Lab Exam 2

Question 1

structural division of respiratory system

Answer 1

1) upper: nasal cavity, nose, pharynx, larynx
2) lower: trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

Question 2

functional division of respiratory system

Answer 2

1) conducting: nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, terminal bronchioles
2) respiratory: respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

Question 3

conducting portion features

Answer 3

• lined by respiratory mucosa
• function: filter, warm and moisten air

Question 4

respiratory mucosa

Answer 4

1) pseudostratified ciliated (motile to sweep mucus and trapped contaminants towards pharynx for swallowing or expulsion) columnar epithelium with goblet cells (produce mucus) + stem cells
2) lamina propria: loose CT with BVs to warm air + mucous glands

Question 5

respiratory portion features

Answer 5

• respiratory bronchiole branches from terminal bronchiole, then into alveolar ducts that lead into alveolar sac (made up of alveoli)
• function: where gas exchange takes place

Question 6

nasal cavity features

Answer 6

• extends anteriorly from nares (nostrils) to choanae posteriorly (continuous with nasopharynx)
• functions: conduct air, filter/warm/humidify air, sense odorants

Question 7

nasal septum

Answer 7

• divides nose into left and right parts
• formed by perpendicular plate of ethmoid and vomer

Question 8

nasal cavity subdivision

Answer 8

• superior, middle and inferior conchae separate cavity into air passages (meatuses)
• curved shape keeps air in cavity for longer (swirling around)
• sinuses also connect with nasal cavity
• everything surrounded by mucosa

Question 9

lateral wall of nasal cavity

Answer 9

• superior and middle nasal conchae (ethmoid)
• lacrimal bone
• inferior nasal concha
• maxilla
• perpendicular plate of palatine

Question 10

medial wall of nasal cavity

Answer 10

• nasal septum: perpendicular plate of ethmoid, vomer and septal cartilage (hyaline)

Question 11

roof of nasal cavity

Answer 11

• cribriform plate of ethmoid
• frontal bone
• nasal bone
• sphenoid bone

Question 12

floor of nasal cavity

Answer 12

• horizonal plate of palatine
• palatine process of maxilla

Question 13

paranasal sinuses

Answer 13

• lighten mass of skull, increase surface area of respiratory mucosa, create turbulence
• communicate with cavity via ducts

Question 14

paranasal sinus ducts

Answer 14

1) above superior meatus: sphenoidal sinus
2) into superior meatus: posterior ethmoidal air cells
3) into middle meatus: frontal sinus, maxillary sinus
4) into inferior meatus: nasolacrimal duct

Question 15

olfaction

Answer 15

• superior part of nasal cavity has olfactory epithelium
• turbulence brings odorants into contact with epithelium, where they dissolve in mucus and stimulate sensory neurons (binding to specific receptors = depolarization)

Question 16

olfactory organs

Answer 16

1) olfactory epithelium: specialized pseudostratified ciliated columnar
2) underlying lamina propria

Question 17

cells of olfactory epithelium

Answer 17

1) olfactory sensory neurons: bipolar, dendrites form knob that projects into nasal cavity
2) supporting cells: mechanical and metabolic support to receptor cells
3) basal cells: replace olfactory sensory neurons, decrease with age

Question 18

olfactory knob

Answer 18

• contains non-motile cilia with olfactory receptors on the surface

Question 19

olfactory pathway

Answer 19

two neurons:
1) from olfactory epithelium, form CN I and pass through cribriform plate
2) in olfactory bulb, travel in olfactory tract to primary olfactory cortex (temporal lobe), hypothalamus, and limbic system
*thalamus not involved! only exception out of the senses

Question 20

oral cavity function

Answer 20

• analysis of food
• mechanical processing
• lubrication (saliva)
• limited digestion

Question 21

oral cavity characteristics

Answer 21

• lined by oral mucosa: stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
• buccal fat pads and buccinator muscles support mucosa of cheeks

Question 22

oral cavity features

Answer 22

1) hard and soft palate
2) palatoglossal arch: extends directly from uvula
3) palatopharyngeal arch: posterior to 2)
4) palatine tonsil: between arches
5) uvula: extends from soft palate
6) superior labial, lingual, inferior labial frenulum
7) fauces: opening to pharynx
8) oral vestibule: space between cheek/lips and teeth
9) gingiva: gums

Question 23

oral cavity boundaries

Answer 23

1) roof: hard (maxilla and palatine) and soft palate
2) floor: tongue
3) anterior: teeth and lips with orbicularis orbis
4) posterior: palatoglossal arch/folds, palatine tonsil, palatopharyngeal arch/golds

Question 24

orbicularis orbis

Answer 24

• sphincter muscle continuous around the mouth

Question 25

soft palate function

Answer 25

- moves up to close off nasopharynx during swallowing

Question 26

uvula function

Answer 26

- prevents food from entering oropharynx too soon

Question 27

tongue muscles

Answer 27

1) extrinsic: pass to tongue from bony attachments (to external structures), function to position tongue for speech and swallowing 2) intrinsic: divided by left and right halves by median sagittal septum, within tongue in different orientations, function to alter shape of tongue

Question 28

extrinsic tongue muscles

Answer 28

1) hyoglossus (3): attach to hyoid bone 2) palatoglossus: palatine 3) genioglossus: chin (genu of mandible) 4) styloglossus: styloid process of temporal bone

Question 29

innervation of tongue

Answer 29

1) motor: majority by CN XII, palatoglossus by CN X 2) posterior tongue: general sensory and special (taste) by CN IX 3) anterior tongue: special by CN VII and general by CN V3

Question 30

CN XII lesion

Answer 30

- dysarthria: difficulty speaking - dysphagia: difficulty swallowing

Question 31

floor of the mouth

Answer 31

- mandible - hyoid - suprahyoid muscles - salivary glands

Question 32

suprahyoid muscles

Answer 32

- elevate hyoid and larynx when swallowing 1) digastric (anterior belly, "two bellies") 2) stylohyoid (styloid process 3) mylohyoid (mandible) 4) geniohyoid (chin)

Question 33

infrahyoid muscles

Answer 33

- below hyoid - not part of floor of mouth 1) omohyoid: scapula to hyoid 2) sternohyoid: sternum to hyoid 3) sternothyroid: sternum to thyroid cartilage 4) thyrohyoid: thyroid cartilage to hyoid

Question 34

salivary glands

Answer 34

- three pairs: parotid, sublingual, submandibular - multicellular exocrine - enclosed by dense fibrous CT - produce/secrete saliva under autonomic control

Question 35

parotid gland

Answer 35

- duct opens into oral vestibule (by second maxillary molar) - largest salivary gland

Question 36

sublingual gland

Answer 36

- below tongue - numerous ducts open into floor of oral cavity (lateral to that of submandibular gland)

Question 37

submandibular gland

Answer 37

- below mandible - ducts open into floor of oral cavity lateral to lingual frenulum

Question 38

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

Answer 38

- synovial joint - mandibular fossa (temporal bone) articulates with head of condylar process (mandible) - articular surfaces separated by fibrocartilage disc - loose capsule = highly mobile and easily dislocated

Question 39

TMJ movements

Answer 39

1) hinge: elevation (close mouth) and depression (open mouth) 2) gliding: retraction (tuck chin), protrusion/protraction (stick chin out), lateral grinding

Question 40

lockjaw

Answer 40

- dislocated TMJ - jaw stuck open

Question 41

muscles of mastication

Answer 41

- produce TMJ movements - innervated by CN V3 1) temporalis: elevation and retraction 2) masseter: elevation 3) lateral pterygoid: protrusion, side to side movement, opening jaw (mostly by gravity) 4) medial pterygoid: elevation, side to side movement

Question 42

pterygoid muscle attachments

Answer 42

- to lateral pterygoid plate

Question 43

pharynx

Answer 43

- common space used by respiratory and digestive systems - muscular tube extending from base of skull to upper esophageal sphincter - contracts reflexively during swallowing - stratified squamous nonkeratinized

Question 44

pharynx innervation

Answer 44

- motor: CN X - sensory: CN IX

Question 45

pharynx parts

Answer 45

1) nasopharynx: pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids), opening of pharyngotympanic tubes (connection to auditory tube) 2) oropharynx: palatine and lingual tonsils, first line of defense 3) laryngopharynx: opens into larynx (air) and esophagus (food)

Question 46

cricoid caritlage

Answer 46

forms part of larynx (laryngopharynx)

Question 47

pharyngeal muscles

Answer 47

1) circular: constrict during swallowing (ordered), overlap each other - superior, middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictor 2) longitudinal: - stylopharyngeus (styloid process) - palatopharyngeus (soft palate) - salpingopharyngeus (pharyngotympanic tube)

Question 48

pharyngeal muscle innervation

Answer 48

- CN X for all except stylopharyngeus (CN IX)

Question 49

larynx features

Answer 49

- laryngopharynx opens anterior into larynx and posteriorly to esophagus - inferiorly into trachea - function: passage of air, vocalization and prevents food from entering trachea (epiglottis covers larynx)

Question 50

larynx hyoid connection

Answer 50

- suspended from hyoid bone by thyrohyoid membrane

Question 51

extrinsic muscles of larynx

Answer 51

- suprahyoid: elevate hyoid bone (and larynx) - infrahyoid: depress - during swallowing and speaking - specifically during swallowing: elevated larynx bends epiglottis over laryngeal inlet

Question 52

larynx cartilage

Answer 52

- held in place by ligaments and muscles - three unpaired frameworks: 1) thyroid cartilage: anterior laryngeal prominence ("adam's apple"), incomplete posteriorly (superior and inferior horn) 2) cricoid cartilage: complete ring, inferior to 1) 3) epiglottis - paired: 1) arytenoid cartilages: associated with corniculate and cuneiform cartilages

Question 53

larynx cartilage connecting membranes

Answer 53

1) thyrohyoid membrane: dense CT connecting larynx to hyoid 2) cricothyroid membrane: connects thyroid and cricoid cartilage

Question 54

larynx intrinsic ligaments

Answer 54

- not the same as bone-bone ligaments - extend between cartilage 1) vestibular ligament: corniculate and thyroid cartilage, along with mucosa forms vestibular folds to protect vocal folds 2) vocal ligament: arytenoid and thyroid, elastic CT, along with mucosa forms vocal folds (avascular, produce sound)

Question 55

rima glottidis

Answer 55

space between vocal folds

Question 56

epithelium in the larynx

Answer 56

- above vocal folds: stratified squamous nonkeratinized - below: respiratory epithelium

Question 57

sound production (phonation)

Answer 57

- adductor intrinsic muscles adduct arytenoid cartilages - rima glottidis decreases in size --> air passing through vibrates folds to produce sound waves

Question 58

vocal folds during respiration

Answer 58

- abductors abduct arytenoid cartilages

Question 59

tensors and relaxers

Answer 59

- tiny muscles that adjust length of vocal ligaments by tilting thyroid cartilage

Question 60

what affects sound production?

Answer 60

1) tone: approximation of vocal folds 2) pitch: anterior rocking of thyroid = more tension in vocal fold = higher pitch 3) volume: more air = more speed = louder voice 4) quality: vibration within larynx, pharynx, oral cavity, nasal cavity and nasal sinuses

Question 61

what happens in whispering?

Answer 61

- arytenoids are adducted, but not fully pulled medially - all but posterior portion of rima glottidis closed - more air passes through, vocal folds don't vibrate as much and thus quieter pitch

Question 62

thoracic cavity location

Answer 62

above diaphragm

Question 63

abdominopelvic cavity location

Answer 63

below diaphragm

Question 64

characteristics of body cavities

Answer 64

- lined by serous membranes - do not open to the exterior

Question 65

serous membrane layers

Answer 65

1) visceral layer: around organ 2) parietal layer - layers are continuous with each other - layers produce serous fluid (lubricant) that fills serous cavity between them

Question 66

thoracic cavity subdivision

Answer 66

1) mediastinum: between pleural cavities, includes pericardial cavity with heart 2) right pleural cavity: right lung 3) left pleural cavity: left lung

Question 67

mediastinum

Answer 67

- sternum anterior, thoracic vertebrae posterior - bordered laterally by lungs - further divisions: 1) posterior mediastinum: trachea, primary bronchi, esophagus, great vessels, loose areolar CT 2) middle mediastinum: contains heart 3) anterior mediastinum

Question 68

tracheal rings

Answer 68

- trachea surrounded by 15-20 tracheal rings (anterior, c-shaped) and muscle (posterior, in front of esophagus)

Question 69

annular ligaments

Answer 69

- join tracheal rings - elastic cartilage allows for flexibility

Question 70

carina of trachea

Answer 70

- bifurcation of trachea into right and left primary bronchi

Question 71

branching of bronchial tree

Answer 71

1) trachea 2) primary bronchi: enter hilus of each lung, one per lung 3) lobar (secondary) bronchi: one per lung lobe 4) segmental (tertiary) bronchi: one per bronchopulmonary segment 5) bronchioles: each tertiary branches several times to form these 6) terminal bronchioles

Question 72

trachea structure

Answer 72

- connects larynx to primary bronchi - lined with respiratory mucosa - cartilage rings anteriorly - trachealis muscle (smooth) posteriorly: relaxes with SyNS stimulation for bronchodilation

Question 73

layers of trachea epithelium

Answer 73

1) respiratory epithelium (mucosa) 2) lamina propria (mucosa) 3) seromucous glands in submucosa 4) perichondrium 5) hyaline cartilage ring

Question 74

right/left lung lobes

Answer 74

- right = superior, middle and inferior - left = superior and inferior

Question 75

bronchopulmonary segments

Answer 75

- 9-10 in each lung - each has tertiary bronchus

Question 76

benefit of lung segmentation

Answer 76

- diseased segments can be removed while preserving function of others

Question 77

bronchi histology

Answer 77

- respiratory mucosa with fewer goblet cells - amount of cartilage decreases moving through bronchi (inhibit gas exchange) - circular layer of smooth muscle appears in bronchi (can change size of tube, modulates SA) - lots of lymphocytes

Question 78

bronchiole histology

Answer 78

- epithelium becomes simple ciliated columnar/cuboidal, then simple cuboidal/low columnar (bronchiolar exocrine aka club cells) - no mucosal glands or cartilage - smaller, less circular lumen than bronchi - more smooth muscle (prominent bundles lead to distinct shape) - adjacent to blood vessels - surrounded by alveoli - lots of lymphocytes

Question 79

respiratory portion branching

Answer 79

1) respiratory bronchioles: from terminal bronchioles, decreasing smooth muscle 2) alveolar ducts: no smooth muscle 3) alveolar sac: collections of alveoli 4) alveoli

Question 80

pulmonary lobule

Answer 80

- branches of pulmonary arteries form capillary beds around alveoli for gas exchange - pulmonary artery -> pulmonary arteriole -> pulmonary venules -> pulmonary vein -> heart

Question 81

respiratory bronchiole histology

Answer 81

- lined with bronchiolar exocrine cells - surrounded by few alveoli - subdivide into alveolar ducts with simple squamous epithelium - pulmonary arteries and veins visible

Question 82

alveoli characteristics

Answer 82

- site of gas exchange, resembles a pouch (open on one side to alveolar duct/sac) - between alveoli: interalveolar septa with fibroblasts, elastic (spongy) and reticular (maintain shape) fibers + pulmonary capillaries - two types of cells (pneumocytes) and macrophages

Question 83

type I alveolar cells

Answer 83

- numerous - form simple squamous epithelium

Question 84

type II alveolar cells

Answer 84

- rounded cells, vacuolated cytoplasm - not as numerous - secrete surface-active agent (surfactant) to decrease surface tension and maintain alveolar patency (sacs remain open)

Question 85

alveolar macrophage

Answer 85

- phagocytose particulate matter - contribute to black remnants on lungs (some in healthy, lots in smoker lungs)

Question 86

blood-air barrier

Answer 86

- respiratory membrane with: 1) endothelium 2) thin basement membrane 3) alveolar epithelium - gas exchange is rapid due to thinness (~0.5 micrometer) of membrane and small, lipid-solubility of gases

Question 87

alveoli histology

Answer 87

- lots of empty space - type I cells: flat, little cytoplasm - type II: cuboidal/round - macrophages: darker spots, protrude into spaces - capillaries: contain RBCs

Question 88

emphysema

Answer 88

- damaged and permanently enlarged alveoli (destruction of elastic fibers in lungs) - breathlessness because air becomes trapped in lungs at the end of exhalation (can't push out, gas exchange inhibited as well)

Question 89

respiratory epithelium proximal to distal

Answer 89

1) trachea: pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells 2) bronchi: transition to simple columnar with cilia and few goblet cells 3) bronchioles: transition to simple cuboidal with or without cilia, exocrine cells appear as they branch 4) alveoli: type I/II alveolar cells

Question 90

respiratory lamina propria proximal to distal

Answer 90

1) trachea: loose CT 2) bronchi: loose CT 3) bronchioles: thin or indistinct 4) alveoli: none

Question 91

respiratory secretory cells proximal to distal

Answer 91

1) trachea: seromucous glands in submucosa 2) bronchi: seromucous glands in submucosa 3) bronchioles: bronchiolar exocrine cells 4) alveoli: type II alveolar cells

Question 92

respiratory cartilage rings proximal to distal

Answer 92

1) trachea: c-shaped, joined by annular ligaments 2) bronchi: incomplete, irregular plates 3) bronchioles: none 4) alveoli: none

Question 93

respiratory smooth muscle proximal to distal

Answer 93

1) trachea: trachealis (at free ends of cartilage) 2) bronchi: discontinuous layer, more prominent as bronchi branch 3) bronchioles: prominent, large layer --> thin, indistinct, small layer 4) alveoli: none

Question 94

respiratory adventitia proximal to distal

Answer 94

1) trachea: loose CT 2) bronchi: loose CT 3) bronchioles: merges with submucosa 4) alveoli: none

Question 95

pleura

Answer 95

- serous membrane lining wall of pleural cavity and lungs - mesothelium: simple squamous epithelium attached to loose areolar CT - layers: parietal pleura, pleural cavity (small, with pleural fluid), visceral pleural

Question 96

pleural cavity

Answer 96

- contains transudate (pleural fluid) for lubrication and tension between membranes

Question 97

pleural recesses

Answer 97

- spaces left behind in pleural cavity to accommodate expansion of lungs during inhalation 1) costodiaphragmatic recess: around costal edge of base of lung 2) costomediastinal recess: extension of cavity between sternum and mediastinum

Question 98

pleural effusion

Answer 98

- excess fluid in pleural space, shows up as white on x-ray instead of black (empty air) - two types: 1) transudative pleural effusion: caused by changes in hydrostatic pressure, leads to excess fluid 2) exudative pleural effusion: inflammatory conditions, infection, lung injury or tumour, leads to excess fluid, protein and immune cells --> additional spaces in endothelial cells

Question 99

lung structure

Answer 99

- cone shape with apex above clavicle and base - lobes separated by deep fissures - right lung: superior, middle, inferior lobe - left lung: superior, inferior

Question 100

lung lobe surfaces

Answer 100

1) costal: contact with ribs (anterior, lateral and posterior) 2) mediastinal: medial surface 3) diaphragmatic: base, close to diaphragm

Question 101

lung fissures

Answer 101

1) horizontal: separates superior and middle (right lung) 2) oblique: separates middle and inferior (right) or superior and inferior (left)

Question 102

root of the lung

Answer 102

- contained in the hilus - consists of primary bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, nerves and lymphatics enclosed in CT

Question 103

hilus arrangement in R/L lung

Answer 103

- right: veins inferior, arteries anterior to primary bronchi - left: artery most superior, primary bronchus, veins inferior to other two

Question 104

grooves and impressions in lung

Answer 104

- right: posterior esophageal impression - left: posterior groove for aorta, anterior cardiac impression and cardiac notch

Question 105

thorax bones

Answer 105

- 12 pairs of ribs (flat bones) and costal cartilages - 12 thoracic vertebrae and intervertebral disks - sternum

Question 106

sternum structure

Answer 106

1) manubrium: articulates with clavicles 2) body 3) xiphoid process

Question 107

intercostal space

Answer 107

between ribs

Question 108

costal margin

Answer 108

formed by bottom of rib cage

Question 109

types of ribs

Answer 109

1) true ribs (1-7): attach directly to sternum via a costal cartilage 2) false ribs (8-12): attach indirectly (not their own costal cartilage to sternum OR lack attachment 3) (false) floating ribs (11-12): no anterior attachment or tubercular facets

Question 110

typical rib structure

Answer 110

1) head: has two articular facets that articulate with body of thoracic vertebrae 2) neck 3) tubercle: has tubercular facet to articulate with transverse process of thoracic vertebra (corresponding) 4) angle 5) costal groove: internal aspect, protects blood vessels and nerves 5) body 6) costal cartilage (for most) *applies to ribs 3-9

Question 111

what permits movement of thoracic wall?

Answer 111

articulations of ribs and thoracic vertebrae (synovial joints)

Question 112

superior/inferior thoracic aperture

Answer 112

- superior: bordered by T1, 1st ribs and superior border of manubrium + contains trachea and blood vessels - inferior: bordered by T12, ribs 11/12, costal margins and xiphisternal joint + closed off by diaphragm

Question 113

attachments of rib cage

Answer 113

1) jugular notch 2) clavicular notch: clavicle 3) sternal angle: manubrium and body articulate, forms protrusion 4) costal notches: attachment of costal cartilage 5) xiphisternal joint: body and xiphoid process articulate, has limited movement 6) diaphragm attachment

Question 114

thoracic wall muscles

Answer 114

- occupy and support intercostal spaces - overlap each other and fibers run in different directions for added strength 1) external intercostals: do not attach to sternum, fibers run inferiorly and anteriorly, elevate ribs during inhalation 2) internal intercostals: start from sternum, fibers run inferiorly and posteriorly, depress ribs during FORCED exhalation 3) innermost intercostals

Question 115

costal groove

Answer 115

- contains VAN (vein, artery, nerve --> superior to inferior) - between inner and innermost intercostals

Question 116

arteries of thoracic wall

Answer 116

1) thoracic aorta 2) subclavian artery (branches off brachiocephalic) 3) internal thoracic arteries: anterior aspect inside thoracic wall, arises from 1) 4) anterior and posterior intercostal arteries: from 1) and 3), in costal groove, ant/pos anastomose with each other for collateral circulation 5) subcostal artery (last artery)

Question 117

veins of thoracic wall

Answer 117

1) internal thoracic vein: drains blood anteriorly into brachiocephalic vein and superior vena caba 2) anterior and posterior intercostal veins: most (posterior) drain into azygos venous system 3) subcostal vein 4) azygos and hemiazygos veins: drain back and thoracoabdominal walls and viscera, pathway between SVC and IVC

Question 118

azygos venous system

Answer 118

1) right intercostal veins drain into azygos 2) left intercostal veins drain into hemiazygos, then azygos 3) azygos drains into superior vena cava

Question 119

lymphatic drainage in thoracic wall

Answer 119

- lymphatics throughout drain thoracic wall into thoracic duct

Question 120

inhalation mechanism

Answer 120

- thoracic cavity dimensions and intrathoracic volume increases - draws air in because of pressure drop - structure of pleura and lungs enable this to occur: pleural fluid creates tension between membranes, inherent elasticity of lungs allow expansion to remain in contact with thoracic wall - diaphragm contracts (flattens)

Question 121

exhalation mechanism

Answer 121

- typically passive process: recoil of lungs and relaxation of muscles - intrathoracic volume decreases, expelling air out

Question 122

movements of thoracic wall during inhalation

Answer 122

- diaphragm (flattens) and external intercostals (elevates ribs and sternum) contract - vertical changes: diaphragm flattens - lateral changes: ribs elevated, thoracic cavity widens - anterior/posterior changes: inferior portion of sternum moves anteriorly

Question 123

movements of thoracic wall during exhalation

Answer 123

- passive process - vertical changes: diaphragm relaxes, moves up, thoracic cavity narrows - lateral changes: ribs depressed, thoracic cavity narrows - anterior-posterior changes: inferior portion of sternum moves posteriorly

Question 124

diaphragm structure

Answer 124

- forms floor of thoracic cavity - muscle fibers arranged radially and insert into central tendon - space for inferior vena cava, esophagus and aorta (posterior) - crura: attach diaphragm to lumbar vertebrae

Question 125

diaphragm action and innervation

Answer 125

- contraction increases vertical dimension of thoracic cavity - innervated by phrenic nerves (C3-C5)

Question 126

structures that pass through diaphragm

Answer 126

1) internal vena cava: between right dome and pericardial sac 2) esophagus: behind pericardial sac, in front of thoracic vertebra 3) aorta: between thoracic vertebra and left dome

Question 127

accessory muscles of respiration

Answer 127

- attached to thoracic wall and could be involved in breathing

Question 128

neural control of respiration

Answer 128

- rate/depth of breathing matched with tissue oxygen and CO2 removal demands - controlled by brainstem nuclei (pons and medulla) 1) posterior respiratory group (medulla): efferent fibers control inspiration 2) anterior respiratory group (medulla): efferent fibers coordinate innervation of both inspiratory and expiratory muscles 3) CN IX/X (to medulla): modulate feedback based on input from baroreceptors and chemoreceptors 4) pontine respiratory group: receives higher level input (cerebral cortex, limbic system, hypothalamus), outputs to medulla to adjust respiratory pace --> some voluntary control

Question 129

heart as a double pump

Answer 129

- right side: conveys blood through pulmonary circuit - left side: conveys blood through systemic circuit - both sides at the same time

Question 130

arteries vs veins

Answer 130

arteries carry blood away from heart, veins towards heart

Question 131

heart chambers

Answer 131

two atria superior to two ventricles

Question 132

heart position

Answer 132

- left of midline in middle mediastinum - oblique angle to longitudinal axis of body (slightly rotated to left)

Question 133

heart shape

Answer 133

- base of heart = posterior surface - apex located in 5th intercostal space

Question 134

pericardium

Answer 134

- surrounds heart and roots of the great vessels - two parts: outer fibrous pericardium and inner serous pericardium (two layers) - function: stabilize position of heart and prevents overfilling (bc attached to other structures, ex. fibrous attached to diaphragm)

Question 135

serous pericardium

Answer 135

1) visceral layer: attaches to heart - potential space (pericardial cavity) containing pericardial fluid (lubrication) between layers 2) parietal layer: attaches to fibrous pericardium

Question 136

components of heart wall

Answer 136

superficial to deep: (parietal layer of serous pericardium: mesothelium, areolar CT and pericardial cavity) 1) epicardium (visceral layer of serous pericardium): mesothelium and areolar CT 2) myocardium: cardiac muscle tissue 3) endocardium: unique endothelium and areolar CT

Question 137

heart surfaces

Answer 137

1) right pulmonary surface: formed by right atrium 2) anterior surface: majority right ventricle 3) left pulmonary surface: left ventricle 4) diaphragmatic surface

Question 138

external heart sulci

Answer 138

1) coronary sulcus: between atria and ventricles, location of fibrous skeleton 2) anterior/posterior interventricular sulci: between ventricles, overlie interventricular septum

Question 139

anterior external heart

Answer 139

1) right atrium 2) right auricle (flap) 3) right ventricle 4) left ventricle 5) left auricle * cannot see left atrium

Question 140

posterior external heart

Answer 140

1) left atrium 2) right atrium 3) left ventricle 4) right ventricle

Question 141

right heart input/output

Answer 141

input: deoxygenated blood to right atrium 1) superior vena cava: drains head and upper limbs 2) inferior vena cava: below diaphragm 3) coronary sinus: heart wall output: from right ventricle 1) pulmonary trunk 2) continues to right and left pulmonary arteries --> lungs

Question 142

left heart input/output

Answer 142

input: oxygenated blood to left atrium 1) right and left pulmonary veins (two on each side) output: from left ventricle 1) ascending aorta 2) aortic arch 3) descending aorta

Question 143

heart borders

Answer 143

1) right border: right atrium 2) left border: left ventricle 3) inferior border: mostly right ventricle, a little left ventricle

Question 144

internal right atrium

Answer 144

1) input vessels: SVC, IVC, coronary sinus 2) interatrial septum 3) fossa ovalis: remnant of embryonic foramen ovale 4) pectinate muscles: create rough wall 5) crista terminalis: line dividing smooth and rough parts of atrium

Question 145

embryonic foramen ovale

Answer 145

- direct connection between right and left atrium - no need for pulmonary circulation as an embryo

Question 146

internal right ventricle

Answer 146

1) right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) cusps (3) 2) septomarginal trabecula: extend from septum, attach to papillary muscles and trabeculae carnea 3) pulmonary semilunar valve cusps 4) conus arteriosus

Question 147

atrioventricular valve structures

Answer 147

1) cusps attach to chordae tendineae 2) attach to papillary muscles 3) trabeculae carneae: rough inner wall (no smooth parts in ventricle)

Question 148

atrioventricular valve cusp function

Answer 148

- like a parachute: chordae tendinae are strings attached to the papillary muscle (person) --> prevent cusps from everting - cusp pulled taut in a curved shape

Question 149

semilunar valve cusp function

Answer 149

- curved shape causes blood to pool in the closed cusps

Question 150

internal left atrium

Answer 150

1) left atrioventricular valve (bicuspid or mitral) cusps (two) 2) interatrial septum: smooth wall 3) left auricle: lined with pectinate muscles (rough)

Question 151

internal left ventricle

Answer 151

1) aortic semilunar valve cusps

Question 152

aorta vs pulmonary trunk

Answer 152

aorta has openings of coronary arteries early on (oxygenated blood goes to heart first)

Question 153

why is LV wall thicker than RV?

Answer 153

- higher force needed to pump to entire body, not just lungs

Question 154

valve primary function

Answer 154

- ensure unidirectional flow of blood

Question 155

fibrous skeleton of heart

Answer 155

- structural foundation for heart valves - attachment for myocardium - electrical insulation of atrial myocardium from ventricular (precise coordination of contraction)

Question 156

fibrous skeleton components

Answer 156

1) pulmonary fibrous ring (anterior): pulmonary semilunar valve 2) aortic fibrous ring (posterior): aortic semilunar valves 3) left atrioventricular fibrous ring 4) right atrioventricular fibrous ring

Question 157

coronary vessels (arteries)

Answer 157

two major branches: 1) left coronary artery bifurcates almost immediately into circumflex artery and anterior interventricular artery - circumflex: LA/LV - anterior interventricular: 2/3 IV septum of LV, anterior wall of LV/RV, connects with posterior interventricular artery at apex 2) right coronary artery gives rise to right marginal artery and posterior interventricular artery, supplies RA/RV - right marginal: RV - posterior interventricular artery: posterior 1/3 of IV septum, posterior RV/LV

Question 158

coronary vessels (veins)

Answer 158

1) great cardiac vein: drains areas supplied by anterior interventricular artery --> drain into coronary sinus 2) small and middle cardia veins: drains RCA area --> drain into coronary sinus 3) anterior cardiac vein: anterior RV --> drain directly into RA

Question 159

recognizing coronary vessels

Answer 159

- thick wall = aorta - thinner wall = pulmonary vein - big, dilated vessel near left side = coronary sinus

Question 160

conducting system of heart

Answer 160

1) sinoatrial node (pacemaker): automatically depolarize, impulses travel through internodal pathways to... 2) atriovenricular node: impulse slows, atria contract (superior to inferior), fibrous skeleton insulates ventricles from atrial depolarization 3) atrioventricular bundle branches into... 4) L/R bundle branches: conduct impulse through interventricular septum, right bundle transmits to septomarginal trabecula 5) subendocardial plexus: impulse goes upwards from apex, distributed to ventricular myocardium

Question 161

heart innervation

Answer 161

- autonomic nervous system innervates both SA/AV nodes and myocardium via cardiac plexus - SNS: increase HR through NE release - PNS: decrease HR through Ach release (vagus nerve) - cardiac centers in medulla control based on input from baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

Question 162

cardiac cycle

Answer 162

1) atrial systole: AV valves open, blood enters ventricles (relaxed) 2) atrial diastole: continues until start of next cycle 3) ventricular systole 1st phase: contraction closes AV valves ("lub") 4) ventricular systole 2nd phase: ventricular BP rises, SL valves open 5) early ventricular diastole: ventricular BP drops until reverse blood flow closes SL valve ("dub"), passive atrial filling 6) late ventricular diastole: passive ventricular filling, all chambers relaxed

Question 163

aortic valve regurgitation

Answer 163

- aortic valve that does not fully close - blood leaks back through during ventricular diastole - enlarged LV wall to cope with increased afterload

Question 164

pelvis structure

Answer 164

1) right and left hip bones (os coxae) joined anteriorly by pubic symphysis 2) sacrum (joins to hips by sacro-iliac joints) 3) coccyx

Question 165

pelvis function

Answer 165

1) support visceral organs 2) attachment point for muscles 3) transfer upper body weight to lower limb 4) attach lower limb to axial skeleton

Question 166

pelvic girdle

Answer 166

- consists of left and right hip bones

Question 167

hip bone structure

Answer 167

- three separate bones: 1) ilium (most superior) 2) ischium 3) pubis/pubic bone (anterior to ischium) - acetabulum: where bones fuse together around mid 20s, before separated by hyaline cartilage - obturator foramen: formed by 2/3, covered with fascia and muscle

Question 168

ilium features

Answer 168

lateral surface: 1) iliac crest 2) ala medial surface: 3) iliac fossa 4) arcuate line for muscle attachment: 5) anterior superior iliac spine 6) anterior inferior iliac spine 7) posterior superior iliac spine 8) posterior inferior iliac spine other: 9) greater sciatic notch: sciatic (largest nerve) passes through

Question 169

ischium features

Answer 169

1) ischial tuberosity: "big bump" that are "sit" bones, hamstrings attach here --> lateral view 2) ischial spine: muscle attachment 3) lesser sciatic notch 4) ischial ramus

Question 170

pubis features

Answer 170

1) pectineal line: medial view, continuous with arcuate line 2) superior pubic ramus 3) pubic tubercle: ligament attachment 4) body of pubis: between rami, forms pubic symphysis 5) inferior pubic ramus

Question 171

ischiopubic ramus

Answer 171

inferior pubic ramus + ischial ramus

Question 172

pelvic brim

Answer 172

- formed by: 1) sacral ala and promontory 2) arcuate line 3) pectineal line 4) superior pubic ramus 5) pubic symphysis - shaped differently in males and females (to accommodate childbirth

Question 173

pelvic inlet

Answer 173

space enclosed by pelvic brim

Question 174

pelvic outlet

Answer 174

space bordered by: 1) coccyx 2) ischial tuberosities 3) inferior border of pubic symphysis

Question 175

true vs false pelvis

Answer 175

- true = below pelvic brim, protects and contains pelvic viscera - false = above pelvic brim, encloses and protects lower abdominal viscera

Question 176

pelvic diaphragm

Answer 176

- aka pelvic floor - funnel-shaped sheet of muscle within pelvic outlet - formed by two major muscles and their fascia: 1) coccygeus 2) levator ani - muscles loop around urethra, vagina (if present) and anus --> controls urination and defecation - other functions: partitions true pelvis from perineum (contains external genitalia) and supports abdominopelvic viscera

Question 177

levator ani

Answer 177

- consists of three separate muscles 1) puborectalis: 'sling' around rectum 2) pubococcygeus: pubic bone to coccyx 3) iliococcygeus: ilium to coccyx - elevate anus - torn/stretched in childbirth

Question 178

coccygeus

Answer 178

- attaches to coccyx

Question 179

anterolateral abdominal wall

Answer 179

- no bony reinforcements - consist of fascia, muscles and their aponeuroses (thickening of CT) - muscle fibers run at right and oblique angles to one another + overlap = increase strength

Question 180

anterolateral abdominal wall muscles

Answer 180

(listed superficial to deep): 1) external oblique: fibers run inferomedially, same direction as external intercostals 2) rectus abdominis: vertical and enclosed by rectus sheath 3) internal oblique: fibers run superomedially 4) transversus abdominis: fibers run anteromedially 1-3 = flat, muscular laterally + aponeurotic medially

Question 181

linea alba

Answer 181

- collagen fibers of anterolateral abdominal wall muscle aponeuroses interlace here

Question 182

anterolateral abdominal wall muscles actions

Answer 182

1) stabilize vertebral column 2) compress abdominal contents 3) flexion of vertebral column (ex. sit-up motion) 4) rotation of vertebral column 5) lateral flexion of vertebral column

Question 183

inguinal ligament

Answer 183

- runs from anterior superior iliac spine to pubic tubercle - formed by lower border of external oblique - creates space where blood vessels and nerves pass through

Question 184

rectus abdominis structure

Answer 184

- extends from pubis to thoracic cage - segmented by three tendinous intersections: these sometimes don't line up because walls develop independently and later fuse together - enclosed by rectus sheath

Question 185

linea semilunaris

Answer 185

- where tendons of the lateral abdominal muscles meet the sheath surrounding the rectus abdominis muscle

Question 186

rectus abdominis action

Answer 186

1) flexion of vertebral column 2) compress abdominal viscera

Question 187

rectus sheath

Answer 187

- surrounds rectus abdominis - anterior layer formed by external oblique and some internal oblique aponeuroses - posterior layer formed by transversus abdominis and some internal oblique aponeuroses

Question 188

arcuate line in anterolateral abdominal wall

Answer 188

- posterior to rectus abdominis - marks transition on rectus sheath where all aponeurotic layers pass anteriorly - below line: fascia is thinner

Question 189

posterior abdominal wall structures

Answer 189

1) some bones: lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, ilia, ribs 11/12 2) posterior abdominal wall muscles: attach to vertebrae 3) portion of diaphragm 4) kidneys, suprarenal glands and fascia: lie on top of the wall 5) fat, nerves, blood vessels

Question 190

posterior abdominal wall muscles

Answer 190

1) diaphragm 2) transversus abdominis: forms belt around abdomen 3) quadratus lumborum: 4 sided, attached to lumbar vertebrae and 12th rib 4) iliacus: fills iliac fossa, continues to lower limbs 5) psoas major: attaches to lumbar vertebrae, continues to lower limbs (in front of 3)) *4/5 pass under the inguinal ligament

Question 191

abdominal wall layers

Answer 191

1) skin 2) superficial fascia 3) muscles/vertebra 4) transversalis fascia: lines inside of abdominal wall, called renal fascia around kidneys 5) extraperitoneal (visceral) fat 6) peritoneum 7) peritoneal cavity

Question 192

peritoneum

Answer 192

- continuous serous membrane in peritoneal cavity that invests some viscera - two layers of mesothelium that secrete fluid: 1) visceral 2) peritoneal cavity: doesn't actually contain organs! 3) parietal

Question 193

intraperitoneal organs

Answer 193

- surrounded by visceral peritoneum - suspended by mesenteries to posterior abdominal wall - ex. stomach, spleen

Question 194

retroperitoneal organs

Answer 194

- develop posterior to peritoneal cavity - only partially covered by peritoneum - ex. kidneys, aorta, IVC, pancreas

Question 195

arteries of posterior abdominal wall

Answer 195

- branch from aorta - unpaired visceral branches: 1) celiac trunk 2) superior mesenteric artery 3) inferior mesenteric artery - paired: 4) suprarenal arteries 5) renal arteries 6) gonadal arteries 7) lumbar arteries

Question 196

veins of posterior abdominal wall

Answer 196

- drain into inferior vena cava - unpaired: 1) hepatic veins: drain liver (all digestive system blood goes to liver) - paired: 2) suprarenal veins 3) renal veins 4) gonadal veins: left drains into left renal vein, right drains directly into IVC 5) lumbar veins

Question 197

digestive system function

Answer 197

- mechanically and chemically break down food for absorption

Question 198

digestive system organ groups

Answer 198

1) gastrointestinal tract: form continuous tube = mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine 2) accessory digestive organs: connected to GI tract = teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

Question 199

secondarily retroperitoneal organs

Answer 199

- initially intraperitoneal - become attached to posterior body wall through development (part of peritoneum disintegrates) - ex. ascending and descending colon

Question 200

mesenteries

Answer 200

- double layer of peritoneum with intervening areolar CT - blood, lymph vessels, nerves sandwiched between - several types/names - function: support and stabilize intraperitoneal organs

Question 201

mesentery examples

Answer 201

1) transverse mesocolon 2) mesentery proper: largest 3) sigmoid mesocolon: helps suspend part of colon

Question 202

GI tract general layers

Answer 202

1) mucosa: protection, absorption, secretion 2) submucosa 3) muscularis externa 4) serosa or adventitia

Question 203

GI mucosa

Answer 203

1) epithelium: varies based on tube function 2) lamina propria: areolar CT with mucosal glands, blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics 3) muscularis mucosae: smooth muscle, alters shape of lumen

Question 204

GI submucosa

Answer 204

- dense irregular or areolar CT - blood, lymphatics, submucosal plexus - some regions: lymphatic tissue and submucosal glands

Question 205

GI muscularis externa

Answer 205

- two layers of smooth muscle (except in esophagus and stomach): inner circular and external longitudinal - myenteric plexus located between layers - contraction of layers = segmentation and peristalsis - circular = compression, mixing, constricting diameter - longitudinal = shortens length of tube

Question 206

GI adventitia/serosa

Answer 206

- areolar CT - intraperitoneal organs = serosa - others = adventitia

Question 207

peristalsis

Answer 207

1) contraction of circular muscles behind bolus 2) contraction of longitudinal muscles ahead of bolus 3) wave of contraction in circular muscle layer forces bolus forward

Question 208

segmentation

Answer 208

- primarily circular muscle layers - churn and mix contents in digestive tract - no net movement in particular direction

