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Microbiology Lecture > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the study of fungi called

A

mycology

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2
Q

is the number of serious of fungal infections increasing or decreasing

A

increasing

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3
Q

what are fungi
are they aerobic/anaerobic

A

aerobic or facultatively anaerobic chemoheterotrophs

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4
Q

what are the main job of fungi in the environment?
can they be parasites?

A

most fungi are decomposers, and a few are parasites of plants and animals

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5
Q

what does the fungal thallus consists of and what are they called?

A

fungal thallus consists of filaments of cells called hyphae

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6
Q

what is a mass of hyphae called

A

mycelium

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7
Q

are yeast aceullular or unicellular

A

unicellular organisms

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8
Q

how do fission yeast reproduce

A

divide symmetrically

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9
Q

how do budding yeast reproduce

A

asymmetrically

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10
Q

what are fungi buds that do not separate from the parent cell called

A

form pseudohyphae

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11
Q

what is dimorphic fungi at 37 degree Celsius

A

are yeastlike

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12
Q

what is dimorphic fungi at 25 degrees celcius

A

mold like

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13
Q

how are fungi classified

A

according to rRNA

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14
Q

how are sexual spores usually produced

A

in response to speical circumstances often changes in the enviroment

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15
Q

where can fungi grow

A

grow in acidic, low moisture, aerobic environments

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16
Q

what can fungi metabolize

A

complex carbohydrates

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17
Q

where do systematic mycoses affect the body

A

systemic mycoses are fungal infections deep within the body that affect many tissues and organs

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18
Q

where do subcutaneous mycoses affect the body

A

sub q mycoses are fungal infections beneath the skin

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19
Q

where do cutaneous mycoses affect the body

A

cutaneous mycoses affect keratin-containing tissues such as hair, nails and skin

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20
Q

where do superficial mycoses affect the body

A

superficial mycoses are localized on hair shafts and superficial skin cells

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21
Q

what causes opportunistic mycoses

A

opportunistic mycoses are caused by fungi that are not usually pathogenic

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22
Q

what do opportunistic mycoses infect

A

opportunistic mycoses can infect any tissues however they are usually systemic

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23
Q

how can be fungi used in ecosystem

A

fungi are used for the biological control of pests

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24
Q

what is more common?
bacterial spoilage of fruits grains and vegetables or mold spoilage

A

mold spoilage is more common

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25
Q

many fungi cause diseases in ___________

A

plants

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26
Q

what is a mutualistic combination of an alga (or a cyanobacterium) and a fungas

A

a lichen

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27
Q

when alga photosynthesized what do they provide for the lichen; the fungus provides a ________

A

providing carbohydrates
provides a holdfast

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28
Q

where do lichens colonize

A

lichens colonize habitats that are unsuitable for either the alga or the fungus alone

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29
Q

what may be classified on the basis of morphology as a crustose, foliose, or fruticose

A

lichens

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30
Q

what can be unicellular, filamentous or multicellular organisms

A

algae

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31
Q

most of what lives in aquatic environments

A

algae

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32
Q

are algae eukaryotic or prokaryotic

A

eukaryotic

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33
Q

are algae photoautotrophs or photoheterotrophs

A

photoautotrophs most are

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34
Q

what type of algae usually consists of a stipe, a holdfast, and blades

A

the thallus of multicellular algae

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35
Q

how do algae reproduce

A

sexually

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36
Q

what do photoautotrophic algae produce

A

oxygen

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37
Q

how are classified according to their structure and pigments

A

algae

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38
Q

where did red algae grow

A

grow deeper in the ocean than other algae

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39
Q

what type of algae have cellulose and chlorophyll a and b and store starch

A

green algae

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40
Q

what are the primary producers in aquatic food chains

A

algae are

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41
Q

yeast infection (candidiais) are most commonly found in:

A

newborns, people with AIDS, and people being treated with broad spectrum antibiotics

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42
Q

what are arthropods
what do they do
what are examples of arthropods

A

animals with jointed legs, transmit disease.
include ticks, insects and some members of the mosquito family

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43
Q

what are helminths
what are they
how do they get nutrients
what is the life cycle

A

multicellular animals
chemoheterotrophs
get nutrients from ingestion through the mouth and some absorption
life cycle includes: egg larvae adult

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44
Q

fungi, protozoa, and helminths
what do they cause
how are they diagnosed

A

cause disease in humans
diagnosed by microscopic examination

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45
Q

alga disease are not infectious they are ______
what are the symptoms result from

