Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Lecture > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define adaptive immunity

A

induced resistance to a specific pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is humoral immunity and what is cellular immunity

A

humoral: due to antibodies from B lymphocytes (B cells) that mature in the bone marrow(not born with these, we develop these as different antigens come)
cellular: T lymphocytes (T cells) mature in thymus and don’t produce antibodies but do produce specific signals (cytokines) that direct B cell specificity. (born with these)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define serology

A

the study of reactions between antibodies and antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define antiserum

A

the generic term for serum because it contains Ab (antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define globulins

A

serum proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define immunoglobulins

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define Antigen (Ag)

A

a substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or sensitized T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is hapten

A

antigen is combined with carrier molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do antibodies (Ab) interact with

A

epitopes or antigenic determinants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does the number of antigen binding sites determine

A

the variable portions of the H and L chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the classes of immunoglobulins

A

IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do IgG antibodies do and where are they located

A

fix complement and enhance phagocytosis; neutralize toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn
in blood lymph and intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do IgM antibodies do and where are they located

A

fix complement and agglutinates microbes; first Ab produced in response to infection
found in blood, lymph and on B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do IgA antibodies do and where are they located

A

in secretions (mucous, saliva, tears, breast milk)
mucosal protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do IgD antibodies do and where are they located

A

on B cells, initiate immune response
in blood in lymph and on B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do IgE antibodies do and where are they located

A

allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms
on mast cells, on basophils and in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are B cells activated

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) expressed on mammalian cells act to recognize antigens (memory cells)
T-dependent antigens (stronger immune response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the results of Ag-Ab binding

A

antibodies bind to a specific region of the antigen referred to as the epitope (or antigenic determinant) the strength of binding is the affinity
foreign organims and toxins are rendered harmless by different types of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define agglutination

A

antibodies cause antigens to clump together and they faciliate phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

define opsonization

A

antibodies coat the foreign molecule and they facilitate phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define antibody-dependent cell mediated immunity

A

antibodies coat the foreign molecule resembling opsonization
destruction of the target cell is by immune systems that remain external to the target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define complement fixation

A

bound antibodies activate complement
complement lysis the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define neutralization

A

antibodies coat the pathogen and block the attachment to the host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what do T cells specialize in
where do they mature
what do they respond to
what to T cells require

A

specialize in recognizing intracellular antigens
T cells mature in the thymus
T cells respond to Ag by T cell receptors (TCRs)
T cells require antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
pathogens entering the GI or respiratory tract pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what do T-helper cells (Th) do

A

cooperate with B cells in the production of antibodies mainly through the production of cytokines
T helper-> B cells (antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what do T cytotoxic cells (Tc) do

A

differentiate into effector cells called cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define apoptosis and how does it work

A

is a type of programmed cell death
cells first cut their genomes into fragments and external membranes bluge outward (blebbing)
signals expressed on surface attract circulating phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what do T Regulatory cells do

A

they combat autoimmunity by suppressing T cells that escape deletion in the thymus and have the potential to react with the bodys self molecules
this is how pregnant women by protecting the fetus from rejection as nonself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what do antigen-presenting cells do?

A

digest antigen
present Ag fragments on their surface with MHC
After taking up antigen, APCs migrate to the lymph nodes and lymphoid centers on the mucosa where they present antigen to T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do antigen-presenting cells present Ag fragments on their surface with MHC

A

B cells
Dendritic cells
Activated macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what do natural killer cells do

A

kill virus-infected and tumor cells
important in attacking parasites
they are not immunologically specific
cause pores to form in the target cell and cause lysis or apoptosis
granular leukocytes destroy cells that dont express MHC 1, they are not CTLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the function of T Helper (TH1) cell

A

activates cells related to cell-mediated immunity, macrophages, Tc cells and natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the function of T Helper (TH2) cell

A

stimulates production of eosinophils, IgM and IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the function of Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte (CTL)

A

destroys target cells on contact; generated form T cytotoxic (Tc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is function of T Regulatory (Treg) cell

A

regulates immune response and helps maintain tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the function of activated macrophage

A

enhanced phagocytic activity; attacks cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the function of natural killer (NK) cell

A

attacks and destroys target cells; participates in antibody-dependent cell-medicated cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is immunological memory

A

it is how our body remembers and responds to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is antibody titer

A

is the amount of Ab in serum; is reflective of intensity of antibody mediated humoral response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

immunological memory
what is primary response

A

occurs after the initial contact with Ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

immunological memory
what is the secondary (memory or anamnestic) response

A

occurs after second exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

remember this and understand it

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

explain naturally acquired active immunity

A

resulting from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

explain naturally acquired passive immunity

A

transplacental or via colostrum

45
Q

explain artificially acquire active immunity

A

injection of Ag (vaccination)

