Lab Exam 2 (Lab Book)

Question 1

structural division of respiratory system

Answer 1

1) upper: nasal cavity, nose, pharynx, larynx
2) lower: trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

Question 2

functional division of respiratory system

Answer 2

1) conducting: nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, terminal bronchioles
2) respiratory: respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

Question 3

conducting portion features

Answer 3

• lined by respiratory mucosa
• function: filter, warm and moisten air

Question 4

respiratory mucosa

Answer 4

1) pseudostratified ciliated (motile to sweep mucus and trapped contaminants towards pharynx for swallowing or expulsion) columnar epithelium with goblet cells (produce mucus) + stem cells
2) lamina propria: loose CT with BVs to warm air + mucous glands

Question 5

respiratory portion features

Answer 5

• respiratory bronchiole branches from terminal bronchiole, then into alveolar ducts that lead into alveolar sac (made up of alveoli)
• function: where gas exchange takes place

Question 6

epithelium in the larynx

Answer 6

• above vocal folds: stratified squamous nonkeratinized
• below: respiratory epithelium

Question 7

serous membrane layers

Answer 7

1) visceral layer: around organ
2) parietal layer

• layers are continuous with each other
• layers produce serous fluid (lubricant) that fills serous cavity between them

Question 8

tracheal rings

Answer 8

• trachea surrounded by 15-20 tracheal rings (anterior, c-shaped) and muscle (posterior, in front of esophagus)

Question 9

annular ligaments

Answer 9

• join tracheal rings
• elastic cartilage allows for flexibility

Question 10

carina of trachea

Answer 10

• bifurcation of trachea into right and left primary bronchi

Question 11

branching of bronchial tree

Answer 11

1) trachea
2) primary bronchi: enter hilus of each lung, one per lung
3) lobar (secondary) bronchi: one per lung lobe
4) segmental (tertiary) bronchi: one per bronchopulmonary segment
5) bronchioles: each tertiary branches several times to form these
6) terminal bronchioles

Question 12

trachea structure

Answer 12

• connects larynx to primary bronchi
• lined with respiratory mucosa
• cartilage rings anteriorly
• trachealis muscle (smooth) posteriorly: relaxes with SyNS stimulation for bronchodilation

Question 13

layers of trachea epithelium

Answer 13

1) respiratory epithelium (mucosa)
2) lamina propria (mucosa)
3) seromucous glands in submucosa
4) perichondrium
5) hyaline cartilage ring

Question 14

right/left lung lobes

Answer 14

• right = superior, middle and inferior
• left = superior and inferior

Question 15

bronchopulmonary segments

Answer 15

• 9-10 in each lung
• each has tertiary bronchus

Question 16

benefit of lung segmentation

Answer 16

• diseased segments can be removed while preserving function of others

Question 17

bronchi histology

Answer 17

• respiratory mucosa with fewer goblet cells
• amount of cartilage decreases moving through bronchi (inhibit gas exchange)
• circular layer of smooth muscle appears in bronchi (can change size of tube, modulates SA)
• lots of lymphocytes

Question 18

bronchiole histology

Answer 18

• epithelium becomes simple ciliated columnar/cuboidal, then simple cuboidal/low columnar (bronchiolar exocrine aka club cells)
• no mucosal glands or cartilage
• smaller, less circular lumen than bronchi
• more smooth muscle (prominent bundles lead to distinct shape)
• adjacent to blood vessels
• surrounded by alveoli
• lots of lymphocytes

Question 19

respiratory portion branching

Answer 19

1) respiratory bronchioles: from terminal bronchioles, decreasing smooth muscle
2) alveolar ducts: no smooth muscle
3) alveolar sac: collections of alveoli
4) alveoli

Question 20

pulmonary lobule

Answer 20

• branches of pulmonary arteries form capillary beds around alveoli for gas exchange
• pulmonary artery -> pulmonary arteriole -> pulmonary venules -> pulmonary vein -> heart

Question 21

respiratory bronchiole histology

Answer 21

• lined with bronchiolar exocrine cells
• surrounded by few alveoli
• subdivide into alveolar ducts with simple squamous epithelium
• pulmonary arteries and veins visible

Question 22

alveoli characteristics

Answer 22

• site of gas exchange, resembles a pouch (open on one side to alveolar duct/sac)
• between alveoli: interalveolar septa with fibroblasts, elastic (spongy) and reticular (maintain shape) fibers + pulmonary capillaries
• two types of cells (pneumocytes) and macrophages

Question 23

type I alveolar cells

Answer 23

• numerous
• form simple squamous epithelium

Question 24

type II alveolar cells

Answer 24

• rounded cells, vacuolated cytoplasm
• not as numerous
• secrete surface-active agent (surfactant) to decrease surface tension and maintain alveolar patency (sacs remain open)

Question 25

alveolar macrophage

Answer 25

- phagocytose particulate matter - contribute to black remnants on lungs (some in healthy, lots in smoker lungs)

Question 26

blood-air barrier

Answer 26

- respiratory membrane with: 1) endothelium 2) thin basement membrane 3) alveolar epithelium - gas exchange is rapid due to thinness (~0.5 micrometer) of membrane and small, lipid-solubility of gases

Question 27

alveoli histology

Answer 27

- lots of empty space - type I cells: flat, little cytoplasm - type II: cuboidal/round - macrophages: darker spots, protrude into spaces - capillaries: contain RBCs

Question 28

emphysema

Answer 28

- damaged and permanently enlarged alveoli (destruction of elastic fibers in lungs) - breathlessness because air becomes trapped in lungs at the end of exhalation (can't push out, gas exchange inhibited as well)

Question 29

respiratory epithelium proximal to distal

Answer 29

1) trachea: pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells 2) bronchi: transition to simple columnar with cilia and few goblet cells 3) bronchioles: transition to simple cuboidal with or without cilia, exocrine cells appear as they branch 4) alveoli: type I/II alveolar cells

Question 30

respiratory lamina propria proximal to distal

Answer 30

1) trachea: loose CT 2) bronchi: loose CT 3) bronchioles: thin or indistinct 4) alveoli: none

Question 31

respiratory secretory cells proximal to distal

Answer 31

1) trachea: seromucous glands in submucosa 2) bronchi: seromucous glands in submucosa 3) bronchioles: bronchiolar exocrine cells 4) alveoli: type II alveolar cells

Question 32

respiratory cartilage rings proximal to distal

Answer 32

1) trachea: c-shaped, joined by annular ligaments 2) bronchi: incomplete, irregular plates 3) bronchioles: none 4) alveoli: none

Question 33

respiratory smooth muscle proximal to distal

Answer 33

1) trachea: trachealis (at free ends of cartilage) 2) bronchi: discontinuous layer, more prominent as bronchi branch 3) bronchioles: prominent, large layer --> thin, indistinct, small layer 4) alveoli: none

Question 34

respiratory adventitia proximal to distal

Answer 34

1) trachea: loose CT 2) bronchi: loose CT 3) bronchioles: merges with submucosa 4) alveoli: none

Question 35

heart as a double pump

Answer 35

- right side: conveys blood through pulmonary circuit - left side: conveys blood through systemic circuit - both sides at the same time

Question 36

arteries vs veins

Answer 36

arteries carry blood away from heart, veins towards heart

Question 37

heart chambers

Answer 37

two atria superior to two ventricles

Question 38

heart position

Answer 38

- left of midline in middle mediastinum - oblique angle to longitudinal axis of body (slightly rotated to left)

Question 39

heart shape

Answer 39

- base of heart = posterior surface - apex located in 5th intercostal space

Question 40

pericardium

Answer 40

- surrounds heart and roots of the great vessels - two parts: outer fibrous pericardium and inner serous pericardium (two layers) - function: stabilize position of heart and prevents overfilling (bc attached to other structures, ex. fibrous attached to diaphragm)

Question 41

serous pericardium

Answer 41

1) visceral layer: attaches to heart - potential space (pericardial cavity) containing pericardial fluid (lubrication) between layers 2) parietal layer: attaches to fibrous pericardium

Question 42

components of heart wall

Answer 42

superficial to deep: (parietal layer of serous pericardium: mesothelium, areolar CT and pericardial cavity) 1) epicardium (visceral layer of serous pericardium): mesothelium and areolar CT 2) myocardium: cardiac muscle tissue 3) endocardium: unique endothelium and areolar CT

Question 43

heart surfaces

Answer 43

1) right pulmonary surface: formed by right atrium 2) anterior surface: majority right ventricle 3) left pulmonary surface: left ventricle 4) diaphragmatic surface

Question 44

external heart sulci

Answer 44

1) coronary sulcus: between atria and ventricles, location of fibrous skeleton 2) anterior/posterior interventricular sulci: between ventricles, overlie interventricular septum

Question 45

anterior external heart

Answer 45

1) right atrium 2) right auricle (flap) 3) right ventricle 4) left ventricle 5) left auricle * cannot see left atrium

Question 46

posterior external heart

Answer 46

1) left atrium 2) right atrium 3) left ventricle 4) right ventricle

Question 47

right heart input/output

Answer 47

input: deoxygenated blood to right atrium 1) superior vena cava: drains head and upper limbs 2) inferior vena cava: below diaphragm 3) coronary sinus: heart wall output: from right ventricle 1) pulmonary trunk 2) continues to right and left pulmonary arteries --> lungs

Question 48

left heart input/output

Answer 48

input: oxygenated blood to left atrium 1) right and left pulmonary veins (two on each side) output: from left ventricle 1) ascending aorta 2) aortic arch 3) descending aorta

Question 49

heart borders

Answer 49

1) right border: right atrium 2) left border: left ventricle 3) inferior border: mostly right ventricle, a little left ventricle

Question 50

internal right atrium

Answer 50

1) input vessels: SVC, IVC, coronary sinus 2) interatrial septum 3) fossa ovalis: remnant of embryonic foramen ovale 4) pectinate muscles: create rough wall 5) crista terminalis: line dividing smooth and rough parts of atrium

Question 51

embryonic foramen ovale

Answer 51

- direct connection between right and left atrium - no need for pulmonary circulation as an embryo

Question 52

internal right ventricle

Answer 52

1) right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) cusps (3) 2) septomarginal trabecula: extend from septum, attach to papillary muscles and trabeculae carnea 3) pulmonary semilunar valve cusps 4) conus arteriosus

Question 53

atrioventricular valve structures

Answer 53

1) cusps attach to chordae tendineae 2) attach to papillary muscles 3) trabeculae carneae: rough inner wall (no smooth parts in ventricle)

Question 54

atrioventricular valve cusp function

Answer 54

- like a parachute: chordae tendinae are strings attached to the papillary muscle (person) --> prevent cusps from everting - cusp pulled taut in a curved shape

Question 55

semilunar valve cusp function

Answer 55

- curved shape causes blood to pool in the closed cusps

Question 56

internal left atrium

Answer 56

1) left atrioventricular valve (bicuspid or mitral) cusps (two) 2) interatrial septum: smooth wall 3) left auricle: lined with pectinate muscles (rough)

Question 57

internal left ventricle

Answer 57

1) aortic semilunar valve cusps 2) left atriventricular valve cusps: chordae tendinae, papillary muslces, traveculae carnae

Question 58

aorta vs pulmonary trunk

Answer 58

aorta has openings of coronary arteries early on (oxygenated blood goes to heart first)

Question 59

why is LV wall thicker than RV?