A

intoxications
symptoms result from ingestion of alga toxic substance

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46
Q

arthropods that transmit disease are called _________
examples:

A

vectors
ex: west nile encephalitis

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47
Q

what is the fossil remains of planktonic algae

A

petroleum

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48
Q

are protozoa acellular or unicellular
are they chemoheterotrophs or chemoautotrophs

A

unicellular organisms
eukaryotic chemoheterotrophs

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49
Q

where are protozoa found

A

soil and water and as normal microbiota in animals

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50
Q

what is the vegetative form of protozoa called

A

trophozoite

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51
Q

how do protozoa asexually produce

A

fission budding or schizogony

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52
Q

how do protozoa sexually reproduce

A

conjugation

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53
Q

explain ciliate conjugation by protozoa

A

two haploid nuclei fuse to produce a zygote

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54
Q

how do some protozoa protect themselves in adverse enviromental conditions

A

can produce a cyst that provides protection

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55
Q

what do protozoa cells walls have

A

protozoa have complex cells with a pellicle, a cytostome, and an anal pore

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56
Q

trichomonas and giardia lack ________ and have _______

A

lack mitochondria and have flagella

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57
Q

how do euglenozoan move and what do they lack.
what do they include

A

euglenozoan move by means of flagella and lack sexual reproduction
they include Trypanosoma

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58
Q

what has apical organells for penetrating host tissue
what do they include

A

Apicomplexa have apical organelles for penetrating host tissue;
include plasmodium and cryptosporidium

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59
Q

how do ciliates move

A

cilia

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60
Q

helminths
parasitic flatworms belong to which phylum

A

parasitic flatworms belong to the phylum Platyhelminthes

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61
Q

helminths
parasitic roundworms belong to which phylum

A

parasitic roundworms belong to the phylum nematoda

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62
Q

helminths are _______ animals and a few are parasitic of _______

A

multicellular animals
a few are parasites of humans

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63
Q

the adult stage of a parasitic helminth is found in the _________ host

A

the adult stage of parasitic helminth is found int eh definitive host

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64
Q

what do each larval stage of a parasitic helminth require

A

intermediate host

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65
Q

can helminths be monoecious or dioecious or both

A

helminths can be monoecious or diecious

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66
Q

flatworms are dorsoventrally __________ animals
what may parasitic flatworms lack

A

flatworms are dorsoventrally flattened animals; parasitic flatworms may lack a digestive system.

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67
Q

how do adult trematodes (or flukes) attach to host tissue

A

have an oral and ventral sucker

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68
Q

what is the name of the head and rest of body called on cestode (tapeworm)

A

scolex (head) and proglottids

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69
Q

how do eggs of trematodes turn into adults in the definitive host

A

eggs of trematodes hatch into free swimming miracidia that enter the first intermediate host; two generation of rediae develop; the rediae become cercariae that bore out the first intermediate host and penetrate the second intermediate host; cercariae encyst as metacercaria; the metacercaria develop into adults in the definitive host

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70
Q

true/ false
roundworms have a couple digestive system

A

true

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71
Q

what nematodes that can infect humans with their eggs

A

ascaris
Trichuris
Enterobius

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72
Q

what phylum do jointed legged animals including ticks and insects belong to

A

Arthropoda

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73
Q

what are arthropods that carry diseases called

A

vectors

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74
Q

how do vector borne diseases most effectively become eliminated

A

controlling or eradicating the vectors

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75
Q

what do viruses contain and what do they sometimes have

A

a single type of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) and a protein coat, sometimes enclosed by an envelope composed of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates

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76
Q

true/ false
viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites

A

true

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77
Q

how are viruses parasite

A

they multiply by using the host cells synthesizing machinery to cause the synthesis of specialized element that can transfer the viral nucleic acid to other cells

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78
Q

what is a host range

A

refers to the spectrum of host cells in which a virus can multiply

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79
Q

true/ false
most viruses infect only specific types of cells in one host species

A

true

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80
Q

how is a host range is determined by?