46
Q

explain artificial acquired passive immunity

A

injection of Ab

47
Q

what is a extremophiles

A

live in extreme environments (pH, temp, salinity)

48
Q

what is the definition of symbiosis

A

two differing organisms living together in close association that is beneficial to one or both of them

49
Q

what is mycorrhizae

A

fungi living in close association with plant roots
extend surface area of roots and increase the absorption of nutrients, especially phosphorous

50
Q

biogeochemical cycles
per 1 gram of soil how much bacteria

A

1 gram of soil may contain up to 1 billion bacteria

51
Q

biogeochemical cycles
per 1 mL of ocean water how much bacteria

A

1 mL of ocean water can contain up to 1 million bacteria

52
Q

what does biogeochemical cycles do

A

involved in the recycling (oxidation and reduction) of chemical elements
many are symbionts of plants (rhizobia)
microbes in soil metabolize organic matter, form detritus (non-living particulate organic matter)

53
Q

define topography

A

the chemical composition of the soil
presence of living organisms determines the quality of soil

54
Q

explain the microbiology of soil (what does it contain)

A

soil contains 40-45% inorganic matter, 5% organic matter, 25% water and 25% air

55
Q

what is humus and what is it composed of

A

the organic material in soil
composed of microorganisms (dead and alive) and decaying plants

56
Q

what is the inorganic material of soil

A

composed of rock, which is broken down into small particles of sand silt and clay

57
Q

What is the O horizon

A

AKA topsoil
is made of decaying organisms and plant life; it is responsible for plant production

58
Q

what is the A horizon

A

mixture of organic material and inorganic products of weathering; it is the beginning of true mineral soil

59
Q

what is the B horizon

A

AKA subsoil
is a dense layer of mostly fine material that has been pushed down from the topsoil

60
Q

what is the C horizon

A

AKA soil base
is located just above bedrock and is made of parent, organic, and inorganic material

61
Q

what are the factors affecting microbial abundance in soils (7)

A

moisture content
oxygen
pH
temp
nutrient availability
microbial populations present in the soil
microbes perform a number of functions

62
Q

soil microbiology
what is more favorable for moisture content

A

moist soils support microbial growth and diversity better than dry soils

63
Q

soil microbiology
how does oxygen factor in soil

A

oxygen dissolves poorly in water
moist soils are lower in oxygen than dry soils
anaerobes predominate in waterlogged soils

64
Q

soil microbiology
what is the pH in soil

A

highly acidic and highly basic soils favor fungi

65
Q

soil microbiology
how does temp affect soil

A

most soil organisms are mesophiles
live well in areas without extreme summer or winter

66
Q

soil microbiology
how does nutrient availability affect soil

A

most soil microbes utilize organic matter
microbial community size determined by how much organic material is available

67
Q

soil microbiology
how does microbial populations present in the soil affect it

A

bacteria are numerous and found in all soil layers
archaea present but are difficult to culture and study
fungi are also populous group of microorganisms
animal viruses are rarely found free in soil; bacteriophage are highly abundant in soil; bacteriophage are highly abundant in soil
algae live on or near the soil surface
most protozoa require oxygen and remain the topsoil

68
Q

soil microbiology
how do microbes perform a number of functions

A

cycle elements and convert them to usable form
degrade dead organisms and their wastes
produce compounds with potential human uses

69
Q

explain the carbon cycle

A

the primary biogeochemical cycle
carbon fixation- any process in which gasious carbon dioxide is converted into a solid organic compound
photosynthetic fixation—photoautotrophs
6CO2+6H20——->C6H12O6+6O2
light

70
Q

how does the carbon cycle affect the atmosphere

A

the return of CO2 to the atmosphere by respiration closely balances its removal by fixation. however, the burning of fossil fuels adds more CO2 resulting in a steady increase

71
Q

explain the nitrogen cycle

A

molecular nitrogen (N2) makes up almost 80%
for plants to assimilate and use nitrogen it must be fixed- taken up and combined into organic compounds

72
Q

what is nitrogen fixation in lichens

A

symbiotic relationship between a fungus and: cyanobacteria and algae

73
Q

how is seawater microbiota divided and what does it include

A

divides into zones based on light and O2 availability
includes abyssal zone dominated by archaea

74
Q

what is phytoplankton and what are they composed of

A

microscopic photosynthetic organisms
mostly cyanobacteria and single cell aglae
form basis of oceanic food chain

75
Q

how do microbes create water pollution

A

microbes are filtered from water that percolates into groundwater
some pathogens are transmitted to humans in drinking and recreational water

76
Q

how do chemicals create water pollution

A

resistant chemicals may be concentrated in the aquatic food chain
mercury is metabolized by certain bacteria into a soluble compound, which is concentrated in animals