Answer 59

- higher force needed to pump to entire body, not just lungs

Question 60

valve primary function

Answer 60

- ensure unidirectional flow of blood

Question 61

fibrous skeleton of heart

Answer 61

- structural foundation for heart valves - attachment for myocardium - electrical insulation of atrial myocardium from ventricular (precise coordination of contraction)

Question 62

fibrous skeleton components

Answer 62

1) pulmonary fibrous ring (anterior): pulmonary semilunar valve 2) aortic fibrous ring (posterior): aortic semilunar valves 3) left atrioventricular fibrous ring 4) right atrioventricular fibrous ring

Question 63

coronary vessels (arteries)

Answer 63

two major branches: 1) left coronary artery bifurcates almost immediately into circumflex artery and anterior interventricular artery - circumflex: LA/LV - anterior interventricular: 2/3 IV septum of LV, anterior wall of LV/RV, connects with posterior interventricular artery at apex 2) right coronary artery gives rise to right marginal artery and posterior interventricular artery, supplies RA/RV - right marginal: RV - posterior interventricular artery: posterior 1/3 of IV septum, posterior RV/LV

Question 64

coronary vessels (veins)

Answer 64

1) great cardiac vein: drains areas supplied by anterior interventricular artery --> drain into coronary sinus 2) small and middle cardia veins: drains RCA area --> drain into coronary sinus 3) anterior cardiac vein: anterior RV --> drain directly into RA

Question 65

recognizing coronary vessels

Answer 65

- thick wall = aorta - thinner wall = pulmonary vein - big, dilated vessel near left side = coronary sinus

Question 66

pelvis structure

Answer 66

1) right and left hip bones (os coxae) joined anteriorly by pubic symphysis 2) sacrum (joins to hips by sacro-iliac joints) 3) coccyx

Question 67

pelvic girdle

Answer 67

- consists of left and right hip bones

Question 68

hip bone structure

Answer 68

- three separate bones: 1) ilium (most superior) 2) ischium 3) pubis/pubic bone (anterior to ischium) - acetabulum: where bones fuse together around mid 20s, before separated by hyaline cartilage - obturator foramen: formed by 2/3, covered with fascia and muscle

Question 69

ilium features

Answer 69

lateral surface: 1) iliac crest 2) ala medial surface: 3) iliac fossa 4) arcuate line for muscle attachment: 5) anterior superior iliac spine 6) anterior inferior iliac spine 7) posterior superior iliac spine 8) posterior inferior iliac spine other: 9) greater sciatic notch: sciatic (largest nerve) passes through

Question 70

ischium features

Answer 70

1) ischial tuberosity: "big bump" that are "sit" bones, hamstrings attach here --> lateral view 2) ischial spine: muscle attachment 3) lesser sciatic notch 4) ischial ramus

Question 71

pubis features

Answer 71

1) pectineal line: medial view, continuous with arcuate line 2) superior pubic ramus 3) pubic tubercle: ligament attachment 4) body of pubis: between rami, forms pubic symphysis 5) inferior pubic ramus

Question 72

ischiopubic ramus

Answer 72

inferior pubic ramus + ischial ramus

Question 73

inguinal ligament

Answer 73

- runs from anterior superior iliac spine to pubic tubercle - formed by lower border of external oblique - creates space where blood vessels and nerves pass through

Question 74

intraperitoneal organs

Answer 74

- surrounded by visceral peritoneum - suspended by mesenteries to posterior abdominal wall - ex. stomach, spleen

Question 75

retroperitoneal organs

Answer 75

- develop posterior to peritoneal cavity - only partially covered by peritoneum - ex. kidneys, aorta, IVC, pancreas

Question 76

digestive system function

Answer 76

- mechanically and chemically break down food for absorption

Question 77

secondarily retroperitoneal organs

Answer 77

- initially intraperitoneal - become attached to posterior body wall through development (part of peritoneum disintegrates) - ex. ascending and descending colon

Question 78

mesenteries

Answer 78

- double layer of peritoneum with intervening areolar CT - blood, lymph vessels, nerves sandwiched between - several types/names - function: support and stabilize intraperitoneal organs

Question 79

GI tract general layers

Answer 79

1) mucosa: protection, absorption, secretion 2) submucosa 3) muscularis externa 4) serosa or adventitia

Question 80

GI mucosa

Answer 80

1) epithelium: varies based on tube function 2) lamina propria: areolar CT with mucosal glands, blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics 3) muscularis mucosae: smooth muscle, alters shape of lumen

Question 81

GI submucosa

Answer 81

- dense irregular or areolar CT - blood, lymphatics, submucosal plexus - some regions: lymphatic tissue and submucosal glands

Question 82

GI muscularis externa

Answer 82

- two layers of smooth muscle (except in esophagus and stomach): inner circular and external longitudinal - myenteric plexus located between layers - contraction of layers = segmentation and peristalsis - circular = compression, mixing, constricting diameter - longitudinal = shortens length of tube

Question 83

GI adventitia/serosa

Answer 83

- areolar CT - intraperitoneal organs = serosa - others = adventitia

Question 84

peristalsis

Answer 84

1) contraction of circular muscles behind bolus 2) contraction of longitudinal muscles ahead of bolus 3) wave of contraction in circular muscle layer forces bolus forward

Question 85

segmentation

Answer 85

- primarily circular muscle layers - churn and mix contents in digestive tract - no net movement in particular direction

Question 86

esophagus

Answer 86

- muscular tube running through neck and posterior mediastinum - passes through muscular part of diaphragm via esophageal hiatus - 25cm x 2cm - secretes mucus (lubrication - transports swallowed materials from pharynx to stomach

Question 87

esophagus layers

Answer 87

1) mucosa: - stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium - lamina propria: lymphatic nodules and esophageal cardiac glands - thick muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa: - dense irregular CT - blood and lymphatics - lots of elastic fibers (collapsed lumen), assist in closing tube - submucosal glands 3) muscular layer: - circular and longitudinal - proximal to distal: 1/3 skeletal muscle, 1/3 both, 1/3 smooth 4) adventitia: adheres to posterior body wall

Question 88

esophagus bolus path

Answer 88

- passes through esophageal hiatus to portion located in peritoneal cavity - pass through lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): thickening of circular layer - goes to stomach

Question 89

stomach regions

Answer 89

1) fundus: dome shaped 2) cardia: transition zone between esophagus and stomach 3) body: majority 4) pyloric antrum: funnel-shaped

Question 90

stomach structure

Answer 90

- J-shaped, with four regions - lesser curvature: lesser omentum (mesentery) attachment - greater curvature: greater omentum - rugae (semipermanent folds) formed by mucosa and submucosa, accommodate expansion and filling of stomach

Question 91

stomach muscularis externa

Answer 91

- three layers: 1) longitudinal 2) circular 3) oblique: additional layer to allow more effective mixing

Question 92

stomach function

Answer 92

- food (chyme) storage - mechanical/chemical digestion - hormone secretion - little absorption

Question 93

pyloric sphincter

Answer 93

- thickening of circular layer - regulates chyme movement from stomach to duodenum

Question 94

stomach layers

Answer 94

1) mucosa: - simple columnar epithelium - mucous cells invaginate into lamina propria = gastric pits - muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa: - loose areolar CT with BVs, lymphatics - no glands! 3) muscularis externa: 3 layers 4) serosa: loose areolar CT

Question 95

gastric secretions

Answer 95

1) surface mucous and mucous neck cells: mucins, protects mucosa from acid and maintains acidic conditions 2) parietal cells: intrinsic factor (B12 absorption), HCl (denatures proteins, antibacterial, breaks down cell walls) 3) chief cells: pepsinogen (proenzyme --> pepsin with HCl), gastric lipase 4) G cells (enteroendocrine): gastrin into blood stream, stimulates parietal/chief cells and contractions

Question 96

stomach secretory cell distribution

Answer 96

- gastric pit: mucous cells - gastric gland: parietal, G, chief - chief cells more predominant at bottom of gland - G cells at bottom, not seen on H&E

Question 97

parietal vs chief cells histology

Answer 97

- parietal = large, central nucleus, eosinophilic - chief = small, basophilic (proteins)

Question 98

small intestine function

Answer 98

most digestion and absorption

Question 99

small intestine regions

Answer 99

1) duodenum (~25cm, shortest): mix chyme with exocrine secretions, proximally intraperitoneal (mobile) and rest secondarily retroperitoneal (anchored) 2) jejunum (2.5m): chemical digestion, nutrient absorption, intraperitoneal 3) ileum (3.6m): controls movement of intestinal contents into cecum, intraperitoneal

Question 100

mesenteries of small intestine

Answer 100

- duodenum: no mesentery - jejunum and ileum: fan-shaped mesentery proper (anchor to posterior wall)

Question 101

small intestine structures

Answer 101

1) circular folds (plicae circulares): permanent, transverse folds of mucosa and submucosa = increase SA and slow chyme 2) intestinal villi: finger-like extensions of mucosa, covered by simple columnar cells, also increase SA 3) microvilli: projections from intestinal villi (brush border), increase SA

Question 102

small intestine layers

Answer 102

1) mucosa: - villi, intestinal glands, lymphoid nodules - muscularis mucosae - simple columnar with goblet cells - lamina propria: capillary networks (nutrient-rich blood to liver), lacteals (lipid-protein complexes to venous system), nerves and smooth muscle 2) submucosa: lymphatics, vessels, submucosal neural plexus 3) muscular layer: - circular and longitudinal - myenteric neural plexus 4) serosa

Question 103

small intestine plexuses

Answer 103

- control movement of chyme and secretions

Question 104

intestinal glands (crypts)

Answer 104

- extend into lamina propria - enteroendocrine cells: hormone production, ex. CCK - paneth cells: innate immunity - stem cells: replenish epithelial cells lost in lumen and MALT

Question 105

small intestine regional specializations

Answer 105

1) duodenum: mucous secretion and goblet cells, with submucosal (Brunner's) glands 2) jejunum: nutrient absorption, well developed circular folds 3) ileum: lymphoid nodules (Peyer's patches, target bacteria from large intestine), goblet cells (lubrication after lots of absorption)

Question 106

large intestine structure

Answer 106

- from ileocecal valve to anus (1.5m long, 6.5cm wide) - large = wider (shorter than small) - three regions 1) cecum: blind ended sac (contents can only go up) 2) colon: ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid 3) rectum

Question 107

large intestine function

Answer 107

- reabsorption of water and salts - absorption of vitamins - storage of feces

Question 108

large intestine feactures

Answer 108

1) right colic (hepatic) flexure 2) left colic (splenic) flexure 3) haustra: permit expansion, created by... 4) teniae coli (3 strips): reorganization of external longitudinal layer 5) epiploic (omental) appendages: fatty appendages along teniae coli, function unknown

Question 109

appendix

Answer 109

- filled with lymphoid nodules and involved in immune function - attached to cecum

Question 110

retroperitoneal and intraperitoneal parts of large intestine

Answer 110

1) ascending colon = secondarily retroperitoneal 2) transverse colon = intra 3) descending colon = secondarily retro 4) sigmoid colon = intra 5) rectum = retro

Question 111

greater omentum connections

Answer 111

- connects stomach to transverse colon

Question 112

rectum characteristics

Answer 112

- expandable, filling = urge to defecate - ends as anal canal, opens to outside at the anus - epithelium changes: 1) simple columnar 2) stratified squamous nonkeratinized 3) keratinized

Question 113

large intestine layers

Answer 113

1) mucosa: - changing epithelium - no villi or circular folds - goblet cells, deep intestinal glands - muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa 3) muscular layer: - circular layer - longitudinal layer = teniae coli 4) serosa

Question 114

portal vein definition

Answer 114

- connects two capillary beds

Question 115

liver capsule

Answer 115

- covered by fibrous CT capsule and visceral peritoneum, except at bare area - peritoneum reflects to make ligaments

Question 116

lesser omentum attachments

Answer 116

- attaches stomach to liver

Question 117

liver functional units

Answer 117

- divided by CT (interlobular septum, containing interlobular veins and arteries) into lobules - commonly hexagonal shaped - portal triads at periphery: include branches of hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery proper and bile duct - central vein in the middle

Question 118

liver perisinusoidal space

Answer 118

- separates hepatocytes from endothelial cells - where functions of the liver take place

Question 119

bile function

Answer 119

- digestion of lipids in duodenum

Question 120

pancreas characteristics

Answer 120

- posterior to stomach, incurve of duodenum - secondarily retroperitoneal - ~15cm long - head, body and tail (tail near spleen) - surrounded by thin fibrous CT capsule - divided into lobules by CT septa - endocrine and exocrine functions

Question 121

pancreas histology

Answer 121

1) pancreatic islets: endocrine = lighter staining 2) acinar cells: make up acini, exocrine = darker staining, eosinophilic lumen

Question 122

pancreatic cell types and functions

Answer 122

1) pancreatic islets (contain many diff cells): endocrine products, ex. insulin/glucagon --> BVs 2) acinar cells: mucin, digestive enzymes 3) intercalated duct cells: bicarbonate ions, mix with digestive enzymes to go towards small intestine via pancreatic duct

Question 123

urinary system component

Answer 123

kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra

Question 124

urinary tract components and function

Answer 124

- ureters, bladder, urethra - store and eliminate urine

Question 125

kidney function

Answer 125

- maintenance of water and electrolyte homeostasis - elimination of by-products of metabolism: urine production

Question 126

filtration/reabsorption in kidney

Answer 126

- blood filtered, most reabsorbed - rest is filtrate converted to urine

Question 127

kidney structure

Answer 127

1) superior pole: adrenal glands 2) hilium: renal BVs (vein anterior to artery), lymphatics, nerves, renal pelvis 3) ureter 4) inferior pole

Question 128

renal pelvis

Answer 128

- connection to ureter in kidney

Question 129

kidney coverings

Answer 129

deep to superficial: 1) fibrous capsule: thin dense irregular CT, maintains shape and protects 2) perinephric fat: cushioning and support 3) renal fascia: dense irregular CT, anchors kidney to surrounding structures and posterior abdominal wall 4) paranephric fat

Question 130

L/R renal vein and artery differences

Answer 130

- L vein longer bc IVC closer to L - L artery shorter bc aorta closer to R

Question 131

internal features of kidneys

Answer 131

1) renal pyramid: renal medulla, has apex and base (abuts renal cortex) 2) renal papilla: formed by apex of renal pyramid, extends into minor calyx 3) renal columns: cortical tissue between pyramids 4) renal lobe: location of renal functional units, includes pyramid and adjacent cortex/columns 5) minor calyx: drains medulla into... 6) major calyx: formed by merging minor 7) renal pelvis: drains major calyxes 8) renal sinus: contains fat

Question 132

nephron components

Answer 132

1) renal corpuscle: spherical, contains glomerulus (bundle of BVs) and glomerular capsule 2) renal tubule: PCT, nephron loop, DCT

Question 133

renal corpuscle function

Answer 133

- filter blood - produce glomerular filtrate (enters capsular space)

Question 134

renal tubule function

Answer 134

- modifies glomerular filtrate through reabsorption/secretion

Question 135

types of nephrons

Answer 135

1) cortical (85%): primarily in cortex, produce glomerular filtrate 2) juxtamedullary nephrons (15%): close to junction between cortex and medulla, extend into medulla, produce filtrate and ALSO create/maintain osmotic gradient in renal interstitium

Question 136

importance of renal interstitium osmotic gradient

Answer 136

- concentration of urine - modification of filtrate as it passes through

Question 137

peritubular capillaries

Answer 137

- around PCT/DCT - gas, nutrient, waste exchange

Question 138

vasa recta

Answer 138

- around nephron loop - gas, nutrient, waste, exchange

Question 139

afferent vs efferent arteriole

Answer 139

- afferent wider - creates increased hydrostatic pressure that drives H2O and low MW molecules through filter to form filtrate

Question 140

glomerular capsule layers

Answer 140

1) parietal layer: simple squamous cells 2) capsular space: contains glomerular filtrate 3) visceral layer: specialized cells (podocytes) with bulging nuclei and interlaced digits

Question 141

glomerulus structure

Answer 141

1) vascular pole: where afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole enter 2) tubular pole: PCT 3) DCT closely associated with arterioles

Question 142

PCT characteristics

Answer 142

- located in cortex - simple cuboidal with very dense microvilli: most absorption in PCT

Question 143

PCT functions

Answer 143

- active reabsorption of ions, nutrients, vitamins, plasma proteins from filtrate to peritubular fluid (H2O follows passively), peritubular capillaries return these to general circulation - active secretion of organic acids/bases, metabolites, drugs into PCT lumen

Question 144

nephron loop characteristics

Answer 144

- descending limb - ascending limb: impermeable to water, actively pumps Na/Cl out of tubular fluid to concentrate interstitial fluid, drawing water with it (reabsorption), vasa recta returns to circulation - each has thick (simple cuboidal) and thin (simple squamous) segment - most water and NaCl reclaimed at this point

Question 145

DCT characteristics

Answer 145

- in cortex, passes vascular pole in renal corpuscle between afferent/efferent arterioles - simple cuboidal with FEW, BLUNT microvilli - smaller diameter than PCT - shorter than PCT

Question 146

DCT function

Answer 146

- active secretion of K/H into tubular fluid - reabsorption of NaCl, H2O when aldosterone and ADH present

Question 147

PCT vs DCT on H&E stain

Answer 147

- PCT: bigger cells, not every cell has nucleus, fuzzy lumen - DCT: smaller cells all with nuclei, empty lumen

Question 148

juxtaglomerular complex function

Answer 148

- regulate glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and blood pressure - ex. BP drop = lower Na in filtrate = SyNS input and release of renin

Question 149

juxtaglomerular complex components

Answer 149

1) macula densa: modified epithelial cells in DCT, monitor [Na] in fluid 2) juxtaglomerular cells: modified (contractile to secretory) smooth muscle cells of afferent arteriole, monitor BP and innervated by SyNS for renin secretion (increases BP) 3) extraglomerular mesangial cells: surround and support vascular pole, FN not well understood

Question 150

juxtaglomerular complex histology

Answer 150

1) macula densa: cells more columnar, contact afferent arteriole 2) juxtaglomerular cells: hard to see, but near afferent arteriole 3) extraglomerular mesangial cells: in space between afferent and efferent arterioles

Question 151

collecting system function

Answer 151

- transport fluid from DCT to minor calyx - make final adjustments to osmotic concentrations and volume - ADH controls permeability ex. dehydration = more ADH = more H2O reabsorption = more concentrated urine

Question 152

collecting system comonents

Answer 152

1) collecting tubules 2) collecting ducts 3) papillary ducts

Question 153

collecting system histology

Answer 153

- tubules = simple cuboidal - ducts = simple columnar - collecting ducts have pale staining principal cells with few organelles and DISTINCT cell borders

Question 154

ureter location

Answer 154

- retroperitoneal - extend from renal pelvis to posterolateral wall of bladder (oblique angle)

Question 155

ureter layers

Answer 155

1) mucosa: transitional epithelium and lamina propria 2) smooth muscular layer: longitudinal inner, circular outer 3) adventitia (CT)

Question 156

bladder location

Answer 156

- posterior to pubic symphysis - retroperitoneal (superior surface covered with peritoneum) - shape and location differ in M/F

Question 157

urethra location

Answer 157

- from urinary bladder to exterior - longer in males - shorter in females, UTIs more common

Question 158

bladder features

Answer 158

1) rugae: formed by mucosal folds, allow for greater distension 2) trigone region: smooth, funnels urine from ureters to urethra 3) internal urethral sphincter: only in males, organized smooth muscle 4) detrusor muscle: 3 layers, contract to expel urine

Question 159

bladder layers

Answer 159

1) mucosa: transitional epithelium and lamina propria 2) submucosa 3) thick detrusor muscle 4) adventitia

Question 160

urethra histology

Answer 160

- large longitudinal folds around lumen - surrounded by bundles of smooth muscle - females: stratified squamous - males: changes from transitional --> stratified columnar/pseudostratified columnar --> stratified squamous

Question 161

exocrine gland

Answer 161

- duct connects gland to external environment - secretory cells release chemical products onto epithelial surface via duct - ex. eccrine sweat glands

Question 162

endocrine glands

Answer 162

- no connection to epithelial layer = ductless - secrete chemical products (hormones) into surrounding tissue --> blood stream - ex. endocrine pancreas

Question 163

endocrine organs

Answer 163

1) CNS: hypothalamus, pituitary gland 2) thoracic cavity: thyroid, parathyroid 3) abdominal cavity: adrenal/suprarenal, pancreas

Question 164

endocrine system functions

Answer 164

- secrete hormones that act on receptors that modulate the biochemistry of target cells - maintain homeostasis through endocrine reflexes and feedback loops

Question 165

characteristics of endocrine organs

Answer 165

- clusters or cords of secretory cells - surrounded by supportive dense irregular CT - highly vascularized with fenestrated (most) or sinusoidal capillaries

Question 166

pituitary structure

Answer 166

1) infundibulum: stalk portion connecting hypothalamus and pituitary glands 2) anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) 3) posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis, pars nervosa) 4) sella turcica: hypophyseal fossa of spehnoid, houses glands

Question 167

anterior pituitary divisions

Answer 167

1) pars distalis: most distal 2) pars intermedia: separates anterior/posterior 3) pars tuberalis: forms part of infundibulum

Question 168

anterior pituitary control

Answer 168

- regulatory hormones from hypothalamus via hypophyseal portal system

Question 169

anterior pituitary cell types

Answer 169

1) chromophils i) acidophils: prolactin, growth hormones ii) basophils: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH (FLAT) 2) chromophobes: don't stain well

Question 170

anterior pituitary histology

Answer 170

- acidophils = eosinophilic - basophils = basophilic - chromophobes = don't stain - more basophilic (darker) than posterior pituitary

Question 171

posterior pituitary histology

Answer 171

1) herring bodies: intense staining clusters = terminal end of axons where hormones are stored 2) blood vessels 3) pituicytes: glial cells *very eosinophilic

Question 172

thyroid gland characteristics

Answer 172

- two lobes connected by isthmus, created by surrounding DICT capsule - butterfly-shaped - anterior surface of trachea: cartilage ring 2-3 - easily palpable with fingers, especially when enlarged (goiter) - highly vascularized

Question 173

thyroid gland structure

Answer 173

- enclosed in fibrous capsule that sends trabeculae deep into the gland = irregular lobules - functional unit = thyroid follicle (spherical) - follicular cells = thyrocytes - parafollicular (C) cells between thyroid follicles

Question 174

thyroid follicle

Answer 174

- simple cuboidal epithelium (can change to columnar if more active) - cavity filled with colloid (viscous fluid)

Question 175

thyrocyte functions

Answer 175

1) synthesize thyroglobulin (prohormone) 2) secrete colloid --> become iodinated 3) breakdown to form thyroid hormones: thyroxine (T4, storage) and triiodothyronine (T3, active form)

Question 176

parafollicular (C) cell function

Answer 176

- secrete calcitonin, which decreases [Ca]: 1) inhibits osteoclast activity 2) stimulates Ca excretion at kidneys

Question 177

parathyroid glands location

Answer 177

- 4 pea-sized, located on posterior aspect of thyroid gland - two superior, two inferior

Question 178

parathyroid characteristics

Answer 178

- surrounded by CT capsule that forms irregular lobules - two specialized cell types: 1) parathyroid cells (chief/principal): produce parathyroid hormone 2) oxyphil cells: immature/inactive parathyroid cells

Question 179

parathyroid gland histology

Answer 179

- very cellular - oxyphil cells: more cytoplasm

Question 180

adrenal (suprarenal) gland characteristics

Answer 180

- pyramid-shaped - one on each superior pole of kidney (retroperitoneal) - CT capsule - highly vascularized - two regions: cortex (superficial) and medulla (deep)

Question 181

adrenal cortex characteristics

Answer 181

- cells with high lipid content that secrete 24 types of steroid hormones (adrenocortical steroids) - three layers (superficial to deep): 1) zona glomerulosa: cells in densely packed clusters ("glomeruli), produce mineralocorticoids ex. aldosterone 2) zona fasciculata: cells in radiating cords, separated by fenestrated capillaries, produce glucocorticoids ex. cortisol 3) zona reticularis: reticular network of small cells, produce androgens

Question 182

adrenal medulla characteristics

Answer 182

- primarily chromaffin cells: large, rounded, resemble sympathetic ganglia neuron (modified postganglionic sympathetic neuron) - two types of endocrine cells that secrete catecholamines: 80% epinephrine, 20% NE

Question 183

pancreas characteristics

Answer 183

- retroperitoneal - head, body, tail - mixed gland: acini/ducts are exocrine (99%), pancreatic islets are endocrine

Question 184

pancreas blood supply

Answer 184

- pancreatic branches of: 1) splenic artery 2) pancreaticoduodenal arteries

Question 185

pancreatic islets characteristics

Answer 185

- aka islet of langerhans - surrounded by CT - fenestrated capillaries - ANS input through celiac plexus

Question 186

reproductive system components

Answer 186

1) primary sex organs = gonads = testes and ovaries 2) accessory organs

Question 187

gonads function

Answer 187

- produce haploid gametes and sex hormones - ovary = oocytes, estrogen, progesterone - testes = sperm, androgens - gametes fuse to form diploid zygote

Question 188

components of male reproductive system

Answer 188

1) genital ducts: ductus (vas) deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, epididymis 2) external genitalia: penis, scrotum, testes 3) accessory glands: seminal, prostate, bulbourethral

Question 189

scrotum

Answer 189

- homologous to labia majora - covers testes

Question 190

testes structures

Answer 190

1) tunica vaginalis: serous membrane, parietal and visceral layers line scrotal cavity (containing serous fluid) 2) tunica albuginea: fibrous CT capsule, forms septa lobules 3) septa: subdivide internal space into lobules containing... 4) seminiferous tubules: blind end or loop, contain sustentacular and dividing germ cells 5) ducts: straight tubules --> rete testis --> efferent ductule, which goes to epididymis 6) raphe: ridge of tissue extending from anus to scrotum

Question 191

testes histology

Answer 191

1) outer tunica albuginea 2) seminiferous tubules 3) interstitial cells between = hormone production

Question 192

seminiferous tubules

Answer 192

- site of spermatogenesis - complex stratified epithelium containing sustentacular and spermatogenic cells

Question 193

sustentacular cells

Answer 193

- protection and nourishment for sperm cells - produce inhibit when sperm count is high (inhibits FSH secretion) - secured together by tight junctions = blood-testes barrier

Question 194

blood-testis barrier

Answer 194

- protects sperm from immune system

Question 195

interstitial cells

Answer 195

- produce androgens ex. testosterone - located between seminiferous tubules in loose CT along with BVs, nerves, lymphatics

Question 196

myoid cells

Answer 196

- unique contractile cells - expel contents of seminiferous tubules

Question 197

seminiferous tubule histology

Answer 197

1) myoid cells = outer edge, flattened nuclei 2) interstitial cells = outside 3) sustentacular cell = lighter stain, extend entire tubular wall 4) outer to inner (least to most mature): a) spermatogonium = dark nucleus b) primary spermatocyte = speckled c) secondary spermatocyte d) spermatid = smaller, not speckled e) spermatozoon = tails

Question 198

testes duct system function

Answer 198

- store sperm - transport sperm as they mature and pass out of the body (or die) - facilitate transport through smooth muscle stimulated by oxytocin

Question 199

testes duct system components

Answer 199

1) rete testes 2) efferent ductules 3) epididymis: head, body, tail 4) ductus deferens

Question 200

rete testis

Answer 200

- complex anastomotic network - simple cuboidal with microvilli - receive from straight tubule

Question 201

efferent ductules

Answer 201

- ciliated and non-ciliated columnar - absorb excess fluid secreted by seminiferous tubules

Question 202

epididymis function

Answer 202

- accumulation, storage and maturation (learn to swim) of sperm - uptake and digestion of luminal fluid and degenerated sperm

Question 203

epididymis structure

Answer 203

- highly coiled tube - pseudostratified columnar epithelium with LONG microvilli ("sterocilia") - principal cells = tall, columnar - basal cells = small, round - circular layer of smooth muscle

Question 204

ductus deferens structure

Answer 204

- thick-walled tube within spermatic cord - connects epididymis to prostatic urethra - ends at large ampulla (posterior to bladder) - unites with proximal seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct - empties into prostatic urethra (common with urine)

Question 205

ductus deferens layers

Answer 205

1) mucosa: pseudostratified columnar with few stereocilia + lamina propria 2) muscularis: inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal 3) adventitia

Question 206

female reproductive system components

Answer 206

1) two ovaries 2) uterine tube 3) uterus 4) peritoneum creates recesses: vesicouterine and rectouterine pouches 5) external genitalia: mons pubis, clitoris, labia minora/majora 6) vagina 7) vestibule

Question 207

ovary and uterine tube connection

Answer 207

- not directly connected - space between

Question 208

ovary histology

Answer 208

outer to inner: 1) germinal (surface) epithelium: simple cuboidal (mesothelium) 2) tunica albuginea: dense irregular CT 3) cortex: contains ovarian follicles 4) medulla: areolar CT, BVs, Ls, Ns

Question 209

primordial follicle

Answer 209

- primary oocyte - simple squamous follicle cells - outer surface has thin basal lamina

Question 210

primary follicle

Answer 210

- simple cuboidal cells that undergo stratification to form granulosa layer (uni to multilaminar) - surrounding stroma (CT + smooth muscle) forms thecal layers (interna and externa) - zona pellucida around primary oocyte

Question 211

zona pellucida

Answer 211

- protective acellular layer around oocyte - contains sperm receptors - "clear"

Question 212

which cells secrete estrogen precursors?

Answer 212

- granulosa - theca interna

Question 213

secondary follicle

Answer 213

- primary oocyte - many granulosa cell layers - follicular fluid accumulates = become one continuous space = antrum - granulosa cells form cumulus oophorus: attaches oocyte to follicular wall - corona radiata: cells of CO that immediately surround oocyte

Question 214

mature follicle

Answer 214

- one predominant follicle - extends thickness of cortex - antrum increases in size - stratum granulosa thins - oocyte and cumulus cells loosen from surrounding granulosum = prep for ovulation - thecal cells become more prominent - secondary oocyte halted in meiosis II until fertilized

Question 215

fate of immature follicles

Answer 215

- atresia (majority)

Question 216

corpus luteum vs granulosa/theca interna cells

Answer 216

- increase in size, fill with lipids

Question 217

polycystic ovary disease

Answer 217

- multiple follicular cysts - thickness of tunica albuginea prevents ovulation of mature follicle

Question 218

uterine tube structure

Answer 218

1) uterine part 2) isthmus 3) ampulla: expanded region where fertilization typically occurs 4) infundibulum: funnel-like area with fimbriae that sweep secondary oocyte into tube

Question 219

uterine tube histology

Answer 219

1) columnar (ciliated and non-ciliated) epithelium 2) lamina propria 3) smooth muscle: inner circular, outer longitudinal 4) serosa

Question 220

uterus epithelium

Answer 220

- simple columnar - transitions to stratified squamous nonkeratinized passing through cervix and vagina

Question 221

uterus structure

Answer 221

1) fundus 2) body with uterine cavity 3) isthmus: narrowing 4) cervical canal

Question 222

internal/external os

Answer 222

1) internal = cervical opening from uterus (simple columnar to simple cuboidal) 2) external = cervical opening to vagina (simple cuboidal to stratified squamous nonkeratinized)

Question 223

uterine wall layers

Answer 223

1) perimetrium: outer, mostly serosa, continuous with broad ligament 2) myometrium: middle, 3 concentric layers of smooth muscle 3) endometrium: innermost mucosa = simple columnar (some ciliated, others secretory) + lamina propria (with uterine glands)

Question 224

endometrium layers

Answer 224

1) basal: highly cellular lamina propria, uterine glands 2) functional: sparser (spongier) lamina propria, more ground substance, includes most of length of glands and superficial epithelium --> lost during menstruation

Question 225

inhibin in females

Answer 225

produced by granulosa cells, inhibits FSH production

Question 226

vagina structure

Answer 226

- fibromuscular tube with three layers: 1) mucosa: stratified squamous nonkeratinized + lamina propria 2) muscular layer (thinner than uterus) 3) adventitia - greater vestibular glands around vestibule: area between labia minora

Question 227

vagina acidic environment

Answer 227

- discourages bacterial growth - necessitates buffering capacity of seminal fluid

Question 228

vagina connections

Answer 228

- vaginal canal connects cervix to external environment

Question 229

upper limb bone divisions

Answer 229

1) shoulder: pectoral girdle 2) arm: humerus 3) forearm: radius, ulna 4) hand: carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

Question 230

upper limb bone count

Answer 230

32 in total

Question 231

pectoral girdle components

Answer 231

clavicle and scapula

Question 232

pectoral girdle function

Answer 232

- connects upper limb to axial skeleton - attachment site for muscles

Question 233

sternoclavicular joint

Answer 233

- clavicle + manubrium (sternum) - only articulation between upper limb and axial skeleton

Question 234

clavicle function

Answer 234

- strut: allows range of movement - protects upper limb - transmits shock from upper limb to axial skeleton

Question 235

clavicle surfaces

Answer 235

- smooth superior - rough inferior: for ligamentous connections

Question 236

clavicle structure

Answer 236

1) acromial end 2) shaft 3) sternal end

Question 237

scapula bone type

Answer 237

flat bone

Question 238

scapula anterior vs posterior surface

Answer 238

- posterior has spine and acromion - anterior has coracoid process

Question 239

scapula borders

Answer 239

1) superior 2) lateral 3) medial

Question 240

scapula angles

Answer 240

1) superior 2) inferior 3) lateral

Question 241

scapula fossae and cavities

Answer 241

anterior: 1) subscapular fossa 2) glenoid cavity posterior: 3) supraspinous 4) infraspinous 5) suprascapular notch

Question 242

humerus bone type

Answer 242

long bone

Question 243

humerus articulations

Answer 243

- proximal glenohumeral joint: head (humerus) + glenoid cavity (scapula) - distal elbow joint: articulates with radius and ulna

Question 244

humerus anterior and posterior structures

Answer 244

1) head: 1/3 sphere, glenoid cavity = shallow = mobile joint 2) greater tubercle (lateral side) 3) anatomical neck 4) surgical neck: only bone with two necks, common breaking point 5) deltoid tuberosity (lateral): roughened area for deltoid attachment

Question 245

humerus anterior only structures

Answer 245

1) intertubercular sulcus 2) lesser tubercle: more medial 3) radial fossa: head of radius during elbow flexion 4) coronoid fossa: coronoid process of ulna during elbow flexion 5) lateral epicondyle: forearm muscle attachment 6) medial epicondyle: funny bone (nerve) presses against this 7) capitulum (lateral) 8) trochlea (medial)

Question 246

humerus posterior only structures

Answer 246

1) radial groove: radial nerve + artery 2) olecranon fossa: olecranon process of ulna during elbow extension

Question 247

radius and ulna bone types

Answer 247

long bones

Question 248

radius and ulna articulations

Answer 248

1) antebrachial interosseous membrane (DICT): holds bones together, separates anterior from posterior 2) proximal radioulnar joint: with humerus 3) distal radioulnar joint: with carpal bones

Question 249

ulna features

Answer 249

1) olecranon: forms elbow in olecranon fossa 2) coronoid process 3) trochlear notch: grips humerus trochlea 4) radial notch: radial articulation 5) ulnar tuberosity: muscle attachment 6) head of ulna (distal end!): ball of wrist 7) ulnar styloid process

Question 250

radius features

Answer 250

1) head of radius: articulates with radial notch of ulna 2) neck of radius 3) radial tuberosity: muscle attachment 4) radial styloid process 5) carpal articular surface: articulates with carpals

Question 251

ulna and radius relative location

Answer 251

ulna medial to radius

Question 252

carpal bone types

Answer 252

short bones (cube shaped)

Question 253

carpal bone arrangement

Answer 253

proximal row (lateral to medial): 1) scaphoid: biggest, commonly broken 2) lunate 3) triquetrum 4) pisiform distal row (lateral to medial): 5) trapezium: thumb bone 6) trapezoid 7) capitate 8) hamate: anterior side has hook of the hamate SOME LOVERS TRY POSITIONS THAT THEY CAN'T HANDLE

Question 254

carpal bone that can't be seen posteriorly

Answer 254

pisiform because lies on top of triquetrum

Question 255

metacarpal and phalange bone types

Answer 255

long bones

Question 256

metacarpal structure

Answer 256

each has base (attached to carpals), body and head

Question 257

metacarpal numbering

Answer 257

1-5 lateral to medial (thumb is one)

Question 258

phalange naming

Answer 258

- proximal, middle and distal (except thumb does not have middle)

Question 259

thumb anatomical name

Answer 259

pollex

Question 260

upper limb joint classification

Answer 260

- most are diarthrotic synovial joints - exceptions: 1) scapulothoracic joint: scapula + thoracic wall = not a true joint (no bone-bone articulation, no joint capsule) 2) antebrachial interosseous membrane: amphiarthrotic fibrous joint

Question 261

synovial joint classification

Answer 261

1) plane = uniaxial 2) pivot = uniaxial 3) saddle = biaxial 4) hinge = uniaxial 5) condylar (condyloid) = biaxial 6) ball and socket = multiaxial

Question 262

synovial joint structure

Answer 262

- double layered joint capsule: inner synovial, outer fibrous - creates joint cavity with synovial fluid - ligaments reinforce capsule (have unique names - articular cartilage along bones - some have bursae

Question 263

synovial fluid function

Answer 263

- lubrication - nourishes articular cartilage - shock absorber

Question 264

bursae function

Answer 264

- fibrous saclike structures filled with synovial fluid - alleviate friction

Question 265

carpometacarpal joint (CMC) classification

Answer 265

digit 1 = saddle, others = plane

Question 266

metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP) classification

Answer 266

condyloid

Question 267

proximal/distal interphalangeal joint (PIP) classification

Answer 267

hinge

Question 268

thumb movements

Answer 268

1) abduction: perpendicular away from pal 2) adduction 3) extension: parallel away from palm 4) flexion 5) opposition: connect thumb to other digits in front of palm

Question 269

CMC joint movement

Answer 269

- for digits 2-5: flex/ex

Question 270

MCP joint movement

Answer 270

- flex/ex - ab/adduction (middle finger considered midline)

Question 271

PIP joint movement

Answer 271

- flex/ex

Question 272

sternoclavicular joint type

Answer 272

- saddle synovial - acts as ball and socket

Question 273

sternoclavicular joint movements

Answer 273

- elevation/depression - anterior/posterior

Question 274

sternoclavicular joint features

Answer 274

1) articular disc: shock absorber from upper limb

Question 275

sternoclavicular joint ligaments

Answer 275

1) anterior/posterior sternoclavicular ligaments: reinforce capsule 2) interclavicular ligament 3) costoclavicular ligament: underside of clavicle

Question 276

acromioclavicular joint type

Answer 276

plane synovial, allows gliding

Question 277

acromioclavicular joint articulation

Answer 277

acromial end of clavicle + acromion of scapula

Question 278

acromioclavicular joint features

Answer 278

- articular disc - muscle fibers of trapezius help support the joint

Question 279

acromioclavicular joint ligaments

Answer 279

1) acromioclavicular ligament: intrinsic 2) coracoclavicular: extrinsic, attaches to underside of clavicle

Question 280

intrinsic vs extrinsic ligament

Answer 280

- intrinsic: part of joint, formed by thickening of joint capsule - extrinsic: not part of joint capsule

Question 281

glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint) type

Answer 281

ball and socket

Question 282

glenohumeral joint articulation

Answer 282

head of humerus (1/3) + glenoid cavity

Question 283

glenohumeral joint features

Answer 283

1) standard joint capsule 2) glenoid labrum: wraps around glenoid cavity, deepening it for more stability (more of head can fit)

Question 284

glenohumeral joint movements

Answer 284

1) flex/ex in sagittal plane 2) abd/add in frontal plane 3) horizonal abd/add in transverse plane 4) medial/lateral rotation in transverse plane

Question 285

glenohumeral joint supporting structures

Answer 285

1) inferior aspect of acromion and coracoid process support joint superiorly 2) rotator cuff muscles/tendons (absent inferiorly! common dislocation = moves inferior, pulled ant/post)

Question 286

glenohumeral joint ligaments

Answer 286

1) coracoacromial ligament: limits superior dislocation 2) intrinsic glenohumeral ligaments 3) coracohumeral ligament: inhibits excessive rotation

Question 287

glenohumeral joint bursae

Answer 287

1) subacromial 2) subdeltoid 3) tendinous sheath *all located in areas of friction

Question 288

glenohumeral joint muscle support

Answer 288

1) rotator cuffs on anterior/posterior 2) tendon of long head of biceps brachii: helps stabilize head of humerus

Question 289

shoulder separation

Answer 289

- acromioclavicular joint separated

Question 290

shoulder dislocation

Answer 290

- glenohumeral joint separated

Question 291

scapulothoracic joint type

Answer 291

- not a true joint! - no bone-bone articulation, instead separated by muscle - no capsule/ligaments

Question 292

scapulothoracic joint function

Answer 292

- enable free range of motion of the upper limb

Question 293

scapulothoracic joint movements

Answer 293

1) elevation/depression 2) retraction (scapula closer together) / protraction (move away from vertebral column 3) upward rotation: glenoid cavity and inferior angle point up, contributes to abduction of UL 4) downward rotation: glenoid cavity and inferior angle down, contributes to adduction of UL

Question 294

scapulothoracic joint supporting muscles

Answer 294

1) subscapularis: between thoracic wall and scapula 2) serratus anterior: wraps around thorax

Question 295

elbow joint type

Answer 295

- compound: more than one articulation - hinge synovial

Question 296

elbow joint articulations

Answer 296

1) humeroulnar: trochlea of humerus + trochlear notch of ulna 2) humeroradial articulation: capitulum of humerus and head of radius 3) proximal radio-ulnar joint: within articular capsule

Question 297

elbow joint movements

Answer 297

flex/ex

Question 298

elbow joint ligaments

Answer 298

1) anular ligament: stabilizes radial head within radial notch of ulna (goes one side of ulna to other) 2) radial collateral ligament: stabilizes lateral aspect 3) ulnar collateral ligament: medial aspect

Question 299

why is anular ligament important in elbow?

Answer 299

- shallow groove - doesn't completely ossify until older = needs more support

Question 300

collateral ligaments

Answer 300

on sides of joints

Question 301

elbow joint bursae

Answer 301

1) olecranon bursa

Question 302

radioulnar joints characteristics

Answer 302

- connected by flat ligament: antebrachial interosseous membrane - articulation of radius and ulna

Question 303

radioulnar joint type

Answer 303

pivot synovial: radius rotates around stationary ulna

Question 304

radioulnar joint movements

Answer 304

1) supination: palm up, radial tuberosity up 2) protonation: palm down, radial tuberosity down

Question 305

radiocarpal (wrist) joint type

Answer 305

condyloid synovial

Question 306

radiocarpal joint articulations

Answer 306

- proximal row of carpals (except pisiform) + distal radius + articular disc

Question 307

radiocarpal joint ligaments

Answer 307

1) anterior/posterior 2) ulnar collateral: stretched during abduction 3) radial collateral: stretched during adduction

Question 308

radiocarpal joint capsule contents

Answer 308

1) distal radioulnar joint 2) intercarpal joints *ulna not included in wrist joint!

Question 309

radiocarpal joint movements

Answer 309

1) flex/ex 2) abd/add

Question 310

how do skeletal muscles produce movement?

Answer 310

work together to pull on bones (cross joint that they move)

Question 311

agonist (prime mover)

Answer 311

muscle that provides major force for producing a movement

Question 312

antagonist

Answer 312

muscle that opposes action of agonist, located on opposite side of joint

Question 313

fixators

Answer 313

when agonists and antagonists contract simultaneously

Question 314

synergists

Answer 314

help agonist by adding extra force to the same movement

Question 315

concentric contraction

Answer 315

muscles shorten under tension

Question 316

origin vs insertion

Answer 316

- origin: attachment point that often stays fixed during muscle contraction, usually proximal - insertion: moves closer to origin during contraction, usually distal

Question 317

muscles that move pectoral girdle location and function

Answer 317

- anterior and posterior thorax - fix scapula to wall of thorax - move pectoral girdle

Question 318

pectoral girdle muscles

Answer 318

1) trapezius 2) levator scapulae 3) rhomboid major/minor

Question 319

trapezius origin

Answer 319

occipital bone, nuchal ligament, spinous processes of C7-T12

Question 320

trapezius insertion

Answer 320

spine of scapula, lateral clavicle, acromion

Question 321

trapezius action

Answer 321

1) upper fibers: elevate scapula 2) middle fibers: retract scapula 3) lower fibers: depress scapula 4) upper and lower: upward rotation of scapula

Question 322

trapezius nerve

Answer 322

accessory nerve (CN XI)

Question 323

levator scapulae and rhomboid locations

Answer 323

deep to trapezius, levator scapulae is superior and lateral to rhomboids

Question 324

levator scapulae and rhomboid origin

Answer 324

C1-T5 mnemonic: 4, 2, 2, 4 C1-C4 (transverse processes: levator scapulae C5-6 skip C7-T1 (spinous processes): rhomboid minor T2-T5 (spinous processes): rhomboid major

Question 325

levator scapulae and rhomboids insertion

Answer 325

- medial border of scapula - levator scapulae above spine, rhomboids below

Question 326

levator scapulae and rhomboid actions

Answer 326

- levator scapulae: elevate and downward rotation of scapula - rhomboids: retract and downward rotation of scapula

Question 327

levator scapulae and rhomboid nerve

Answer 327

dorsal scapular nerve

Question 328

anterior thoracic muscles

Answer 328

1) subclavius 2) pectoralis minor 3) serratus anterior ("boxer's muscle")

Question 329

subclavius origin

Answer 329

side of manubrium

Question 330

subclavius insertion

Answer 330

underside of clavicle

Question 331

subclavius action

Answer 331

stabilize and depress clavicle

Question 332

subclavius nerve

Answer 332

nerve to subclavius

Question 333

serratus anterior origin

Answer 333

ribs 1-8

Question 334

serratus anterior insertion

Answer 334

medial border of scapula (wraps around)

Question 335

serratus anterior action

Answer 335

protraction and upward rotation of scapula

Question 336

serratus anterior nerve

Answer 336

long thoracic nerve

Question 337

pectoralis minor origin

Answer 337

ribs 3-5

Question 338

pectoralis minor insertion

Answer 338

coracoid process

Question 339

pectoralis minor action

Answer 339

stabilize scapula by drawing it inferiorly and anteriorly

Question 340

pectoralis minor nerve

Answer 340

medial pectoral nerve

Question 341

winged scapula

Answer 341

- impaired serratus anterior causes protrusion of scapula when arms raised

Question 342

muscles that move the glenohumeral joint

Answer 342

anterior: 1) pectoralis major posterior: 2) deltoid 3) teres major 4) latissimus dorsi lateral: 5) rotator cuff muscles

Question 343

rotator cuff muscles

Answer 343

1) supraspinatus 2) infraspinatus 3) teres minor 4) subscapularis

Question 344

pectoralis major structure

Answer 344

large, fan-shaped muscle with two "heads": clavicular and sternocostal

Question 345

pectoralis major origin

Answer 345

medial clavicle, sternum, costal cartilages of ribs 1-6

Question 346

pectoralis major insertion

Answer 346

intertubercular sulcus of humerus

Question 347

pectoralis major actions

Answer 347

- clavicular head: flex GH joint - sternocostal head: adduct and medial rotation of GH joint - lower fibers of sternocostal head: extends GH joint from flexed position

Question 348

pectoralis major nerve

Answer 348

medial and lateral pectoral nerves

Question 349

deltoid origin

Answer 349

lateral clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula

Question 350

deltoid insertion

Answer 350

deltoid tuberosity of humerus

Question 351

deltoid actions

Answer 351

- all fibers: abduct GH joint - anterior part: flex and medial rotation of GH joint - posterior part: opposite of anterior = extend and lateral rotation of GH joint

Question 352

deltoid nerve

Answer 352

axillary nerve

Question 353

teres major origin

Answer 353

dorsal region of inferior scapula

Question 354

teres major insertion

Answer 354

intertubercular sulcus of humerus

Question 355

teres major action

Answer 355

adduct and medially rotate GH joint

Question 356

teres major nerve

Answer 356

lower subscapular nerve

Question 357

latissimus dorsi origin

Answer 357

very broad along spine

Question 358

latissimus dorsi insertion

Answer 358

intertubercular sulcus (humerus)

Question 359

latissimus dorsi action

Answer 359

extend, adduct, medially rotate GH joint

Question 360

latissimus dorsi nerve

Answer 360

thoracodorsal nerve

Question 361

intertubercular sulcus muscles (insertions)

Answer 361

P.L.T (lateral to medial) pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major

Question 362

teres major and latissimus dorsi relationship

Answer 362

teres major = synergist to latissimus dorsi

Question 363

rotator cuff muscle function

Answer 363

- rotate humerus - stabilize GH joint

Question 364

rotator cuff muscles

Answer 364

1) supraspinatus 2) infraspinatus 3) teres minor 4) subscapularis

Question 365

subscapularis origin and insertion

Answer 365

origin = subscapular fossa insertion = lesser tubercle

Question 366

subscapularis action

Answer 366

medial rotation

Question 367

subscapularis innervation

Answer 367

upper/lower subscapular nerves

Question 368

supraspinatus origin/insertion

Answer 368

supraspinous fossa, greater tubercle

Question 369

supraspinatus action

Answer 369

abduction (NO rotation!)

Question 370

supraspinatus innervation

Answer 370

suprascapular nerve

Question 371

infraspinatus origin and insertion

Answer 371

infraspinous fossa, greater tubercle

Question 372

infraspinatus action

Answer 372

lateral rotation

Question 373

infraspinatus nerve

Answer 373

suprascapular nerve

Question 374

teres minor origin and insertion

Answer 374

lateral border of scapula, greater tubercle

Question 375

teres minor action

Answer 375

lateral rotation

Question 376

teres minor nerve

Answer 376

axillary nerve

Question 377

rotator cuff anterior/posterior muscles

Answer 377

anterior: supraspinatus, subscapularis posterior: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor

Question 378

axilla location

Answer 378

pyramidal space inferior to GH joint

Question 379

axilla purpose

Answer 379

protective passageway for neurovascular structures

Question 380

axilla apex

Answer 380

clavicle, 1st rib, superior border of scapula

Question 381

axilla lateral wall

Answer 381

intertubercular sulcus

Question 382

axilla medial wall

Answer 382

thoracic wall (some ribs), serratus anterior

Question 383

axilla base

Answer 383

armpit skin + subcutaneous CT

Question 384

axilla anterior wall

Answer 384

pectoralis major, pectoralis minor

Question 385

axilla posterior wall

Answer 385

scapula, subscapularis, teres major, latissimus dorsi

Question 386

axillary contents

Answer 386

1) axillary sheath: nerves and BVs 2) fat: protects sheath 3) lymph nodes: in fat

Question 387

axillary artery

Answer 387

- branches from subclavian artery - begins at lateral border of rib 1 - continues posterior to pectoralis minor - ends at inferior border of teres major

Question 388

axillary artery parts

Answer 388

1) before pec. minor: a) superior thoracic branch 2) under pec. minor: a) thoraco-acromial b) lateral thoracic 3) after pec. minor: a) posterior circumflex b) anterior circumflex c) subscapular: posterior scapula

Question 389

upper arm veins

Answer 389

- deep veins accompany arteries (with same names)

Question 390

posterior/anterior circumflex branch of axillary artery

Answer 390

- around surgical neck - can anastomose with each other

Question 391

brachial plexus parts

Answer 391

1) 5 roots (C5-T1) 2) 3 trunks: superior, middle, inferior 3) 2 divisions: anterior/posterior 4) 3 cords: lateral, posterior, medial 5) 5 terminal branches Really Thirsty Drink Cold Beer

Question 392

terminal branches of brachial plexus

Answer 392

1) musculocutaneous 2) axillary (C5/6 only!) 3) median 4) radial 5) ulnar

Question 393

additional nerves of brachial plexus

Answer 393

1) C5: dorsal scapular 2) superior trunk: suprascapular 3) C5-7: long thoracic 4) lateral cord: lateral pectoral 5) medial cord: medial pectoral 6) posterior cord: upper/lower subscapular 7) posterior cord: thoracodorsal

Question 394

brachial plexus cord naming

Answer 394

named based on relationship to axillary artery

Question 395

brachial plexus drawing

Answer 395

:)

Question 396

where do brachial plexus roots emerge from?

Answer 396

- between anterior and middle scalene muscles

Question 397

axillary nerve location

Answer 397

around surgical neck of humerus

Question 398

arm muscle division

Answer 398

- divided into two compartments by septa

Question 399

upper arm transverse section

Answer 399

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with superficial veins 3) brachial fascia 4) lateral and medial intermuscular septa 5) muscles 6) humerus

Question 400

anterior compartment arm muscles

Answer 400

1) biceps brachii 2) coracobrachialis 3) brachialis

Question 401

anterior compartment arm muscles nerve

Answer 401

musculocutaneous nerve

Question 402

posterior compartment arm muscles

Answer 402

1) triceps brachii 2) anconeus

Question 403

posterior compartment arm muscles nerve

Answer 403

radial nerve

Question 404

biceps brachii origin

Answer 404

- long head: supraglenoid tubercle - short head: coracoid process

Question 405

biceps brachii heads

Answer 405

lateral long head, medial short head

Question 406

biceps brachii insertion

Answer 406

- radial tuberosity and forearm fascia - via bicipital aponeurosis

Question 407

biceps brachii action

Answer 407

- elbow flexion - radioulnar supination (when elbow flexed) - GH flexion (synergist)

Question 408

coracobrachialis origin and insertion

Answer 408

coracoid process, middle 1/3 of humerus

Question 409

coracobrachialis action

Answer 409

GH joint flexion

Question 410

brachialis origin and insertion

Answer 410

distal anterior surface of humerus, ulnar tuberosity

Question 411

brachialis location

Answer 411

deep to biceps brachii

Question 412

brachialis action

Answer 412

elbow flexion

Question 413

musculocutaneous nerve location

Answer 413

- pierces coracobrachialis - continues distally between biceps brachii and brachialis

Question 414

proximal biceps brachii rupture

Answer 414

tendon comes off radial tuberosity leading to the popeye sign

Question 415

triceps head orientation

Answer 415

long and lateral heads superficial to medial

Question 416

triceps brachii origin

Answer 416

- long: infraglenoid tubercle - lateral: posterior surface of humerus ABOVE radial groove - medial: posterior surface of humerus BELOW radial groove

Question 417

triceps brachii insertion

Answer 417

olecranon process

Question 418

triceps action

Answer 418

- extension of elbow - long head = extension at GH joint

Question 419

anconeus action

Answer 419

synergist to triceps brachii elbow movement and stabilizer

Question 420

radial nerve location

Answer 420

- in radial groove - pierces lateral intermuscular septum - continues distally in anterior compartment of arm

Question 421

upper arm blood supply

Answer 421

1) brachial artery branches from axillary, runs along anterior surface of arm 2) deep brachial artery branches from brachial, runs in radial groove going posterior 3) collateral branches: from brachial artery 4) recurrent arteries: form arterial anastomoses around elbow 3/4: collateral flow ensures blood flow in different joint positions

Question 422

cubital fossa borders

Answer 422

1) superior: imaginary line between lateral and medial epicondyles 2) lateral: medial border or brachioradialis 3) medial: lateral border of pronator teres

Question 423

cubital fossa contents

Answer 423

lateral to medial: biceps brachii tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

Question 424

forearm muscles function

Answer 424

move hand at wrist and/or joints of fingers

Question 425

forearm muscle transverse section

Answer 425

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with superficial veins 3) antebrachial fascia: creates anterior/posterior compartment 4) radius + ulna: connected by interosseous membrane

Question 426

anterior forearm muscle layers

Answer 426

1) superficial 2) intermediate 3) deep

Question 427

anterior forearm common origin

Answer 427

superficial and intermediate muscles share common flexor tendon at medial epicondyle

Question 428

anterior forearm nerve

Answer 428

mostly median, with some exceptions

Question 429

anterior forearm superficial layer muscles and actions

Answer 429

1) pronator teres: protonation 2) flexor carpi radialis: major wrist flexor, abduction 3) palmaris longus: weak wrist flexor 4) flexor carpi ulnaris: major wrist flexor, adduction

Question 430

flexor retinaculum

Answer 430

- anchors tendons of FCR/FCU - palmaris longus tendon lies overtop

Question 431

what is unique about palmaris longus?

Answer 431

- vestigial - not every wrist has one

Question 432

anterior forearm intermediate layer muscles and actions

Answer 432

1) flexor digitorum superficialis: flexes metacarpophalangeal joint and proximal interphalangeal joints of 2-5, some wrist flexion

Question 433

flexor digitorum superficialis tendons

Answer 433

- spilt at MCP to leave room for flexor digitorum profundus tendon

Question 434

anterior forearm deep layer muscles and actions

Answer 434

1) flexor digitorum profundus: flex MCP/PIP/DIP of 2-5 2) pronator quadratus: protonation 3) flexor pollicis longus: flex MCP/IP of thumb

Question 435

anterior forearm innervation exceptions

Answer 435

ulnar nerve = flexor carpi ulnaris and medial (vs lateral) half of FDP

Question 436

median nerve location

Answer 436

- descends between FDS and FDP - continues into hand to innervate thenar muscles

Question 437

ulnar nerve location

Answer 437

- posterior to medial epicondyle - descends between FCU and FDP - continues into hand to innervate intrinsic hand msucles

Question 438

carpal tunnel location

Answer 438

- between carpal bones (CT and synovial membrane) and flexor retinaculum

Question 439

carpal tunnel contents

Answer 439

- long flexor tendons of FDS (4), FDP (4) and FPL (1) - median nerve

Question 440

carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer 440

- compression of median nerve - ex. build up of synovial fluid due to inflammation - chronic = muscle atrophy

Question 441

posterior forearm muscle layers

Answer 441

1) superficial 2) deep

Question 442

posterior forearm common origin

Answer 442

many attach on common extensor tendon on lateral epicondyle

Question 443

posterior forearm common nerve

Answer 443

radial nerve and deep branch of radial nerve

Question 444

extensor retinaculum

Answer 444

- covers tendons of posterior forearm muscles

Question 445

posterior forearm superficial layer muscles and actions

Answer 445

1) brachioradialis: elbow flexion 2) extensor carpi radialis longus: main wrist extension, abduction 3) extensor carpi radialis brevis: main wrist extension, abduction 4) extensor digitorum: digits extension (primarily MCP, secondarily IP of 2-5) 5) extensor digiti minimi: extends fifth digit 6) extensor carpi ulnaris: main wrist extension, adduction

Question 446

what is special about brachioradialis?

Answer 446

- can be seen from both anterior and posterior - transition between compartments

Question 447

ECRlongus vs ECRbrevis?

Answer 447

longus starts above lateral epicondyle

Question 448

extensor digitorum tendons pass under…

Answer 448

- pass under extensor retinaculum

Question 449

extensor digitorum origin and insertion

Answer 449

common extension origin, extensor expansions of medial 4 digits

Question 450

extensor digitorum intertendinous connections

Answer 450

- variable in people - restrict independent extension of digits

Question 451

posterior forearm deep layer function

Answer 451

- act on pollex and index finger - except supinator

Question 452

posterior forearm deep layer common nerve

Answer 452

deep branch of radial nerve

Question 453

posterior forearm deep layer muscles

Answer 453

1) abductor pollicis longus: I = lateral aspect of thumb 2) extensor pollicis brevis 3) extensor pollicis longus 4) extensor indicis 5) supinator: supinate proximal radioulnar joint (works with biceps brachii) *only supinator attaches to lat. epicondyle

Question 454

radial nerve location entire arm

Answer 454

- perforates lateral intermuscular septum of arm: runs with radial groove with deep brachial artery - enters cubital fossa between brachioradialis and brachialis

Question 455

radial nerve branches

Answer 455

1) deep branch: pierces supinator, continues along interosseous membrane 2) superficial branch: cutaneous nerves, descends deep to brachioradialis

Question 456

blood supply of entire arm

Answer 456

1) subclavian 2) axillary a) brachial artery: anterior compartment, divides in cubital region into radial/ulnar b) deep brachial artery: runs posterior 4) collateral branching/anastomoses 5) radial artery 6) ulnar artery: three branches a) common interosseous divides into: b) anterior interosseous c) posterior interosseous 7) deep and superficial palmar arches in hand: anastomoses

Question 457

radial artery location forearm

Answer 457

- descends deep to brachioradialis - winds around lateral wrist (goes posterior) in anatomical snuff box

Question 458

ulnar artery location

Answer 458

- descends deep to pronator teres

Question 459

forearm veins

Answer 459

deep veins accompany arteries, have same names

Question 460

superficial veins location

Answer 460

run subcutaneously in superficial fascia

Question 461

superficial veins function

Answer 461

venous return, temperature regulation

Question 462

superficial veins in arm

Answer 462

1) axillary vein 2) cephalic vein: from back of hand to axillary 3) basilic vein: medial side, from palm to axillary 4) median cubital vein: joins 2/3, common site for cannulation

Question 463

cannulation

Answer 463

inserting a cannula, a small tube, into a vein, artery, or other body cavity to provide access for fluids, medications, or blood sampling

Question 464

anatomical snuff box borders

Answer 464

1) floor: scaphoid and trapezium 2) lateral: tendons of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus 3) medial: tendon of extensor pollicis longus

Question 465

anatomical snuff box contents

Answer 465

- branch of radial nerve - radial artery - cephalic vein

Question 466

lower limb bone functional division

Answer 466

1) pelvic girdle 2) bones of free lower limb

Question 467

lower limb bone articulations

Answer 467

primarily diarthroses and synovial joints

Question 468

lower limb bones structural division

Answer 468

1) thigh: hip to knee 2) leg: knee to ankle 3) foot: below ankle

Question 469

acetabulum features

Answer 469

1) lunate surface: smooth, where head of femur articulates 2) acetabular fossa: bony depression filled with fat 3) acetabular notch

Question 470

sacrospinous ligament

Answer 470

- attaches from sacrum to ischial spine - creates foramina: greater/lesser sciatic foramen

Question 471

femur structures

Answer 471

1) head 2) neck 3) greater trochanter: lateral 4) lesser trochanter: medial 5) lateral/medial epicondyle 6) lateral/medial condyle 7) adductor tubercle anterior only: 1) intertrochanteric line posterior only: 1) intertrochanteric crest: more prominent than line 2) gluteal tuberosity 3) linea aspera 4) intercondylar fossa

Question 472

largest bone in the body?

Answer 472

femur

Question 473

patella bone type

Answer 473

sesamoid: within tendons

Question 474

patella location

Answer 474

within quadriceps femoris tendon: convergence of quadriceps muscles

Question 475

patella in babies

Answer 475

not fully ossified

Question 476

patella function

Answer 476

- protect knee joint - allow quadriceps femoris tendon to glide smoothly over joint: maximises movement

Question 477

patella structure

Answer 477

- rough anterior: tendon attachment - smooth posterior: articular cartilage with femur - base - anterior apex - posterior facets

Question 478

why is tibia bigger than fibula?

Answer 478

tibia bears all the weight when standing

Question 479

fibula purpose?

Answer 479

muscle attachment and forms part of ankle joint

Question 480

tibia superior view

Answer 480

1) flat articular surfaces of condyles 2) intercondylar eminences 3) can see tibial tuberosity on anterior side

Question 481

tibia and fibula inferior view

Answer 481

1) lateral/medial malleolus 2) fibular notch 3) inferior articular surface

Question 482

tibia features

Answer 482

1) lateral tibial condyle 2) medial tibial condyle 3) tibial tuberosity: large, rough, for quadriceps femoris muscles 4) medial malleolus

Question 483

fibula features

Answer 483

1) head 2) neck 3) lateral malleolus

Question 484

tibia and fibula relative anatomy

Answer 484

- tibia medial side - connected by interosseous membrane

Question 485

foot purpose

Answer 485

- support body weight - act as lever to propel body forward in walking and running

Question 486

foot bone divisions

Answer 486

7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges

Question 487

foot tarsals

Answer 487

medial to lateral, proximal to distal 1) talus: on top of... 2) calcaneus: heel bone 3) navicular 4) cuboid 5) medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform

Question 488

calcaneus features

Answer 488

1) calcaneal tuberosity: connects to calcaneal (Achilles) tendon 2) sustentaculum tali: holds up talus

Question 489

talus features

Answer 489

1) trochlea: articulates with mallei 2) head: articulates with navicular

Question 490

foot metatarsals

Answer 490

numbered big to small toe

Question 491

foot phalanges

Answer 491

- only two for big toe - others have proximal, middle and distal - all long bones

Question 492

foot arches

Answer 492

1) medial and lateral longitudinal arches 2) transverse arch

Question 493

foot medial longitudinal arch

Answer 493

in most people 1) metatarsals 1-3 2) cuneiforms 3) navicular 4) talus 5) calcaneus

Question 494

foot lateral longitudinal arch

Answer 494

typically not as prominent as medial 1) calcaneus 2) cuboid 3) metatarsals 4-5

Question 495

foot transverse arch

Answer 495

1) bases of metatarsals 1-5 2) cuboid 3) cuneiforms 4) muscle tendons

Question 496

support of foot arches

Answer 496

1) shape of bones 2) ligaments: spring, long/short plantar ligaments 3) intrinsic foot muscles and muscle tendons 4) plantar aponeurosis

Question 497

pes planus

Answer 497

- flat feet - medial longitudinal arch affected - causes: bone development, ligament/muscle injury, excess weight

Question 498

ankle (talocrural) joint type

Answer 498

hinge synovial: thin joint capsule reinforced by collateral ligaments

Question 499

ankle joint articulation

Answer 499

- malleoli of tibia and fibula form mortise (deep socket): articulates with trochlea of talus

Question 500

ankle joint movements

Answer 500

1) dorsiflexion: flex foot 2) plantarflexion: point foot

Question 501

why is dorsiflexion more stable?

Answer 501

- trochlea widest anteriorly - fits between trochlea and mortise tightest and with more articulation

Question 502

ankle joint ligaments

Answer 502

1) anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments: reinforce mortise 2) lateral ligament of ankle: three bands that stabilize ankle during inversion a) anterior talofibular ligament b) calcaneofibular ligament c) posterior talofibular ligament 3) medial (deltoid) ligament: stabilizes ankle during eversion

Question 503

subtalar tarsal joint

Answer 503

plane synovial joint between talus and calcaneus

Question 504

transverse tarsal joint

Answer 504

plane synovial joint between talus and navicular

Question 505

subtalar and transverse tarsal joint movements

Answer 505

1) eversion: sole away from body 2) inversion: sole towards body

Question 506

sacroiliac joints type

Answer 506

compound joint: 1) synovial plane: auricular surfaces of ilium and sacrum 2) syndesmosis: connected by fibrous CT

Question 507

sacroiliac joint characteristics

Answer 507

- connects axial skeleton and inferior appendicular skeleton - strong, weight-bearing - limited mobility

Question 508

sacroiliac joint intrinsic ligaments

Answer 508

1) anterior sacroiliac 2) posterior sacroiliac 3) interosseous sacroiliac (many)

Question 509

sacroiliac joint extrinsic ligaments

Answer 509

1) sacrospinous: sacrum to ischial spine 2) sacrotuberous: sacrum to ischial tuberosity

Question 510

sacroiliac joint extrinsic ligament function

Answer 510

- prevent excess anterior rotation of pelvis - weight of body passes anterior to axis of rotation of sacroiliac joint

Question 511

hip joint type

Answer 511

ball and socket synovial

Question 512

hip joint articulation

Answer 512

head of femur + lunate surface of acetabulum

Question 513

hip joint supporting structures

Answer 513

1) fat pad 2) transverse acetabular ligament: spans acetabular notch, merges with... 3) acetabular labrum: around acetabulum, extend depth of articulation (2/3 sphere) 4) joint capsule 5) ligament of femoral head: not as important for stability, but makes path for BV

Question 514

hip joint movements

Answer 514

1) flex/ex 2) abd/ad 3) medial/lateral rotation

Question 515

hip joint intrinsic ligaments

Answer 515

- all spiral anteriorly and become taut during extension 1) iliofemoral: ilium to femur (intertrochanteric line), strongest ligament in the body 2) pubofemoral: limits overabduction 3) ischiofemoral

Question 516

knee joint type

Answer 516

modified hinge synovial joint

Question 517

knee joint articulations

Answer 517

1) femorotibial: condyles of femur + tibia 2) femoropatellar: facets of patella + condyles of femur

Question 518

lateral and medial meniscii

Answer 518

- between femorotibial articulations - stabilize, increase articulation and absorb shock

Question 519

knee joint actions

Answer 519

flex/ex and slight rotation (two axes)

Question 520

knee joint ligaments

Answer 520

1) fibular (lateral) collateral 2) tibial (medial) collateral 3) posterior cruciate ligament 4) anterior cruciate ligament 5) patellar ligament and tendon (quadriceps)

Question 521

fibular collateral ligament

Answer 521

- stability during extension - separate from meniscus

Question 522

tibial collateral ligament

Answer 522

- stability during extension - direct attachment to meniscus

Question 523

posterior cruciate ligament

Answer 523

- from posterior tibia - prevents anterior sliding of femur on tibia, especially during flexion

Question 524

anterior cruciate ligament

Answer 524

- from anterior tibia -prevents posterior sliding (hyperextension)

Question 525

testing for cruciate ligament tears

Answer 525

1) anterior drawer sign: pull anteriorly for ACL 2) posterior drawer sign: push posteriorly for PCL

Question 526

muscle groups that move hip joint

Answer 526

1) gluteal 2) lateral rotators 3) iliopsoas 4) adductors

Question 527

gluteal muscles

Answer 527

1) gluteus maximus, partially layered over... 2) gluteus medius: slightly lateral 3) gluteus minimis: deep to all, slightly lateral 4) tensor fasciae latae (TFL): lateral

Question 528

gluteus maximus origin and insertion

Answer 528

O: iliac crest, sacrum, coccyx I: gluteal tuberosity and posterior iliotibial tract

Question 529

gluteus maximus nerve

Answer 529

inferior gluteal nerve

Question 530

gluteus maximus action

Answer 530

extension and lateral rotation of hip joint

Question 531

gluteus medius/minimis nerve

Answer 531

superior gluteal

Question 532

gluteus medius/minimis action

Answer 532

abduction, medial rotation of hip joint

Question 533

gluteus medius/minims origin and insertion

Answer 533

O: external ilium I: greater trochanter

Question 534

tensor fasciae latae action

Answer 534

- tense iliotibial tract (anterior) - assist with flexion, abduction and medial rotation of hip joint

Question 535

tensor fasciae nerve

Answer 535

superior gluteal

Question 536

muscles during single leg stance

Answer 536

- abductors on opposite side of lifted leg contract - keeps pelvis level by counteracting force of gravity

Question 537

trendelenburg gait

Answer 537

- compromised abductors - pelvis drops to contralateral side during single leg stance

Question 538

lateral rotator muscles

Answer 538

1) piriformis 2) superior gemellus 3) obturator internus 4) inferior gemellus 5) obturator externus 6) quadratus femoris P-GO-GO-Q

Question 539

lateral rotators general origin and insertion

Answer 539

pelvis to greater trochanter

Question 540

lateral rotators action

Answer 540

- lateral rotation of extended hip joint - abduct flexed hip joint - stabilize hip by pulling head of femur into acetabulum

Question 541

lateral rotators location

Answer 541

- run horizontally posterior to hip joint - under gluteus maximus - inferior to gluteus medius and minimis

Question 542

lateral rotators nerve

Answer 542

branches from lumbosacral plexus

Question 543

lateral rotators along sciatic notches

Answer 543

- greater: piriformis - lesser: obturator internus

Question 544

obturator internus vs externus

Answer 544

- both cover obturator foramen - externus = external aspect, internus = internal

Question 545

sciatic nerve location

Answer 545

emerges below piriformis

Question 546

iliopsoas parts

Answer 546

- composite muscle: psoas major and iliacus - merge beneath inguinal ligament

Question 547

psoas major origin

Answer 547

lumbar vertebrae

Question 548

iliacus origin

Answer 548

iliac fossa

Question 549

iliopsoas common insertion

Answer 549

lesser trochanter

Question 550

psoas major nerve

Answer 550

branches of lumbar plexus

Question 551

iliacus nerve

Answer 551

femoral

Question 552

iliopsoas action

Answer 552

hip flexors

Question 553

adductor muscles

Answer 553

1) pectineus: same plane as... 2) adductor longus 3) adductor brevis: deep to 1) 4) adductor magnus: adductor and hamstring, deep to 1-3 5) gracilis: also crosses posterior knee

Question 554

adductor muscles common origin

Answer 554

external pubis

Question 555

adductor muscles common insertion

Answer 555

linea aspera, except gracilis = anterior tibia

Question 556

adductor muscles common nerve

Answer 556

obturator nerve, except hamstring of adductor magnus by tibial division of sciatic nerve

Question 557

adductor muscles common action

Answer 557

hip adduction, except gracilis also does knee flexion

Question 558

adductor hiatus

Answer 558

gap in adductor magnus where BVs pass through

Question 559

parts of adductor magnus

Answer 559

- anterior adductor part - posterior hamstring part, connected to sacrotuberous ligament

Question 560

lumbar plexus rami

Answer 560

anterior rami of L1-L4

Question 561

lumbar plexus location

Answer 561

formed within psoas major and innervates it

Question 562

lumbar plexus end nerves

Answer 562

abdominal wall: 1) iliohypogastric nerve: L1 2) ilioinguinal nerve: L1 lumbar region: 3) obturator nerve: L2-L4 4) femoral nerve: L2-L4

Question 563

obturator nerve location

Answer 563

- enters medial compartment of thigh via obturator canal: gap of obturator foramen - accompanied by obturator vessels

Question 564

femoral nerve location

Answer 564

- passes deep to inguinal ligament into anterior thigh - accompanied by femoral vessels

Question 565

sacral plexus rami

Answer 565

- anterior rami of L4-S4

Question 566

sacral plexus nerves

Answer 566

1) lumbosacral trunk: L4-S5 sacral part: 2) superior gluteal nerve: L4-S1 3) inferior gluteal nerve: L5-S2 4) sciatic nerve: L4-S3

Question 567

superior gluteal nerve location

Answer 567

- passes through greater sciatic foramen SUPERIOR to piriformis - accompanied by superior gluteal vessels

Question 568

inferior gluteal nerve location

Answer 568

- passes through greater sciatic foramen INFERIOR to piriformis - accompanied by inferior gluteal vessels

Question 569

sciatic nerve location

Answer 569

- passes through greater sciatic foramen INFERIOR to piriformis - goes to posterior thigh - consists of tibial and common fibular divisions

Question 570

thigh blood supply

Answer 570

1) aorta 2) common iliac arteries: a) internal iliac artery: gives rise to superior/inferior gluteal arteries and obturator artery b) external iliac artery: becomes 3) below inguinal ligament 3) femoral artery: becomes 4) deep femoral artery: chief artery, gives rise to medial and lateral femoral circumflex and perforating branches *deep veins accompany arteries

Question 571

thigh cross section

Answer 571

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with veins 3) fascia lata 4) anterior, medial and posterior compartments 5) femur

Question 572

anterior thigh muscles

Answer 572

1) sartorius 2) quadriceps femoris: a) rectus femoris b) vastus lateralis c) vastus medialis d) vastus intermedius

Question 573

anterior thigh common action

Answer 573

knee extension (except sartorius)

Question 574

anterior thigh common nerve

Answer 574

femoral

Question 575

iliotibial tract formed by...