A

the specific attachment site on the host cells surface and the availability of host cellular factors

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81
Q

what is a virion

A

complete, fully developed viral particle composed of nucleic acid surrounded by a coat

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82
Q

what can viruses contain either or, never both and what do those contain (structure wise)

A

viruses contain either DNA or RNA never both, and the nucleic acids may be single or double stranded linear or circular or divides into several separate molecules

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83
Q

what is a capsid

A

the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus

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84
Q

what is the capsid composed of

A

the capsid is composed of subunits capsomers which can be a single type of protein or several types

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85
Q

what is the capsid of some viruses enclosed by

A

an envelope consisting of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates

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86
Q

what are some envelopes covered with

A

carbohydrates-protein complexes called spikes

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87
Q

what are helical viruses

A

resemble long rods, and their capsids are hollow cylinders surrounding the nucleic acid

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88
Q

what are polyhedral viruses

A

are many sided. usually the capsid is an icosahedron (a solid figure with twenty plane faces, especially equilateral triangular ones.)

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89
Q

what are enveloped viruses

A

covered by an envelope and are roughly spherical but highly pleomorphic. there are also enveloped helical virsues and enveloped polyhedral viruses

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90
Q

what is an example of a complex virus

A

complex viruses have complex structures. for example, many bacteriophages have a polyhedral capsid with a helical tail attached

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91
Q

how are viruses classified

A

classification of viruses is based on type of nucleic acid, strategy for replication and morphology

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92
Q

what do virus family names end with and what do genus names end with

A

virus family end in -viridae
genus names end in -virus

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93
Q

how do viruses grow

A

viruses must be grown in living cells

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94
Q

what are the easiest viruses to grow

A

to grow are bacteriophages

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95
Q

What dont viruses contain for energy production or protein synthesis

A

dont contain enzymes

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96
Q

In order for a virus to multiply what must the virus do

A

it must invade a host cell and direct the hosts metabolic machinery to produce viral enzymes and components

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97
Q

what do bacteriophages form on a lawn of bacteria

A

plaques

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98
Q

typical for more than one Viron is required to initiate what?

A

an infection in a cell (multiply of infection- MOI)

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99
Q

what does each plaque originate with
and the concentration of viruses is expressed how

A

originate with a single viral particle
the concentration of viruses is expressed as plaque forming units

99
Q

where can some animal viruses be cultivated in

A

embryonated eggs

99
Q

the plaque method mixes ___________ with host bacteria and nutrient agar

A

bacteriophages

100
Q

where do cell cultures for animal or plant cells grow

A

culture media

101
Q

what grows for a short time in vitro

A

primary cell lines and embryonic diploid cell lines grow for a short time in vitro(To make cultured, or in vitro, meat, scientists take the cells from an animal and then let them grow in a plant-based mixture of nutrients.)

102
Q

where can continuous cell lines be maintained

A

vitro indefinitely

103
Q

what can cause cytopathic in the cell culture

A

viral growth
(Cytopathic effect refers to structural changes in a host cell resulting from viral infection)

104
Q

how are viruses identified

A

serological tests are used most often- detect antibodies in patient (4DX)
but may be identified by RFLP and PCR- nucleic acids

105
Q

multiplication of bacteriophages
during which cycle a phage causes the lysis and death of a host cell

A

lytic cycle

106
Q

multiplication of bacteriophage
during which cycle does prophage DNA incorporate in host DNA along with phage conversion and specialized/ generalized transduction

A

lysogenic cycle

107
Q

true/ false
viruses contain very few genes needed for its replication

A

true
some larger viruses may contain 1 or more preformed enzymes

108
Q

the lytic cycle
explain attachment

A

phage attaches by tail fibers to host cell

109
Q

the lytic cycle
explain penetration

A

phage lysozyme opens cell wall
tail sheath contracts to force tail core and DNA into cell

110
Q

the lytic cycle
explain biosynthesis

A

production of phage DNA and proteins

111
Q

what is the lytic cycle of a T Even bacteriophage

A

attachment, penetration, biosynthesis
and maturation- assembly of phage particles
and release- phage lysozyme breaks cell wall

112
Q

explain the lysogenic cycle

A

involves repressors (of phage origin) binding to an operator and blocking transcription of all other phage genes

113
Q

explain generalized transduction

A
114
Q

explain specialized transduction

A
115
Q

explain the process of multiplication of animal viruses
attachment, penetration, uncoating, biosynthesis, maturation and release

A

attachment: viruses attach to cell membrane
penetration: by endocytosis or fusion
uncoating: by viral or host enzymes
biosynthesis: production of nucleic acid and proteins
maturation: nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble
release: by budding (enveloped viruses) or rupture

116
Q

explain the steps of multiplication of DNA virus

A
117
Q

what is different about the sense strand (+ strand) RNA virus in regarding to multiplication

A

After uncoating, ssRNA viruses can synthesize proteins directly. Using the + strand as template, they transcribe – strands to produce additional + strands to serve as mRNA and be packaged into virus.

