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Microbiology Lecture > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the types of microorganisms (7)

A

bacteria
archaea
fungi
protozoa
algae
virus
multicellular animal parasite

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2
Q

what type of cell walls do bacteria have

A

peptidoglycan

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3
Q

how do bacteria reproduce

A

binary fission

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4
Q

how do bacteria make energy

A

organic chemicals, inorganic chemicals, or photosynthesis

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5
Q

are archaea prokaryotic or eukaryotic

A

prokaryotic

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6
Q

what do archaea lack

A

peptidoglycan

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7
Q

what type of environment do archaea live in

A

extreme
methanogens
extreme halophiles
extreme thermophiles

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8
Q

are fungi eukaryotes or procaryotes

A

eukaryotes

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9
Q

what type of cell wall do fungi have

A

chitin cell wall

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10
Q

are protozoa eukaryotes or prokaryotes

A

eukaryotes

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11
Q

is algae prokaryotes or eukaryotes

A

eukaryotes

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12
Q

what type of cell wall does algae have

A

cellulose cell wall

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13
Q

viruses are ______

A

acellular

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14
Q

explain what viruses contain and what they are surrounded by

A

consist of DNA and RNA core and the core is surrounded by a protein coat and that coat may be enclosed in a lipid envelope

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15
Q

viruses are _______ only when they are in a living host cell

A

replicate

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16
Q

are multicellular organisms prokaryotic or eukaryotic

A

eukaryotic

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17
Q

what are the 3 domains on classifying microorganisms

A

1) bacteria
2) archaea
3) eukarya

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18
Q

what is fermentation

A

conversion of sugar to alcohol
makes beer and wine

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19
Q

what is pasturization

A

is the application of high head for a short time

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20
Q

what is chemotherapy

A

treatment with chemicals

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21
Q

what are antibiotics

A

chemicals produced by bacteria and fungi that inhibit or kill other microbes

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22
Q

what is bacteriology

A

study of bacteria

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23
Q

what is mycology

A

study of fungi

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24
Q

what is virology

A

study of viruses

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25
Q

what is parasitiology

A

study of parasites and protozoa

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26
Q

what is immunology

A

study of immunity vaccines and interferons

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27
Q

what are interferons

A

a protein released by animal cells, usually in response to the entry of a virus, which has the property of inhibiting virus replication

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28
Q

what is microbial genetics

A

the study of how microbes inherit traits

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29
Q

what is molecular biology

A

the study of how DNA directs protein synthesis

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30
Q

what is genomics

A

the study of an organisms genes has produced new tools for classifying micro organisms

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31
Q

what is recombinant DNA

A

DNA made from 2 different sources

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32
Q

what is microbial ecology

A

bacteria recycle carbon nutrients, sulfur and phosphorus that can be used by plants and animals

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33
Q

what is bioremediation

A

bacteria degrade organic matter in sewage and can degrade or detoxify pollutants such as oil and mercury

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34
Q

what is biotechnology?

A

the use of microbes to produce foods and chemicals

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35
Q

how do we utilize recombinant DNA technology

A

technology for biotech enables bacteria and fungi to produce a variety of proteins including vax and enzymes

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36
Q

what is gene therapy

A

missing or defective genes in human cells can be replaced

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37
Q

what are normal microbes

A

microbes normally present in and on the human body

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38
Q

what is resistance

A

is the ability of the body to ward off disease

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39
Q

what are some resistance factors

A

include skin, stomach acid, and antimicrobial chemicals

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40
Q

what causes and what are some diseases that are from TSE (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)

A

caused by prions (proteins that are infectious)
causes bovine spongiform (mad cow disease)
causes Jakob disease (human mad cow disease)

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41
Q

prokaryotes
explain chromosome
membrane?
histones?
organelles?
what type of cell wall
how do they reproduce

A

1 circular chromosome
not in a membrane
no histones
no organelles
peptidoglycan cell wall if bacteria
pseudomurein cell wall if archaea
binary fission (clones)

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42
Q

eukaryotes
explain chromosomes
membrane?
histones?
organelles?
what type of cell wall
how do they reproduce

A

paired chromosomes
in nuclear membrane
has histones
has organelles
polysaccride cell wall
mitotic spindle for mitosis and meiosis

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43
Q

are most bacteria monomorphic or pleomorphic and what does that mean

A

most are monomorphic (single shape and dont change) a a few are pleomorphic (can change shape during life cycle)

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44
Q

shape
what is bacillus mean

A

rod shaped

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45
Q

shape
what is coccus mean

A

spherical

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46
Q

shape
what is spirillum

A

cork screw shape appearance

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47
Q

shape
what is vibrio

A

they are comma shape bacteria with less than one complete turn or twist in cell

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48
Q

arrangement
what are pairs (name)

A

di- tri- ect

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49
Q

arrangement
what are cluster (name)

A

staphylo-

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50
Q

arrangement
what are chain (name)

A

strepto-

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51
Q

what do prokaryotic cells have to have

A

cytoplasm
ribosomes
plasma membrane
nucleoid containing DNA

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52
Q

what is glycocalyx

A

outside cell wall that is sticky and has a capsule that is neatly organized. capsule prevent phagocytosis and the extracellular polysaccharide allows cell to attach

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53
Q

explain flagella

A

outside cell wall
made of chains of flagellum
attached to a protein hook
anchored to the wall and membrane by the basal body

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54
Q

what are axiel filaments and what are they also called

A

aka endoflagella
in spirochetes (rotation causes cell to move-twirls like corescrew)
anchored at 1 degree end of cell

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55
Q

what is fimbriae and pili

A

fimbriae allow attachment
pili facilitate transfer of DNA from 1 cell to another, has gliding motility and twitching motility

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56
Q

what does the cell wall prevent

A

osmotic lysis (cell burst)

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57
Q

what is the cell wall made of in bacteria

A

peptioglycan

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58
Q

explain peptidoglycan in bacteria
does gram negative or gram positive has alot

A

cell wall that is a polymer of disaccharide
has N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)
has N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)
gram + have a lot
gram - have little

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59
Q

explain peptidoglycan in gram + bacteria

A

linked in polypeptides
NAG and NAM thick and hardier in environment

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60
Q

explain peptidoglycan in gram - bacteria

A

NAG, NAM and lipopolysaccharide
thin peptidoglycan outer membrane, periplasmic space

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61
Q

why is LPS layer important in gram - bacteria

A

LPS layer is important and can to toxins if killed by antibodies
extra LPS layer which has O polysaccrides

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62
Q

what type of acid does gram + have in it and what does it do
what else does gram + bacteria have in it and what does it do

A

teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acid
teichoic acid (wall) links peptidoglycan
lipoteichoic acid links to plasma membrane
may regulate movement of cations
polysaccharides provide antigenic variation

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63
Q

explain gram - outer membrane and why its important to the cell

A

protection from phagocytosis complement and antibodies
O polysaccharides antigen
lipid A is an endotoxin
Prions (protein) form channels through membrane

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64
Q

how does gram stain work
how does if differentiate between gram + and -

A

crystal violet iodine crystals form in cell (first step in staining)
gram += alcohol dehydrates peptidoglycan therefore CV-1 crystals do not leave (dark purple)
gram -= alcohol dissolves outer membrane and leaves holes in the peptidoglycan therefore CV-1 washes out (pink)

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65
Q

overview of gram + cell wall
how many ring basal body
disrupted by what
what is it sensitive to

A

2 ring basal body
disrupted by lysozyme
penicillin sensitive

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66
Q

overview of gram - cell wall
how many ring basal body
what is it capable of
what is it sensitive to

A

4 ring basal body
endotoxin
tetracycline sensitive

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67
Q

explain archaea cell wall

A

wall less or walls of pseudomurein (lack NAM and D-amino acids)

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68
Q

explain what happens if there is damage to the cell wall

A

lysozyme digests disaccharide in peptidoglycan
we have alot of lysozyme on skin due to it being a natural enzyme

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69
Q

what does penicillin do when there is damage to a cell wall

A

penicillin inhibits peptide bridges in peptidoglycan

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70
Q

define protoplast

A

wall less cell

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71
Q

define spheroplast

A

wall less gram - cell

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72
Q

what are protoplast and spheroplast susceptible to

A

osmotic lysis

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73
Q

define L form

A

wall less cells that swell into irregular shape

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74
Q

explain plasma membrane
what type of bilayer
what type of proteins
what does it do

A

phospholipid bilayer
peripheral proteins
integral proteins
transmembrane proteins
has selective permeability which allows passage of some molecules

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75
Q

what is simple diffusion and where would this happen

A

plasma membrane
movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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76
Q

what is facilitated diffusion and where would this happen

A

plasma membrane
solute combines with transporter protein

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77
Q

what is osmosis

A

osmosis is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high water to an area of lower water concentration

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78
Q

what is osmotic pressure

A

the pressure needed to stop the movement of water across the membrane.

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79
Q

what is isotonic

A

no net movement of water (=)

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80
Q

what is hypotonic

A

water moves into cell
osmotic lysis (explode)

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81
Q

what is hypertonic

A

water moved out of cell
plasmolysis (shrink up)

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82
Q

what is active transport

A

req a transporter protein and ATP

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83
Q

what is group translocation

A

req a transporter protein and high energy phosphate compounds
the molecule is modified as it transports into the cell

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84
Q

define ribosomes

A

site of protein synthesis
composed of protein and RNA molecules

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85
Q

explain what endospores are and what they are in and what are they resistant to

A

resting cells- forms and becomes inactive for a while
only in certain gram + bacteria
resistant to desiccation, heat, and chemicals

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86
Q

what is sporulation

A

endospore formation

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87
Q

what is germination

A

return to vegetative state

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88
Q

what is a gram - exception to endospores

A

Coxiella burnetiid is an exception

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89
Q

organelle
what is nucleus

A

contains chromosomes

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90
Q

organelle
what is endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

A

transports network

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91
Q

organelle
what is golgi complex

A

membrane formation and secretion

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92
Q

organelle
what is lysosome

A

digestive enzymes

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93
Q

organelle
what is vacuole

A

brings food into cells
provides support

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94
Q

organelle
what is mitochondion

A

cellular respiration

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95
Q

organelle
what is chloroplast

A

photosynthesis

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96
Q

organelle
what is peroxisome

A

oxidation of fatty acids
destroys hydrogen peroxide

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97
Q

organelle
what is centrosome

A

used in mitosis consists of protein fibers and centrioles

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98
Q

cytoplasm
what is cytoplasm membrane

A

substance inside plasma and outside nucleus

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99
Q

cytoplasm
what is cytosol

A

fluid portion of cytoplasm

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100
Q

cytoplasm
what is cytoskeleton

A

microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

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101
Q

cytoplasm
what is cytoplasmic streaming

A

movement of cytoplasm throughout cell

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102
Q

eukaryotic nucleus
what is heterochromatin

A

tightly packed form of DNA

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103
Q

eukaryotic nucleus
what is euchromatin

A

lightly packed form of DNA

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104
Q

explain metabolism

A

the sum of the chemical reactions in an organism

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105
Q

explain catabolic

A

provides energy and building blocks for anabolism

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106
Q

explain anabolic

A

uses energy and building blocks to build larger molecules

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107
Q

what is a metabolic pathway

A

is a sequence of enzymatically catalyzed chemical reaction in a cell
metabolic pathways are determined by enzymes and enzymes are encoded by genes

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108
Q

what are chemical energy sources called

A

chemotrophs

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109
Q

what are light energy sources called

A

phototrophs

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110
Q

chemotrophs that take carbon source and turn it into organic compounds or CO2 what are called what and what do they produce and what uses that source

A
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111
Q

phototrophs that take carbon source and turn it into organic compounds or CO2 what are they called and what do they produce and what uses that source

A
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112
Q

Explain role of ATP coupling reactions

A
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113
Q

enzyme components
what is apoenzyme

A

protein

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114
Q

what is a biological catalyst

A

specific for a chemical reaction not used up in that reaction

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115
Q

enzyme component
what is cofactoring

A

non protein component

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116
Q

enzyme component
what is coenzyme

A

organic cofactor

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117
Q

enzyme component
what is haloenzyme

A

apoenzyme plus cofactor

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118
Q

enzyme component
what does it look like all together

A
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119
Q

name 4 important coenzymes

A

NAD+
NADP+
FAD
Coenzyme A (CoA)

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120
Q

enzyme classification
what is oxidoreductase

A

oxidation-reduction reactions

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121
Q

enzyme classification
what is transferase

A

transfer functional groups

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122
Q

enzyme classification
what is hydrolase

A

hydrolysis- break apart with H2O

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123
Q

enzyme classification
what is lyase

A

removal of atoms without hydrolysis

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124
Q

enzyme classification
what is isomerase

A

rearrangement of atoms

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125
Q

enzyme classification
what is ligase

A

joining of molecules, uses ATP

126
Q

what are 4 factors that influence enzyme activity

A

temp
pH
substrate concentration
inhibitors

127
Q

what are the effects of temp on enzyme activity

A

the enzymatic activity (rate of reaction catalyzed by the enzyme) increases with increasing temp until the enzyme (protein) is denatured by heat and is inactivated. (at that point the reaction rate falls steeply)

128
Q

what is the pH that most microbes like

129
Q

what are the effects of substrate concentration on enzyme activity

A

substrate concentration increase will also increase the rate of reaction until the active site on all the enzymes molecules are filled at which point the max rate of reaction is filled

130
Q

what is the mechanism of enzymatic action

131
Q

explain enzyme inhibitors the competitive inhibition

A

adds the competitive inhibitor

132
Q

explain enzyme inhibitors the non competitive inhibitors

A

has a non-competitive inhibitor that causes a altered active site

133
Q

define oxidation

A

removal of electrons

134
Q

define reduction

A

gain of electrons

135
Q

what is a redox reaction

A

an oxidation reaction paired with a reduction reaction

136
Q

explain how ATP generates (where does it come from)

A

ATP is generated by the phophorylation of ADP

137
Q

explain substrate level phosphorylation

A

energy from the transfer of high energy PO4- to ADP generates ATP

138
Q

explain oxidative phosphorylation

A

energy released from transfer of electrons (oxidation) of one compound to another (reduction) is used to generate ATP in the electron transport chain

139
Q

explain photophosphorylation

A

light causes chlorophyll to give up electrons. energy released from transfer of electrons (oxidation) of chlorophyll through a system of carrier molecules is used to generate ATP

140
Q

what is carbohydrate catabolism

A

the breakdown of carbohydrates to release energy

141
Q

what is the primary source of cellular energy for microoranisms

A

oxidation of carbs

142
Q

what is the most common carb for microorganisms

143
Q

why do microbes catabolize lipids and protein for

A

energy production

144
Q

what are 4 ways that cells can break down carbs to release energy

A

glycolysis
krebs cycle
electron transport chain
respiration vs fermentation

145
Q

sum up glycolysis

A

oxidation of glucose to pyruvic acid with the production of some ATP and energy containing NADH

146
Q

sum up the krebs cycle

A

oxidation of acetyl Coa (a pyruvic acid derivative) to carbon dioxide with the production of some ATP, energy containing NADH and FADH2

147
Q

sum up electron transport chain

A

NADH and FADH2 are oxidized contributing electrons to a cascade of oxidation-reduction reactions involving additional electron carriers

148
Q

which carbohydrate catabolism generates the most energy

A

electron transport chain

149
Q

explain cellular respirtation

A

ATP generating process in which molecules are oxidized and the final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule

150
Q

what are the two types of cellular respiration

A

aerobic
anaerobic

151
Q

what is the final electron acceptor for aerobic

152
Q

what is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic

A

molecule besides O2

153
Q

fermentation
explain what it is
what doesnt it req
how much ATP

A

after glucose has been broken down into pyruvic acid it can be converted into an organic product (NAD+ and NADP are generated and enter into another round of glycosis)
Doesnt req O2 and doesnt require krebs cycle or electron transport chain
uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor
produces only small amounts of ATP (bc origial energy in glucose remains in the bonds of the organic end product)

154
Q

What are 2 alternatives to glycolysis

A

pentose phosphate pathway
entner-doudoroff pathway

155
Q

glycolysis
explain what kinase does

A

add phosphate groups to a substrate-phosphorylation

156
Q

glycolysis
explain what phosphatase does

A

removes phosphate group

157
Q

glycolysis
explain what isomerase does

A

structurally rearranges an isomer

158
Q

glycolysis
explain what dehydrogenase does

A

removes H+ oxidizes a substrate and move H+ to electron acceptor

159
Q

glycolysis
explain what lipase does

A

breakdown lipid into their fatty acid and glycerol component

160
Q

to produce energy from glucose microbes use 2 general processes:

A

respiration and fermentation

161
Q

explain the process of the respiration (left side)
glycolysis-krebs cycle-electron transport chain

162
Q

explain the process of the fermentation process (right side)
glycolysis- fermentation

163
Q

what is the preparatory stage of glycolysis
what happens

A

1st stage
2 ATP are used
glucose is split to form a 2-glucose-3-phosphate

164
Q

what is the energy conserving stage of glycolysis
what happens

A

2nd stage
2-glucose-3-phosphate oxidized to pyruvic acid
4 ATP is used
2 NADH produces

165
Q

what is the intermediate step of glycolysis
what happens

A

3rd stage
pyruvic acid from glycolysis is oxidized and decarbonated

166
Q

after glycolysis what is the next cycle (respiration)

A

krebs cycle

167
Q

explain krebs cycle

A

oxidation of acetyl CoA to succinic acid
produces NADH and FADH2 which go on to enter the electron transport chain
a lot of oxidation-reduction reactions

168
Q

after krebs cycle what is the next “cycle” (respiration)

A

electron transport chain

169
Q

explain electron transport chain

A

a series of carrier molecules that are in turn oxidized and reduced as electrons are passed down the chain
energy released can be used to produce ATP by chemiosmosis

170
Q

what are the 3 classes of carrier molecules

A

flavoproteins
cytochromes
ubiquinone’s

171
Q

how does chemiosmotic generate ATP

A

aerobic
anaerobic

172
Q

what is the ATP yield for aerobic respiration

173
Q

explain aerobic respiration

A

the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is molecular oxygen (O2)

174
Q

explain anaerobic respiration

A

the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is not O2

175
Q

does aerobic or anaerobic respiration yield less energy and why

A

anaerobic bc only part of the krebs cycle operate under anaerobic conditions

176
Q

scientific definition of fermentation

A

release energy from oxidation of organic molecules
doesnt req O2
doesnt use krebs cycle or ETC
uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor

177
Q

photosynthesis
photo:
synthesis:

A

photo: conversion of light energy into chemical energy (ATP). light dependent light reactions
synthesis: carbon fixation- fixing carbons into organic molecules. light independent (dark) reaction- calvin benson cycle

178
Q

oxygenic photosynthesis

179
Q

anoxygenic photosynthesis

180
Q

metabolic diversity among organisms
sum up different nutritional type

181
Q

define microbial growth

A

increase in number of CELLS not cell SIZE
increase in population, colonies

182
Q

how is biofilm a self influenced physical condition?

A

microbes work together to generate an environmental favorable to their growth

183
Q

what is quorum sensing

A

communication and unique production that microbes use to promote biofilm dispersion, regulate genes involved in biofilm development, and upregulates the synthesis of surfactant molecules

184
Q

bacterial growth curve
explain lag phase

A

1st phase
intense activity preparing. no increase in population

185
Q

bacterial growth curve
explain log phase

A

2nd phase
increase in population

186
Q

bacterial growth curve
explain stationary phase

A

3rd phase
period of equilibrium
microbial death= production of new cells

187
Q

bacterial growth curve
explain death phase

A

4th phase
population decrease

188
Q

microbial growth
what must media provide

A

energy
sulfur
carbon
phosphorus
nitrogen
organic growth factors

189
Q

what is purpose of chemically defined media

A

growth of chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs

190
Q

what is purpose of complex media

A

growth of most chemoheterotrophic organisms

191
Q

what is purpose of reducing media

A

growth of obligate anaerobic

192
Q

what is purpose of selective media

A

decrease unwanted microbes which encourage increase desired microbes

193
Q

what is purpose of differential media

A

differentiation of colonies of desired microbes from other

194
Q

what is purpose of enrichment media

A

similar to selective media but designed to increase number of desired microbes

195
Q

what is genetics

A

the study of what genes are, how they carry info, how info is expressed, and how genes are replicated

196
Q

what is a gene

A

a segment of DNA that encodes a functional product usually a protein (ORF)

197
Q

what is a chromosome

A

structure containing DNA that physically carries hereditary info; the chromosomes contain the genes

198
Q

what is a genome

A

all the genetic info in a cell

199
Q

what is genomics

A

the molecular study of genomes

200
Q

what is a genotype

A

the genes of an organism

201
Q

what is a phenotype

A

expression of the genes

202
Q

genetic information
what is recombination

A

genetic info can be transferred between bacterial cells of the same generation

203
Q

what are the 4 nucleotides of DNA

A

Adenine
thymine
cytosine
guanine

204
Q

DNA
how many bonds does A-T have between them

205
Q

DNA
how many bonds does C-G have between them

206
Q

explain the structure of a DNA helix
what is it made up
what is the backbone made of

A

double helix associated with proteins
backbone is deoxyribose phosphate
strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between AT and CG
strands are antiparallel

207
Q

DNA synthesis
what is DNA copied by

A

DNA polymerase

208
Q

DNA synthesis
what direction does DNA synthesis go

A

5 prime to 3 prime direction

209
Q

DNA synthesis
how is it initiated

A

RNA primer

210
Q

what is the strand that is synthesized continuously

211
Q

what is the strand that is synthesized discontinuously

212
Q

what are the fragments left by lagging strand

A

okazaki fragments

213
Q

explain DNA synthesis (basic version)

A

RNA primase are removed and okazaki fragments joined by a DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

214
Q

this is a picture of DNA synthesis
try to remember everything

215
Q

explain how bacterial cells are replicated

216
Q

what is DNA gyrase

A

relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork

217
Q

what is DNA ligase

A

makes covalent bonds to join DNA strands
joins okazaki fragments and new segments in excision repair

218
Q

what is DNA polymerase

A

synthesizes DNA
proofreads and repairs DNA

219
Q

what is endonuclease

A

cut DNA backbone in a strand of DNA
facilitate repair and insertions

220
Q

what is exonuclease

A

cut DNA from an exposed end of DNA
facilitate repair

221
Q

what is helicase

A

unwinds double stranded DNA

222
Q

what is methylase

A

adds methyl group to selected bases in newly made DNA

223
Q

what is photolayse

A

uses visible light energy to separate UV induced pyrimidine dimers

224
Q

what is primase

A

makes RNA primers from a DNA template

225
Q

what is ribozyme

A

RNA enzyme that removes introns and splices exons together

226
Q

what is RNA polymerase

A

transcribes RNA from a DNA template

227
Q

what is snRNP

A

RNA protein complex that removes introns and splices exons together

228
Q

what is toposomerase

A

relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork
separate DNA circles at the end of DNA replication

229
Q

what is transposase

A

cuts DNA backbone leaving single stranded sticky ends

230
Q

what is DNA transcribed to make

A

RNA (mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA)

231
Q

how does transcription begin

A

when RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence

232
Q

how does transcription stop

A

when it reaches the terminator sequence

233
Q

explain transcription
(up until it reaches terminator sequence)

234
Q

explain transcription
(after terminator sequence)

235
Q

explain RNA processing in Eukaryotic cells
(introns and exons)

236
Q

what is mRNA translated to

A

codons (3 nucleotides)

237
Q

translation of mRNA begins at the start codon
what is the start codon

238
Q

translation ends at the nonsense codon
what is the nonsense codon

239
Q

how many sense cods on mRNA and how many amino acids do they encode

A

64 sense codons
encode 20 amino acids

240
Q

what is first step in the process of translation

241
Q

what carries the complementary anticodon

242
Q

what is the 1 step in the process of translation

A

ribosomal subunit starts on mRNA at start codon, tRNA moves in with anticodon

243
Q

what is the 2 step in the process of translation

A

ribosomal subunit will continue down mRNA, first tRNA will create amino acid on P site while another tRNA will continue to the second codon

244
Q

what is the 3 step in the process of translation

A

now we have 2 tRNA that means that there are now 2 amino acids and a peptide bond will form between them

245
Q

what is the 4 step in the process of translation

A

first tRNA will be released of codon and amino acid it created (there will be an amino acid chain) ribosome will continue to move along mRNA

246
Q

what is the 5 step in the process of translation

A

previous steps will continue the polypeptide chain of amino acids until it hits the stop codon and then the polypeptide chain will be released

247
Q

what is the last step in the process of translation

A

new protein will be made from polypeptide chain and the rest of it will just float away

248
Q

what is aminoacylation

A

is the process of adding an aminoacyl group to a compound. it produces rRNA molecules with their CCA 3 prime ends covalently linked to an amino acid

249
Q

what does aminoacyl tRNA synthase do

A

each tRNA is aminoacylate (or changed) with a specific amino acid by aminoacyl tRNA synthase

250
Q

what is the difference between DNA synthesis and DNA transcription

A

The other difference between the two processes is that during DNA synthesis the entire chromosome is copied. During transcription specific genes are transcribed in response to signals such as transcription factors.

251
Q

what are conservative genes

A

expressed at a fixed rate (alwayas on)

252
Q

what are repressible genes

A

as needed gene regulation

253
Q

what are inducible genes

A

induced regulated genes

254
Q

what is catabolite repression

A

regulatory genes that are on and off based on metabolic present

255
Q

what is a mutation

A

a change in the genetic material

256
Q

what can mutations be

A

neutral
beneficial
harmful

257
Q

define mutagen

A

agent that causes mutation

258
Q

define spontaneous mutations

A

occur in the absence of a mutagen

259
Q

what is base substitution (point mutation)

A

change in one base

260
Q

what is missense mutation

A

result in change in the amino acid

261
Q

what is nonsense mutation

A

results in a nonsense codon

262
Q

what is frameshift mutation

A

insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotide pairs

263
Q

inducible operons
what is structural genes
what is repressor

A

inactive
active downstream genes (inactive repressor)

264
Q

repressible operons
what is structural genes
what is repressor

A

active
inactive downstream genes (active repressor)

265
Q

radiation
what does ionizing radiation cause

A

formation of ions that can react with nucleotides and the deoxyribose-phosphate backbone

266
Q

radiation
what does UV radiation cause

A

thymine dimers

267
Q

repair of thymine dimers
what does photolyases do?

A

separate thymine dimers and then nucleotide excision repair

268
Q

what is vertical gene transfer

A

occurs during reproduction between generations of cells

269
Q

what is horizontal gene transfer

A

transfer of genes between cells of the same generation

270
Q

what is genetic recombination

A

exchange of genes between two DNA molecules
crossing over occurs when two chromosomes break and repair

271
Q

what is a plasmid

A

self replicated gene containing units of DNA

272
Q

what is conjugative plasmid

A

carries genes for sex pili and transfer of the plasmid

273
Q

what is dissimilation plasmids

A

encode enzymes for catabolism of unusual compounds

274
Q

plasmids
what is R factor

A

encode antibiotic resistance

275
Q

what are transposons

A

segments of DNA that can move from one region of DNA to another

276
Q

what do transposons contain

A

insertion sequences for cutting and resealing DNA (transposase)

277
Q

what did Anton van Leeuwenhoek do

A

1673-1723 described live microorganisms

278
Q

what did Louis Pasteur do

A

1861 demonstrated that microorganisms are present in the air which led to discoveries that include the relationship between microbes and disease, immunity, and antimicrobial drugs.
he discovered that microbes are responsible for fermentation

279
Q

what did robert koch do

A

proved that a bacterium causes anthrax and provided the experimental steps called the Kochs postulates to prove that a specific microbe causes a specific disease

280
Q

who discovered the first antibiotic

A

alexander fleming

281
Q

what are inclusions?

A

These cell inclusions are formed with decreasing pH and from the pool of soluble fusion proteins within the cell. They are the elementary bodies, formed during infectious diseases or within the virus-infected cells such as rabies, herpes, measles, etc.

282
Q

inclusions
what are the function of metachromatic granules

A

phosphate reserves

283
Q

inclusions
what are the function of polysaccharide granules

A

energy reserves

284
Q

inclusions
what are the function of lipid inclusion

A

energy reserves

285
Q

inclusion
what are the function of sulfur granules

A

energy reserves

286
Q

inclusion
what are the function of carboxysomes

A

rubulose
for CO2 fixation

287
Q

inclusion
whare are the function of gas vacuoles

A

protein covered cylinders

288
Q

inclusion
what are the function of magnetosomes

A

iron oxide which destroyes H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)

289
Q

try to remember this picture its a summary of prokaryotes vs eukaryotic

290
Q

what pH does most bacteria grow in

290
Q

what pH does fungi (including yeast) grow in

290
Q

what are hyperthermophiles

A

grow from 65 to 110 degree Celsius
149-230 degree fahrenheit

291
Q

what are thermophiles

A

grow from 40-72 degree celsius
104-161 degree fahrenheit

292
Q

what are mesophiles

A

grow from 10-50 degree celsius
50-122 degree fahrenheit

293
Q

what are psychrotrophs

A

grows from 0-30 degree celsius
32-86 degree fahrenheit

294
Q

what are psychorphiles

A

grow in -10-20 degree celsius
14-68 degree Fahrenheit

295
Q

what is the most favorable physical conditions for microbial growth based on temperature

A

mesophiles
50-122 degree fahrenheit

296
Q

osmotic pressure
what is plasmolysis and what causes it

A

hypertonic environment or an increase in salt or sugar
shrivel cell up

297
Q

what do extreme/obligate halophils require

A

high osmotic pressure

298
Q

what do facultative halophiles tolerate

A

tolerate high osmotic pressure

299
Q

what are halophils

A

microorganism that grows in or tolerate saline conditions

300
Q

what are obligate aerobes

A

oxygen required
growth only occurs where high concentration of oxygen have diffused in the media

301
Q

what are facultative anaerobes

A

greater growth in presence of oxygen but can occur throughout the tube

302
Q

what are obligate anaerobes

A

ceases in presence of oxygen
growth occurs only where there is no oxygen

303
Q

what are aerotolerant anaerobes

A

oxygen has no effect, growth is even

304
Q

what are microaerophiles

A

oxygen req in low concentration
growth occurs only where there is a low concentration of oxygen has diffused into medium

305
Q

try to memorize this

306
Q

what is substrate level phosphorylation

A

Substrate-level phosphorylation is a metabolism reaction that results in the production of ATP supported by the energy released from another high-energy bond that leads to phosphorylation of ADP

307
Q

what is oxidative phosphorylation

A

Oxidative phosphorylation is the metabolic pathway in which cells use enzymes to oxidize nutrients, thereby releasing chemical energy in order to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

308
Q

what are operons

A

An operon is a cluster of functionally-related genes that are controlled by a shared operator. Operons consist of multiple genes grouped together with a promoter and an operator. Operons are present in prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea), but are absent in eukaryotes.

Microbiology Lecture (4 decks)

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