Answer 575

thickening of fascia lata + muscles (gluteus maximus)

Question 576

sartorius origin and insertion

Answer 576

anterior superior iliac spine, medial tibia

Question 577

sartorius actions

Answer 577

1) hip flexion, abduction and lateral rotation 2) knee flexion

Question 578

quadriceps muscle origins

Answer 578

1) rectus femoris: anterior inferior iliac spine 2) vastus lateralis: greater trochanter 3) medialis: femur 4) intermedius: femur

Question 579

quadriceps muscles common insertion

Answer 579

- over patella --> patellar ligament --> tibial tuberosity

Question 580

quadriceps muscles arrangment

Answer 580

- rectus femoris most superficial - intermedius deep to RF - lateralis = lateral, medialis = medial, goes a little more distal

Question 581

quadriceps muscles actions

Answer 581

- all extend knee joint - rectus femoris can also flex hip

Question 582

which quadriceps muscles stabilize knee joint?

Answer 582

all, but especially inferior fibers of vastus medialis and lateralis

Question 583

femoral triangle location

Answer 583

- subfascial space in anterosuperior 1/3 of thigh

Question 584

femoral triangle boundaries

Answer 584

1) floor (deep): iliopsoas and pectineus 2) roof (more superficial): fascia lata, subcutaneous tissue, skin 3) superior: inguinal ligament 4) medial: adductor longus 5) lateral: sartorius

Question 585

femoral triangle contents

Answer 585

NAVL lateral to medial: Nerve femoral Artery femoral Vein Lymphatics

Question 586

femoral canal

Answer 586

- in femoral triangle - formed by femoral sheath - contain artery, vein and lymphatics

Question 587

groin injuries

Answer 587

- strain, stretch or tear of proximal attachments of anteromedial thigh muscles - often occur in sports with quick starts, ex. sprints

Question 588

posterior thigh muscles (hamstring muscles)

Answer 588

1) biceps femoris 2) semimembranosus 3) semitendinosus

Question 589

posterior thigh common origin

Answer 589

ischial tuberosity, except short head of biceps femoris = linea aspera

Question 590

posterior thigh common action

Answer 590

1) hip extension (except short head) 2) knee flexion

Question 591

posterior thigh common nerve

Answer 591

tibial division of sciatic, except short head = common fibular division

Question 592

biceps femoris insertion

Answer 592

fibula

Question 593

semimembranosus characteristics

Answer 593

deep to semitendinosus, ligament broadens distally

Question 594

biceps femoris heads

Answer 594

medial long, lateral short (under iliotibial tract)

Question 595

semimembranosus insertion

Answer 595

medial condyle of tibia

Question 596

semitendinosus characteristics

Answer 596

- ends in long, thin tendon - more superficial than semimembranosus

Question 597

semitendinosus insertion

Answer 597

medial tibia

Question 598

pes anserinus components

Answer 598

conjoined tendon of: 1) sartorius 2) gracillis 3) semitendinous

Question 599

pes anserinus location

Answer 599

anteromedial side of proximal tibia

Question 600

pes anserinus function

Answer 600

reinforce medial aspect of knee joint

Question 601

femoral artery location

Answer 601

- passes through femoral triangle and adductor canal - supplies anterior thigh compartment

Question 602

deep femoral artery location

Answer 602

- passes deep between pectineus and adductor longus - supplies posterior thigh compartment

Question 603

adductor hiatus close arteries

Answer 603

- femoral artery passes posterior here to become popliteal artery - part of abductor magnus

Question 604

popliteal artery location

Answer 604

- ends at inferior border of popliteus - branches around knee

Question 605

popliteal fossa location

Answer 605

- fat-filled, diamond shaped space posterior to knee joint

Question 606

popliteal fossa boundaries

Answer 606

1) roof (superficial: skin, popliteal fascia 2) floor: femur, knee joint capsule, fascia of popliteus 3) medial: semimembranosus superior to medial head of gastrocnemius 4) lateral: biceps femoris, lateral head of gastrocnemius

Question 607

leg transverse section

Answer 607

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with veins 3) crural fascia: forms anterior, posterior and transverse intermuscular septae 4) 3 compartments a) anterior: interosseus membrane and anterior septum b) medial: anterior/posterior septa c) posterior: interosseus membrane and posterior septum, transverse separates deep from superficial)

Question 608

leg retinaculae

Answer 608

- thickening of fascia at distal leg - hold muscle tendons in place as they cross ankle joint - ex. inferior extensor retinaculum

Question 609

common action of leg tendons

Answer 609

tendons passing: 1) posterior to ankle = plantarflexion 2) anterior to ankle = dorsiflexion 3) dorsal toes: extension 4) plantar toes: flexion tendons attaching to: 1) medial foot: inversion 2) lateral foot: eversion

Question 610

anterior leg muscles

Answer 610

1) tibialis anterior 2) extensor digitorum longus 3) extensor hallucis longus 4) fibularis tertius 1-3 superficial to deep

Question 611

tibialis anterior origin and insertion

Answer 611

lateral condyle of tibia, medial side of foot (medial cuneiform + metatarsal 1 base)

Question 612

tibialis anterior actions

Answer 612

inversion + dorsiflexion of foot

Question 613

extensor digitorum longus origin/insertion

Answer 613

lateral condyle of tibia, dorsal aspect of digits 2-5

Question 614

extensor digitorum longus action

Answer 614

dorsiflexion, extension of toes 2-5

Question 615

extensor hallucis longus origin and insertion

Answer 615

medial fibula to dorsal digit 1

Question 616

big toe anatomical name

Answer 616

hallux

Question 617

extensor hallucis longus action

Answer 617

hallux extension, dorsiflexion

Question 618

fibularis tertius origin and insertion

Answer 618

inferior/anterior fibula, dorsal digit 5

Question 619

fibularis tertius action

Answer 619

dorsiflexion, eversion of foot

Question 620

anterior leg muscles common nerve

Answer 620

deep fibular

Question 621

lateral leg muscles

Answer 621

1) fibularis longus 2) fibularis brevis (deep)

Question 622

fibularis longus origin and insertion

Answer 622

head of fibula, plantar surface of foot (crosses from lateral to medial side)

Question 623

fibularis brevis origin and insertion

Answer 623

lateral fibula, base of 5th metatarsal

Question 624

fibularis longus/brevis action

Answer 624

eversion, plantarflexion of foot

Question 625

fibularis longus/brevis nerve

Answer 625

superficial fibular

Question 626

foot drop

Answer 626

- foot drags instead of anterior part lifting - compromised deep fibular nerve

Question 627

posterior leg compartments

Answer 627

1) superficial 2) deep

Question 628

superficial posterior leg muscles

Answer 628

1) gastrocnemius 2) soleus 3) plantaris superficial to deep: 1, 3, 2

Question 629

gastrocnemius origin

Answer 629

medial and lateral femoral condyles (2 heads)

Question 630

soleus origin

Answer 630

posterior, proximal tibia and fibular head

Question 631

plantaris origin

Answer 631

above lateral femoral condyle

Question 632

superficial posterior leg muscles common insertion

Answer 632

calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (Achilles)

Question 633

superficial posterior leg muscles common action

Answer 633

plantar flexion

Question 634

superficial posterior leg muscles additional actions

Answer 634

gastrocnemius flexes knee, plantaris weakly assists

Question 635

superficial posterior leg muscles common nerve

Answer 635

tibial nerve

Question 636

flexor retinaculum of foot

Answer 636

- supports tendons of deep posterior leg muscles - medial malleolus to calcaneus - reinforced by transverse intermuscular septum

Question 637

posterior leg deep compartment

Answer 637

1) flexor digitorum longus 2) flexor hallucis longus 3) tibialis posterior 4) popliteus

Question 638

deep posterior leg muscles tendons organization

Answer 638

superior/medial 1) tibialis posterior 2) flexor digitorum longus 3) flexor hallucis longus inferior/lateral Tom, Dick, Harry

Question 639

flexor digitorum longus origin/insertion

Answer 639

posterior tibia, bases of distal phalanges 2-5

Question 640

flexor digitorum longus action

Answer 640

flexes digits 2-5

Question 641

flexor hallucis longus origin/insertion

Answer 641

inferior/posterior fibula, base of distal phalanx 1

Question 642

flexor hallucis longus action

Answer 642

flexes hallux

Question 643

tibialis posterior origin/insertion

Answer 643

origin = interosseous membrane, posterior tibia and fibula insertion = navicular, cuneiforms, cuboid, calcaneus (sustentaculum tali), bases of metatarsals 2-4

Question 644

tibialis posterior action

Answer 644

inversion, plantarflexion, support medial longitudinal arch

Question 645

popliteus characteristics

Answer 645

triangle-shaped, forms floor of popliteal fossa

Question 646

popliteus origin and insertion

Answer 646

origin = lateral condyle of femur, lateral meniscus insertion = posterior proximal tibia

Question 647

popliteus action

Answer 647

unlocks knee by rotating femur slightly to enable knee flexion

Question 648

posterior deep leg muscles common action

Answer 648

plantarflexion, except popliteus

Question 649

posterior deep leg muscles common nerve

Answer 649

tibial

Question 650

lower leg innervation

Answer 650

1) sciatic nerve branches into: 2a) common fibular nerve: branches into 3a) superficial fibular nerve: lateral compartment 3b) deep fibular nerve: anterior compartment 2b) tibial nerve: posterior compartment with tibialis posterior, branches into 3c) medial and lateral plantar nerves

Question 651

leg arteries

Answer 651

1) (superficial) femoral artery 2) popliteal artery branches into 3a) anterior tibial artery: anterior compartment, also supplies lateral 4a) dorsalis pedis artery after extensor retinaculum 3b) posterior tibial artery: posterior compartment, also lateral, branches: 4b) fibular artery: posterior leg, near posterior septum 4c) medial and lateral plantar arteries after flexor retinaculum

Question 652

leg deep veins

Answer 652

accompany arteries with same name

Question 653

leg superficial veins

Answer 653

1) femoral vein medial side: 2) dorsal venous arch empties into... 3) great saphenous vein, empties into 1) posterior side: 4) small saphenous vein empties into popliteal vein

Question 654

intrinsic back muscles location

Answer 654

- deepest muscles - enclosed in deep fascia

Question 655

intrinsic back muscles general purpose

Answer 655

movement and maintain posture of vertebral column

Question 656

intrinsic back muscles common origin

Answer 656

- tendinous connection from posterior iliac crest, sacrum and spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae - insert above

Question 657

intrinsic back muscles common nerve

Answer 657

posterior rami of spinal nerves

Question 658

nuchal ligament

Answer 658

from external occipital protuberance to C7 (spinous processes)

Question 659

supraspinous ligament

Answer 659

thoracic vertebrae and below until median sacral crest

Question 660

intrinsic back muscles layers

Answer 660

1) superficial: splenius 2) intermediate: 3x erector spinae 3) deep: transversospinalis muscle group

Question 661

intrinsic back muscles bilateral contraction

Answer 661

extension of head and vertebral column

Question 662

intrinsic back muscles division

Answer 662

divided into parts: capitis, cervicis, thoracis, lumborum

Question 663

splenius parts

Answer 663

1) capitis 2) cervicis

Question 664

splenius location

Answer 664

- deep to trapezius - fibers run superolaterally to cervical vertebrae and cranium (V shape)

Question 665

splenius origin

Answer 665

nucheal ligament

Question 666

splenius unilateral contraction

Answer 666

ipsilateral head rotation and neck lateral flexion

Question 667

erector spinae location

Answer 667

- column of muscles from sacrum to skull - between spinous processes and angle of ribs

Question 668

erector spinae origin

Answer 668

- tendinous connection from posterior iliac crest, sacrum and spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae

Question 669

erector spinae muscles

Answer 669

lateral (longer) 1) iliocostalis 2) longissimus 3) spinalis medial (shorter) I Like Standing

Question 670

erector spinae unilateral contraction

Answer 670

ipsilateral: 1) lateral flexion of VC 2) head rotation 3) spine rotation

Question 671

iliocostalis insertion

Answer 671

transverse processes of cervical vertebrae

Question 672

longissimus insertion

Answer 672

- ribs - transverse processes of thoracic/cervical vertebrae - temporal bone mastoid process

Question 673

spinalis insertion

Answer 673

spinous processes of upper thoracic vertebrae + skull

Question 674

transversospinalis group location

Answer 674

deep to erector spinae, fibers run superomedially (A shape)

Question 675

transversospinalis muscle groups

Answer 675

1) semispinalis: capitis, cervitis, lumborum 2) short muscles that extend from 1 vertebrae to the next

Question 676

transversospinalis group unilateral contraction

Answer 676

contralateral head and VC rotation