118
Q

what is different about the antisense strand (- strand) RNA virus in regards to multiplying

A

After uncoating, ssRNA viruses with a – strand genome must transcribe a + strand to serve as mRNA before they begin protein synthesis. The mRNA transcribes additional -RNA

119
Q

how do Double stranded RNA viruses multiply

A

dsRNA viruses, mRNA is produced inside the capsid and released into the cytoplasm of the host.

120
Q

explain the multiplication of a retrovirus

A
121
Q

summarize viral transcription and translation

A
122
Q

what is a prion disease

A

transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSE) are a family of preogressive neurodegenerative disorders that affect both humans and animals

123
Q

how are prion disease distinguished by

A

long incubation periods
characteristic spongiform changes associated with neuronal loss
failure to induce inflammatory response

124
Q

define prion

A

abnormal, transmissible agent that is able to induce abnormal folding of normal cellular prion proteins in the brain, leading to brain damage and the characteristics signs and symtoms of the disease

125
Q

what doesnt prion contain

A

does not contain RNA or DNA

126
Q

why are prions hard to diagnoses

A

does not evoke any detectable immune response or inflammatory reaction is host animals

127
Q

how do prions effect on a cellular level

A

mitochondrial stress and ER stress

128
Q

is CWD endemic

A

yes

129
Q

define pathology

A

study of disease

130
Q

define etiology

A

the study of the cuase of the disease

131
Q

what is pathogenesis

A

the manner in which a disease developments

132
Q

define infection and disease

A

infection: colonization of the body by pathogens
disease: an abnormal state in which the body is not functioning normally

133
Q

what is normal microbiota

A

permanently colonize the host (our own bacteria)

134
Q

what is transient micrbiotia

A

may be present for days, weeks, or months (not normal (pathogenic))

135
Q

what is symbiosis

A

relatioship between normal microbiota and the host

136
Q

symbiosis
what is commensalism, mutualism, parasitism

A

commensalism- one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected
mutualism- both organisms benefit
parasitism- one organism benefits at the exepnse of the other

137
Q

what are opporunitistic pathogens and how does this relate to our normal microbiota

A

normal flora but due to something can become pathogenic

138
Q

what is microbial antagonism

A

competition between microbes, can be variable and host-dependent

139
Q

how do normal microbiota protect the host

A

occupying niches that pathogen might occupy
producing acids
producing bacteriocins (proteins that inhibit the growth of bacteria of the same or closely related species)

140
Q

what is Kochs Postulates

A

used to prove the cause of an infectious disease
established by Robert Koch in 1884

141
Q

what are the actual steps to Kochs Postulates (4 steps)

A

1) the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease
2) the pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture
3) the pathogen from the culture but cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible lab animals
4) the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animals and must be shown to the original organism

142
Q

what is a commubicable disease

A

a disease that is spread form one host to another (directly or indirectly)

143
Q

what is a contagious disease

A

a disease that is easily spread from one host to antoher

144
Q

what is a noncommunicable disease

A

a disease that is not transmitted from one host to another

145
Q

occurrence of a disease
what is incidence

A

fraction of a population that contracts (new infections) a disease during a specific time

146
Q

occurrence of a disease
what is prevalence

A

fraction of a population having a specific disease at a given time

147
Q

occurrence of a disease
what is sporadic disease

A

disease that occurs occasionally in a population

148
Q

occurrence of a disease
what is a endemic disease

A

disease constanlty present in the population

149
Q

occurrence of a disease
what is a epidemic disease

A

disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time

150
Q

define acute disease

A

develops rapidly but lasts only a short time

151
Q

define chronic disease

A

disease develops slowly; may have less sever reaction from host

152
Q

define subacute disease

A

between acute and chronic

153
Q

define latent disease

A

disease with a period of no symptoms when the causative agent is inactive

154
Q

explain local infection

A

pathogens are limited to a small area of the body

155
Q

explain systemic infection

A

an infection throughout the body spread throughout the body by blood

156
Q

explain focal infection

A

systemic infection that began as a local infection

157
Q

explain sepsis

A

toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection

158
Q

what is bacteremia

A

bacteria in the blood

159
Q

what is septicemia

A

growth of bacteria in the blood

160
Q

what is toxemia

A

toxins in the blood

161
Q

what is viremia

A

viruses in the blood

162
Q

what is a primary infection

A

acute infection that causes the initial illness

163
Q

what is secondary infection

A

opportunistic infection after a primary (predisposing) infection

164
Q

what is subclinical disease

A

no noticeable signs or symptoms (unapparent infection)

165
Q

what is direct contact in regards to transmisison of disease

A

req close association between infected and suscpetible host

166
Q

what is indirect contact in regards to transmission of disease

A

spread by fomites

167
Q

what is droplet contact in regards to transmission of disease

A

transmission via airborne droplets

168
Q

what is a mechanical transmission

A

arthropod carries pathogen on feet

169
Q

what is a biological transmission

A

pathogen reproduces in vector

170
Q

what is a vector

A

arthropods (fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes)

171
Q

what is morbidity

A

incidence of a specific disease

172
Q

what is mortality

A

deaths from diseases

173
Q

what are 3 portals of entry for disease

A

mucous membranes
skin
parenteral route

174
Q

what is parenteral route

A

access to the body through direct deposit to the inside
most pathogens prefer this portal of entry

175
Q

what are the two steps of mechanisms to adhere

A

1) non specific adherence
2) specific adherence

176
Q

what is nonspecific adherence

A

reversible attachment to of the bacterium to the eukaryotic surface
“docking”

177
Q

what is specific adherence

A

irreversible permanent attachment of the microorganism to the survey “anchoring”

178
Q

what do capsules do

A

prevent phagocytosis

179
Q

cell wall components
what is M protein

A

resists phagocytosis

180
Q

cell wall components
what is opa protein

A

inhibits T helper cells

181
Q

cell wall components
what is mycolic acid

A

waxy lipid resists digestion

182
Q

enzymes
what is coagulase

A

coagulates fibrinogen in blood (clotting)

183
Q

enzymes
what is kinases

A

digest fibrin clots that are formed by body to isolate an infection

184
Q

enzymes
what is hyaluronidase

A

hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid a type of polysaccharide that holds together certain cells of hte body, particularly in connective tissue (causes the blackening in some infections (is that necrosis???))

185
Q

enzymes
what is collagenase

A

hydrolyzed collagen, making up connective tissue

186
Q

enzymes
what is IgA protesases

A

destroy IgA antibodies that are particular important in the first immune response

187
Q

what is antigenic variation

A

alteration of surface proteins in order to evade the immune response

188
Q

how do bacteria penetrate into the host cell cytoskeleton

A

invasins
use actin to move from one cell to the next

189
Q

what are the 4 basic mechanisms pathogens use to damage host cells

A

1-using the host nutrients
2-causing direct damage in immediate vicinity of the invasion
3-producing toxins, transported by blood and lymph, that damage sites before removed from original site of invasion
4- inducing hypersensitivity reactions

190
Q

define: toxin, toxigenicity, toxemia, toxoid, antitoxin

A

toxin- poisonous substances that contribute (significantly) to pathogenicity
toxigenicity- ability to produce a toxin
toxemia- presence of toxin in the host blood
toxoid- inactivated toxin used in a vax
antitoxin- antibodies against a specific toxin

191
Q

what is exotoxins

A

proteins produced inside pathogenic bacteria (part of growth and metabolism) then secreted into the surrounding medium during log phase
most common gram + but can be gram -

192
Q

what are endotoxins

A

lipid portions of lipopolysaccharide’s (LPS) that are part of the outer membrane of the cell wall, they are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell wall breaks apart
GRAM - bacteria
lipid A is the endotoxin

193
Q

what are the 3 pathogenic properties of helminths

A

1- use host tissue
2- presence of parasite interferes with host function
3- parasites metabolic waste can cause symptoms

194
Q

define
susceptibility
immunity

A

susceptibility: lack of resistance to a disease
immunity: ability to ward off disease

195
Q

what is innate immunity, what are the characteristics of it

A

defenses against any pathogen
present at birth
does not have a memory
always present and provide a rapid responses to protect us from disease
does not involve specific recognition o

196
Q

how was innate immunity designed

A

to prevent microbes from gaining access into the body and eliminate those that do gain access

197
Q

what is adaptive immunity

A

immune reaction, resistance to a specific pathogen once it has breached the innate immunity

198
Q

explain the concept of immunity

A

host toll-like receptors (TLRs) that are non-specific and job is to recognize pathogen attach to pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

199
Q

what do TLRs induce

A

cytokines that regulate the intensity and duration of immune response (cytokines are proteins)