77
Q

what is eutrophication and how does it affect the environment

A

eutrophication is excessive richness of nutrients in a lake or other body of water
overabundance of nutrients in lakes and streams
caused by addition of organic matter or inorganic matter like phosphates, nitrogen, which cause algal blooms

78
Q

what is Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)

A

bacterial decomposition of organic matter uses up O2 in water
BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed for aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temp over a specific time period

79
Q

what do water purity tests do and what is MPN

A

indicate organisms
used to detect fecal contamination, coliforms, and enterococcus
MPN: most probable number/ 100 mL of water

80
Q

what are coliforms

A

aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, gram -, non-endospore forming rods that ferment lactose to acid plus gas within 48 hours at 35 degrees Celsius

81
Q

explain what the wastewater treatment oxidation ponds are for

A

for small communities
pond 1: settle solids, pump water to pond 2
pond 2: bacterial decomposition of dissolved organic matter in water

82
Q

for municipal sewage treatment what is the primary, secondary, tertiary treatment

A

primary treatment: removal of solids, disinfection
secondary treatment: removal of much of the BOD, disinfection, water can be used for irrigation
tertiary treatment: removal of remaining BOD, N, and P, disinfection, water is drinkable.

83
Q

what does secondary effluent contain

A

residual BOD
50% of the original nitrogen
70% of the original phosphorus

84
Q

how does tertiary treatment remove the secondary effluent

A

filtration through sand and activated charcoal
chemical precipitation

85
Q

what does the urinary system contain

A

two kidneys
two ureters
one urinary bladder
one urethra

86
Q

how does urine transport

A

urine is transported from the kidneys through ureters to the urinary bladder and is eliminated through the urethra

87
Q

how to prevent urinary infection

A

valves prevent backflow to urinary bladder and kidneys
acidity of urine
mechanical flushing

88
Q

what does the female repro system consists of

A

two ovaries, two uterine tubes, the uterus, the cervix, the vagina, and the external genitals

89
Q

what does the male repro system consist of

A

two testes, ducts, accessory glands, and the penis; seminal fluid leaves the male body through the urethra

90
Q

true/ false
is the urinary bladder sterile under normal conditions?

A

false, recent studies have shown the urinary bladder has a specific (yet sensitive) microbiome

91
Q

what is the normal microbiota of the vagina during the repro years

A

lactobacilli
produce H2O2. grow on glycogen secretions

92
Q

true/ false
the male urethra is not considered sterile

A

true the male urethra is no longer considered normally sterile

93
Q

what is the most commonly reported STI

A

chlamydia

94
Q

the prevalence of genital herpes among 14-49 year olds in US in ________

A

1-6

95
Q

what can cause UTIs

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites

96
Q

true/ false
UTI have become increasingly resistant to first line antibiotic therapy

A

true

97
Q

where are lower UTIs occur
are men or women more likely to get them and why

A

urethra or bladder
most common in women than in men
because the female urethra is much shorter and provides less of a barrier to bacterial invasion

98
Q

where are upper UTI occur
who is more likely to get a upper UTI men or women?
how do people get upper UTIs

A

involve kidneys (pyelonephritis), ureters (urethritis) or both
upper UTIs can occur in both men and women as a complication of a lower UTI

99
Q

what is the common organism that causes upper UTI and what are the symptoms

A

symptoms of an upper UTI include fever, chills, lower back pain, nausea, and vomiting
the most common organism is e. coli

100
Q

what is cystitis

A

an inflammation of the urinary bladder

101
Q

what is urethritis

A

an inflammation of the urethra

102
Q

what is pyelonephritis

A

an inflammation of one or both kidneys

103
Q

in regards to cystitis what is the usual causative agent, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment

A

usual causative agents: e. coli, staphylococcus saprophyticus
symptoms: dysuria (difficult or painful urination), pyuria (pus in urine)
diagnosis: >1000 CFU/mL potential pathogens and a positive LE test
treatment: antibiotics

104
Q

what causes pyelonephritis, what are the symptoms diagnosis and treatment

A

can result from lower UTI or from systematic bacterial infections
causative agent: usually e. coli
symptoms: fever, back or flank pain
diagnosis: 10^5 CFUs/mL and a positive LE test
treatment: antibiotics

105
Q

true/ false
most diseases of the repro system are STI

A

true

106
Q

how does a person prevent STI

A

use of condoms and are treated with antibiotics

107
Q

what are signs and symptoms of chlamydia in males

A

causes inflammation of the urethra
symptoms mimic gonorrhea; discharge and painful urination
untreated infections may lead to epididymitis (inflammation of the tube that stores and carries sperm)

108
Q

what are signs and symptoms of chlamydia in females

A

cervicitis
discharge
salpingitis (PID- pelvic inflammatory disorder which is inflammation of the fallopian tubes)

109
Q

your doing great

A

:)

Microbiology Lecture (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions