

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31
Q

In the Gram stain procedure, what is the color of gram-negative bacteria after the primary stain?

A

purple

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32
Q

Water rinses should not be left on the smear too long during the gram stain procedure because water slowly decolorizes stained cells.

A

true

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33
Q

A cation has a positive charge; chromophores are always anions.

A

false

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34
Q

An aqueous solution is made with water.

A

true

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35
Q

The primary stain in the Gram stain is crystal violet.

A

true

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36
Q

The cell wall of a gram-negative bacterium contains lipoprotein and lipopolysaccharide.

A

true

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37
Q

The peptidoglycan layer of a gram-negative cell wall is thicker than the corresponding layer of a gram-positive cell wall.

A

false

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38
Q

In the Gram stain procedure, what is the color of gram-positive bacteria after decolorization?

A

purple

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39
Q

In the neutral environment of most microbiological dyes, bacteria generally carry a net negative charge.

A

true

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40
Q

Gram-positivity is a characteristic that is easily lost.

A

true

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41
Q

In the Gram stain procedure, what is the color of gram-negative bacteria after the mordant (iodine)?

A

purple

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42
Q

Aniline dyes are derived from benzene, a coal tar derivative.

A

true

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43
Q

The chromophore of a basic dye carries a negative charge.

A

false

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44
Q

In the Gram stain procedure, what is the color of gram-negative bacteria after the counterstain stain?

A

pink

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45
Q

The decolorization is applied before the mordant in the Gram stain procedure.

A

false

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46
Q

The cell wall of gram-positive have a thick layer of peptidoglycan associated with teichoic acids.

A

true

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47
Q

In the Gram stain procedure, what is the color of gram-positive bacteria after the primary stain?

A

purple

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48
Q

A slide is clean enough for bacteriological smears if water coalesces on it.

A

false

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49
Q

A chemosynthetic organism is able to construct cellular molecules out of carbon dioxide and oxygen.

A

false

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50
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity testing is performed with pure cultures.

A

true

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51
Q

what is the term for devoid of life

A

aseptic

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52
Q

what is the term for A combination of various microbial species living together

A

mixed culture

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53
Q

what is the term for One kind of bacteria, ideally the descendants of one cell, living together

A

pure culture

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53
Q

what is the term for the introduction of unwanted organisms

A

contamination

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53
Q

what is the term for free from disease-producing microorganisms

A

sterile

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53
Q

Many cyanobacteria fix gaseous nitrogen.

A

true

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54
Q

Sterile techniques are generally utilized with broth cultures; aseptic techniques are reserved for solid media work.

A

false

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55
Q

Flaming sterilizes by incinerating organisms.

A

true

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56
Q

Rotifers are protozoa.

A

false

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57
Q

Endospores are resting or survival structures.

A

true

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58
Q

Heterotrophic organisms require organic molecules for a carbon source.

A

true

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59
Q

Aseptic techniques are performed only for their traditional value. In a modem microbiology laboratory, microbes are electronically removed from the air, workbench, inoculation instruments, and hands.

A

false

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60
Q

Microbiology laboratories often maintain stock cultures. These stocks are pure cultures.

A

true

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61
Q

Unstained Treponema pallidum is too thin to be observed with a compound, light, bright-field microscope.

A

true

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62
Q

In a microbiology laboratory, it is generally safe to mouth pipet since most microorganisms are not killed by exposure to exhaled air.

A

false

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63
Q

A photosynthetic organism is able to make cellular energy out of light energy.

A

true

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64
Q

Alcohol-flaming can be employed to sterilize the tips of forceps.

A

true

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65
Q

An aerosol is a visible clump of bacteria suspended in proteinaceous matter such as sputum.

A

false

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66
Q

When transferring bacteria from a solid surface, be sure to gouge the agar, digging out the entire colony where it has burrowed into the medium.

A

false

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67
Q

To help identify a bacterial species, a microbiologist usually performs biochemical tests on the mixed culture.

A

false

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68
Q

Factors that limit the amount of growth in a broth culture include size of inoculum, availability of nutrients, temperature and duration of incubation, presence of oxygen, concentration of toxins, and so on.

A

true

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69
Q

Some rods are called diphtheroids because they resemble Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

A

true

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70
Q

Select organisms with a eukaryotic cell or cells. (3)

Bacteria (including cyanobacteria)
protozoa
multicellular invertebrates
algae

A

algae
protozoa
multicellular invertebrates

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71
Q

which group contains endospores

A

bacteria (including cyanobacteria)

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72
Q

Bacteria moving toward oxygen are displaying negative phototaxis.

A

false

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73
Q

To focus on unstained, transparent cells, reduce illumination of the field far below the levels used with stained cells.

A

true

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74
Q

A saprophytic organism usually parasitizes living tissue, causing disease and death.

A

false

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75
Q

what has a prokaryotic cell

A

bacteria

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76
Q

Alcohol-flaming should always be performed over a stack of papers so that the dripping alcohol does not burn the workbench.

A

false

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77
Q

Daphnia is an alga.

A

false

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78
Q

During alcohol-flaming, the tips of the forceps are not held in the burner flame until they are red-hot.

A

true

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79
Q

In nature most microorganisms are found in mixed cultures.

A

true

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80
Q

Spirochetes are rigid, inflexible, spiral-shaped bacteria; spirilla are flexible, spiral-shaped bacteria.

A

false

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81
Q

If an organism lacks a nuclear membrane but is green and produces oxygen, it is probably a member of which group?

A

bacteria

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82
Q

To preserve purity, handle cultures as little as possible. Open them all at the beginning of the laboratory period; close them once, before leaving the area.

A

false

83
Q

Inoculating needles and loops are generally constructed of Nichrome or platinum wire.

A

true

84
Q

Worms are multicellular invertebrates.

A

true

85
Q

Pairs of cocci are called packets.

A

false

86
Q

The energy of life produces order and dispels entropy.

A

true

87
Q

In a pour plate, colonies develop throughout the medium.

A

true

88
Q

Colonies are smaller in crowded areas of a pour plate than in areas where they are well separated.

A

true

89
Q

Lenticulate colonies are usually found on the surface of a pour plate.

A

false

90
Q

In microbiology laboratories, colonies are usually counted to determine the number of bacteria per milliliter of the original sample.

A

true

91
Q

A countable plate has between 1 and 300 colonies.

A

false

92
Q

The physiological characteristics of an organism are its Gram stain reaction.

A

false

93
Q

In a serial dilution, each tube contains the same dilution as the previous one.

A

false

94
Q

To fulfill Koch’s postulates, a researcher must cultivate a mixed culture of organisms from the blood of a diseased experimental animal.

A

false

95
Q

Koch’s postulates are used to prove that a specific microorganism causes a specific disease.

A

true

96
Q

Robert Koch was a pioneer of medical microbiology.

A

true

97
Q

In a sample of human sputum or feces, you usually find a mixture of many different kinds of organisms.

A

true

98
Q

In samples from nature, bacteria are usually found in mixed culture.

A

true

99
Q

The two most common methods that separate individual bacteria from each other are the pour plates and lawns.

A

false

100
Q

Be sure to flame your swab after preparing a spread plate.

A

false

101
Q

Bacterial sensitivity to antibiotics is often tested on a spread plate.

A

true

102
Q

Bacteriophage are special bacteria that are grown in spread plates.

A

false

103
Q

All bacterial colonies look alike. Only staining reveals differences between genera.

A

false

104
Q

The area of confluent growth is where colonies overlap and grow together.

A

true

105
Q

The progeny of a single cell may form a colony, a visible clump of growth, on the surface of an agar medium.

A

true

106
Q

Streaking a plate involves drawing a loopful of organisms back and forth across a solid medium in a Petri dish until the microbes fall off the loop one at a time.

A

true

107
Q

A bacterial concentration gradient is a well-dispersed mixture of bacteria, thoroughly suspended in a broth culture.

A

false

108
Q

When preparing a bacterial spread plate, swab a pure culture of bacteria evenly over the entire surface of an agar medium in a Petri dish.

A

true

109
Q

To prepare a streak plate, spread bacteria evenly over the entire surface of a plate of medium.

A

false

110
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Haemophilus influenzae are generally incubated in a candle jar.

A

true

111
Q

Host-specific phages can distinguish one strain of a single bacterial species from another strain of the same species.

A

true

112
Q

Bacteria are used to treat virus strains (with ice packs and tiny Ace bandages) in bacteriophage typing.

A

false

113
Q

Since there is oxygen in the air that surrounds earth, being an aerobe is a great advantage for microorganisms in nature.

A

false

114
Q

In a broth-clearing assay, the titer of phage in the original coliphage sample equals the end-point tube’s dilution.

A

false

115
Q

A plaque assay is designed to discover the number of bacteria in a viral solution.

A

false

116
Q

Loosen the caps of screw cap tubes before incubating oxygen-utilizing bacteria in them.

A

true

117
Q

After inoculating a tube of Fluid Thioglycollate Medium, shake the tube thoroughly to aerate and separate the bacteria.

A

false

118
Q

Fermentation does not require oxygen.

A

true

119
Q

Cultivation of viruses in tissue culture is generally as quick, inexpensive, and convenient as growing bacteria in nutrient media.

A

false

120
Q

Viruses are classified by host, nucleic acid, size, shape, and presence or absence of an envelope.

A

true

121
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction 2H2O2 -> 2H2 + O2 is superoxide dismutase.

A

false

122
Q

Fermentation releases some but not all of the energy in organic compounds.

A

true

123
Q

Coliphage are common microbiological laboratory “weeds” that infect all human pathogens.

A

false

124
Q

The titer (concentration) of virions in your original coliphage sample equals the number of plaques on a countable plate times the inverse of that plate’s dilution.

A

true

125
Q

To prepare an agar shake culture, boil the medium, solidify it, and then inoculate it with a clean stab to the bottom of the tube.

A

false

126
Q

After incubation, the sealed redox potential indicator envelope is removed from a GasPak jar and opened.

A

false

127
Q

A redox potential is the opposite of an oxidation reduction potential; when one is high the other is low.

A

false

128
Q

To prepare a coliphage plaque assay, add Escherichia coli strain B to Soft Agar overlays, add dilutions of a virulent coliphage, pour the overlays into Tryptic Soy Agar in Petri dishes, incubate appropriately, then examine for liquefaction of the Soft Agar.

A

false

129
Q

A candle jar contains the best mix of gases available for culturing anaerobes.

A

false

130
Q

Pasteur discovered anaerobes, microorganisms that are poisoned by oxygen.

A

true

131
Q

A plaque-forming unit represents one bacterial cell.

A

false

132
Q

Fluid Thioglycollate Medium is pink in the bottom of the tube where the resazurin is highly reduced.

A

false

133
Q

Viruses are defined as “cellular” because they replicate inside of living host cells.

A

false

134
Q

Bacteria that are exposed to air as they grow are generally in a highly reduced envrionment.

A

false

135
Q

Spread a thick layer of petroleum jelly around the O-ring of a GasPak jar before sealing the lid.

A

false

136
Q

A viral plaque is a hole in a confluent layer of permissive host cells.

A

true

137
Q

Anaerobes grow in reduced environments.

A

true

138
Q

If nitrite is missing from an incubated culture tube of Nitrate Broth, it may indicate that the bacteria did not produce nitrate reductase.

A

true

139
Q

Proteus is urease-positive; Salmonella and Shigella are urease-negative.

A

true

140
Q

Denitrification is the complete oxidation of NO-3 to form nitrogen gas.

A

false

141
Q

Facultatively anaerobic bacteria generally do not produce nitrate reductase.

A

false

142
Q

Endoenzumes speed reactions outside of cells.

A

false

143
Q

Urease catalyzes the reduction of NO-3; nitrate reductase catalyzes the hydrolysis of NO-2.

A

false

144
Q

Probes are pieces of nucleic acid that scientists sometimes use to identify microbes.

A

true

145
Q

Proteus is generally nonpathogenic in the human intestine, but it is a common cause of urinary tract infections.

A

true

146
Q

On Starch Agar a darkened area indicates starch hydrolysis.

A

false

147
Q

Cytochrome oxidase is produced by Pseudomonas but not by members of the Enterobacteriaceae.

A

true

148
Q

Egg yolk contains the phospholipid lecithin (choline phosphoglyceride), an emulsifying agent. About two-thirds of the dry weight of egg yolks is lipid.

A

true

149
Q

To analyze the reactions of bacteria growing on Starch Agar, flood the plate with 3% hydrogen peroxide.

A

false

150
Q

Any bacteria that grow on a plate of Starch Agar are amylase producers.

A

false

151
Q

An oxidase is an enzyme that oxidizes compounds.

A

false

152
Q

Enterococcus, Streptococcus, and Lactobacillus tolerate oxygen and produce catalase.

A

false

153
Q

Gelatin suspensions are in the gel state below 25 degrees C.

A

true

154
Q

In a Nitrate Broth culture, if zinc reduces nitrate to nitrite, then the bacteria in the tube did not.

A

true

155
Q

All bacteria that utilize desulfhydrases produce hydrogen sulfide, rotten egg gas.

A

true

156
Q

Catalase helps Staphylococcus aureus poison mayonnaise by attacking fat molecules.

A

false

157
Q

Cysteine desulfhydrase yields hydrogen sulfide, hydrochloric acid, and pyruvic acid.

A

false

158
Q

Hydrogen peroxide is toxic to cells, but it is also a common by-product of reactions that accompany aerobic respiration.

A

true

159
Q

Some exoenzymes break down molecules that are too large to cross a cell membrane.

A

true

160
Q

Urea is a protein.

A

false

161
Q

Amylases hydrolyze starch by adding the Na+ and CI- ions of H2O.

A

false

162
Q

Lipids are found in all cell membranes.

A

true

163
Q

Along with other information, DNA carries the genetic code for all the enzymes that a microorganism produces.

A

true

164
Q

Starch is a large, many-branched polymer of the monosaccharide glucose.

A

true

165
Q

Urea is toxic to most cells, but urease producers can degrade this nitrogen-containing compound.

A

true

166
Q

Microbial physiology is the study of the size, shape, arrangement, and staining reactions of bacteria.

A

false

167
Q

The black precipitate that may form in a test tube containing Triple Sugar Iron Agar consists of H2S.

A

false

168
Q

Clostridium tetani toxin kills with the rigid paralysis of tetanus.

A

true

169
Q

Since agar media are largely water, a water-soluble microbial pigment tints the agar as well as the colony.

A

true

170
Q

The most deadly biological nerve toxin known is botulism toxin.

A

true

171
Q

A colony is an individual bacterial cell.

A

false

172
Q

All endospores are terminally located in swollen sporangia.

A

false

173
Q

Endospore-forming bacteria produce the ____________________ antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

A

bacitracin

174
Q

Conditions of incubation include temperature, pH, and salinity, but not the medium and its nutrients.

A

false

175
Q

The Schaeffer-Fulton endospore-staining procedure employs ethyl alcohol and phenol to drive malachite green into endospores.

A

false

176
Q

After staining with the Schaeffer-Fulton endospore procedure, endospores appear pickle green while vegetative cells are periwinkle blue.

A

false

177
Q

Endospores preserve life in a/an __________
state with no measurable metabolic activity.

A

cryptobiotic

178
Q

Bacillus anthracis is the etiologic agent of anthrax.

A

true

179
Q

When the scientific method of investigation is employed, only experiments that prove the accuracy of the original hypothesis are useful.

A

false

180
Q

Opaque means translucent.

A

false

181
Q

A control is a test in which only one factor is different than in the experiment.

A

true

182
Q

Endospores in cooked food may germinate at room temperatures and lead to food poisoning.

A

true

183
Q

Bacterial endospores are hard, dry structures that burst forth as external buds on certain genera of flowering rods.

A

false

184
Q

The appearance of a colony reflects the biochemistry of the species that formed it, so all bacterial colonies look alike.

A

false

185
Q

Which is the decolorizer in the Schaeffer-Fulton endospore-staining procedure?

A

water

186
Q

Which is the primary dye used in the Schaeffer-Fulton endospore-staining procedure?

A

malachite green

187
Q

In the Schaeffer-Fulton endospore stain, which of these is the counterstain?

A

safranin

188
Q

Which of these is a common aniline dye used by microbiologists but not employed in the Schaeffer-Fulton endospore-staining procedure?

A

methylene blue

189
Q

When utilizing the scientific method of investigation, you must first recognize a problem or situation and then gather information concerning it.

A

true

190
Q

Scrubbing the hands with antiseptic solution and a brush for 40 seconds always kills all bacteria on the cleansed area.

A

false

191
Q

Soap cleans by chemically linking oil to grease.

A

false

192
Q

Soaps are formed when fats are heated in the presence of an acid such as hydrochloric acid.

A

false

193
Q

The carboxylate end of a soap molecule is soluble in the hydrocarbons, the oily end in water.

A

false

194
Q

Washing hands usually reduces their microbial load of transient flora.

A

true

195
Q

Any cleansing solution, including soap, is a detergent.

A

true

196
Q

If 38 colonies develop on a 10-6 dilution plate, it seems likely that between 0 and 5 colonies might grow on a 10-5 plate prepared from the same original suspension of bacteria.

A

false

197
Q

Thoroughly scrubbing the hands and fingernails with hot soapy water for 1 minute removes all bacteria from the area cleansed.

A

false

198
Q

Filtration and cultivation of colonies on a filter will determine __________________________The measurement of optical density will measure ___________________ Spread plate colony count is used for ____________________
Fit 1 from either: quantification of viable microorganisms only. Quantification of both viable and nonliving microorganisms.

A

Filtration and cultivation of colonies on a filter will determine quantification of viable microorganisms only.
. The measurement of optical density will measure
quantification of both viable and nonliving microorganisms.
. Spread plate colony count is used for
quantification of viable microorganisms only.

199
Q

Soap forms a chemical link between oil and water.

A

true

200
Q

Only a living colony-forming unit forms a colony.

A

true

201
Q

Hand washing by medical personnel helps reduce the patient’s risk of nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections.

A

true

202
Q

A colony-forming unit may be a single cell or a clumps of bacteria.

A

true

203
Q

During saponification a sodium salt of an acid is produced

A

true

204
Q

The soapy scum that forms in oily, hard water removes bacteria when it sinks to the bottom of the liquid, weighted down by its load of heavy mineral salts.

A

false

205
Q

If you pour 15 ml of agar medium into a Petri dish that contains 1 ml of a 10-6 bacterial dilution, the dilution of the plate is still recorded as 10-6.

A

true

206
Q

Saponification is a highly complex chemical process, but soap making is fairly straightforward.

A

false

207
Q

Estimation of microbial population size are useful for industrial microbiologist but are of little value to the medical or public health microbiologist.

A

false

208
Q
A