200
Q

what do cytokines recruit after induced by TLRs

A

recruit macrophages and dendritic cells, as well as other immune cells, to isolate and destroy the microbes as part of the inflammatory response

201
Q

what are the 3 factors of the first line of defense

A

physical factors
chemical factors
normal microbiota and innate immunity

202
Q

what are the 6 factors of the second line of defense

A

formed elements in blood
lymphatic system
phagocytes
inflammation
fever
antimicrobial substances

203
Q

what does skin do as a physical factor

A

dermis and epidermis
dermis- inner thicker portion composed of connective tissue
epidermis- outer thicker portion in direct contact with external environment that consist of tightly packed cells with keratin (a protective protein)

204
Q

what does mucous membranes do as a physical factor

A

consist of an epithelial layer and an underlying connective tissue layer

205
Q

what does mucus do as a physical factor

A

slightly viscous glycoprotein
prevents drying out and traps microbes

206
Q

what does ciliary escalator do as a physical factor

A

microbes trapped in mucus are transported away from the lungs via cough response or phlegm

207
Q

what does saliva do as a physical factor

A

washes microbs off

208
Q

what does urine do a s physical factor

A

cleanses the urethra and prevent colonization in the genitourinary tract

209
Q

what does vaginal secretions do in regards to physical factors

A

move microorganisms of the body

210
Q

what are the chemical factors for skin, gastric acid and vaginal secretions and what is the significant

A

low pH= very few microbs can survive

211
Q

what is the chemical factor in sebum

A

fungistatic fatty acid

212
Q

what does perspiration, tears, saliva, and urine have for a chemical factor

A

lysozyme (enzyme)

213
Q

Summarize innate immunity (first line of defense, second line of defense) and adaptive immunity (third line of defense)

A
214
Q

formed elements in blood
what are erthrocytes

A

red blood cells

215
Q

formed elements in blood
what are leukocytes

A

white blood cells

216
Q

formed elements in blood
what are the two classes of leukocytes

A

granulocytes and arganulocytes

217
Q

what are the three types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils

218
Q

what are the three types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes
dendritic cells
lymphocytes

219
Q

what are the three types of lymphocytes

A

natural killer cells
T-cells
B-cells

220
Q

what is the function of red blood cells

A

transport O2 and CO2

221
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of neutrophils

A

phagocytosis

222
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of basophils

A

histamine

223
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of eosinophils

A

leave the blood to kill parasites

224
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of monocytes

A

phagocytosis after maturation to macrophage

225
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of dendritic cells

A

phagocytosis (derived from monocytes)

226
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of natural killer cells

A

destroy target cells (cancer cells)

227
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of T cells

A

cell mediated immunity

228
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of B cells

A

produce antibodies

229
Q

white blood cells
what is the function of platelets

A

blood clotting

230
Q

what increases during certain kinds of infection in regards to white blood cells (name)

A

-leukocytosis

231
Q

what decreases during certain kinds of infection in regards to white blood cells (name)

A

-leukopenia

232
Q

what are the components of lymphatic system

A

consist of fluid (lymph) lymph vessels, lymphoid tissue, and red bone marrow

233
Q

define phagocytosis

A

ingestion of microbes or particles by a cell, performed by phagocytes

234
Q

what do phagocytosis do to attract

A

chemotaxis- chemical attractants

235
Q

how do phagocytosis adhere

A

PAMPS and TLR
opsonization facilitaes adherence

236
Q

how do phagocytosis ingest

A

psuedopods and phagosomes

237
Q

how do phagocytosis digest

A

phagolysosome

238
Q

define inflammation

A

caused by microbial infection physical agents and chemical agents

239
Q

what are the 4 signs of inflammation

A

redness
swelling
pain
heat

240
Q

what proteins are activated during early stages of inflammation

A

acute-phase proteins

241
Q

what happens during inflammation in regards to vascular system

A

vascular dilate which increase flow and thinning of tissue
histamine, kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

242
Q

what are the 3 stages of inflammation

A

1- vasodilation- dilation of blood vessels to increase blood flow to site of damage
2- phagocyte migration and phagocytosis- within an hour, neutrophils and monocytes begin to stick to the inner surface of he endothelium, then they migrate between the endothelial cell to reach damage site (diapedesis) phagocytize microbes and cell debris
3- tissue repair- damaged and dead cells are replaces. tissue types vary in ability to repair itself

243
Q
A

Microbiology Lecture (4 decks)

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