Question 209

esophagus

Answer 209

- muscular tube running through neck and posterior mediastinum - passes through muscular part of diaphragm via esophageal hiatus - 25cm x 2cm - secretes mucus (lubrication - transports swallowed materials from pharynx to stomach

Question 210

esophagus layers

Answer 210

1) mucosa: - stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium - lamina propria: lymphatic nodules and esophageal cardiac glands - thick muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa: - dense irregular CT - blood and lymphatics - lots of elastic fibers (collapsed lumen), assist in closing tube - submucosal glands 3) muscular layer: - circular and longitudinal - proximal to distal: 1/3 skeletal muscle, 1/3 both, 1/3 smooth 4) adventitia: adheres to posterior body wall

Question 211

esophagus bolus path

Answer 211

- passes through esophageal hiatus to portion located in peritoneal cavity - pass through lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter): thickening of circular layer - goes to stomach

Question 212

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Answer 212

- lower esophageal sphincter fails to close adequately - HCl from stomach irritates esophageal wall - long-term: epithelium changes to simple columnar and scar tissues build up, changing function and narrowing lumen

Question 213

stomach regions

Answer 213

1) fundus: dome shaped 2) cardia: transition zone between esophagus and stomach 3) body: majority 4) pyloric antrum: funnel-shaped

Question 214

stomach structure

Answer 214

- J-shaped, with four regions - lesser curvature: lesser omentum (mesentery) attachment - greater curvature: greater omentum - rugae (semipermanent folds) formed by mucosa and submucosa, accommodate expansion and filling of stomach

Question 215

stomach muscularis externa

Answer 215

- three layers: 1) longitudinal 2) circular 3) oblique: additional layer to allow more effective mixing

Question 216

stomach function

Answer 216

- food (chyme) storage - mechanical/chemical digestion - hormone secretion - little absorption

Question 217

pyloric sphincter

Answer 217

- thickening of circular layer - regulates chyme movement from stomach to duodenum

Question 218

stomach layers

Answer 218

1) mucosa: - simple columnar epithelium - mucous cells invaginate into lamina propria = gastric pits - muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa: - loose areolar CT with BVs, lymphatics - no glands! 3) muscularis externa: 3 layers 4) serosa: loose areolar CT

Question 219

gastric secretions

Answer 219

1) surface mucous and mucous neck cells: mucins, protects mucosa from acid and maintains acidic conditions 2) parietal cells: intrinsic factor (B12 absorption), HCl (denatures proteins, antibacterial, breaks down cell walls) 3) chief cells: pepsinogen (proenzyme --> pepsin with HCl), gastric lipase 4) G cells (enteroendocrine): gastrin into blood stream, stimulates parietal/chief cells and contractions

Question 220

stomach secretory cell distribution

Answer 220

- gastric pit: mucous cells - gastric gland: parietal, G, chief - chief cells more predominant at bottom of gland - G cells at bottom, not seen on H&E

Question 221

parietal vs chief cells histology

Answer 221

- parietal = large, central nucleus, eosinophilic - chief = small, basophilic (proteins)

Question 222

small intestine function

Answer 222

most digestion and absorption

Question 223

small intestine regions

Answer 223

1) duodenum (~25cm, shortest): mix chyme with exocrine secretions, proximally intraperitoneal (mobile) and rest secondarily retroperitoneal (anchored) 2) jejunum (2.5m): chemical digestion, nutrient absorption, intraperitoneal 3) ileum (3.6m): controls movement of intestinal contents into cecum, intraperitoneal

Question 224

mesenteries of small intestine

Answer 224

- duodenum: no mesentery - jejunum and ileum: fan-shaped mesentery proper (anchor to posterior wall)

Question 225

small intestine structures

Answer 225

1) circular folds (plicae circulares): permanent, transverse folds of mucosa and submucosa = increase SA and slow chyme 2) intestinal villi: finger-like extensions of mucosa, covered by simple columnar cells, also increase SA 3) microvilli: projections from intestinal villi (brush border), increase SA

Question 226

small intestine layers

Answer 226

1) mucosa: - villi, intestinal glands, lymphoid nodules - muscularis mucosae - simple columnar with goblet cells - lamina propria: capillary networks (nutrient-rich blood to liver), lacteals (lipid-protein complexes to venous system), nerves and smooth muscle 2) submucosa: lymphatics, vessels, submucosal neural plexus 3) muscular layer: - circular and longitudinal - myenteric neural plexus 4) serosa

Question 227

small intestine plexuses

Answer 227

- control movement of chyme and secretions

Question 228

intestinal glands (crypts)

Answer 228

- extend into lamina propria - enteroendocrine cells: hormone production, ex. CCK - paneth cells: innate immunity - stem cells: replenish epithelial cells lost in lumen and MALT

Question 229

small intestine regional specializations

Answer 229

1) duodenum: mucous secretion and goblet cells, with submucosal (Brunner's) glands 2) jejunum: nutrient absorption, well developed circular folds 3) ileum: lymphoid nodules (Peyer's patches, target bacteria from large intestine), goblet cells (lubrication after lots of absorption)

Question 230

large intestine structure

Answer 230

- from ileocecal valve to anus (1.5m long, 6.5cm wide) - large = wider (shorter than small) - three regions 1) cecum: blind ended sac (contents can only go up) 2) colon: ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid 3) rectum

Question 231

large intestine function

Answer 231

- reabsorption of water and salts - absorption of vitamins - storage of feces

Question 232

large intestine feactures

Answer 232

1) right colic (hepatic) flexure 2) left colic (splenic) flexure 3) haustra: permit expansion, created by... 4) teniae coli (3 strips): reorganization of external longitudinal layer 5) epiploic (omental) appendages: fatty appendages along teniae coli, function unknown

Question 233

appendix

Answer 233

- filled with lymphoid nodules and involved in immune function - attached to cecum

Question 234

retroperitoneal and intraperitoneal parts of large intestine

Answer 234

1) ascending colon = secondarily retroperitoneal 2) transverse colon = intra 3) descending colon = secondarily retro 4) sigmoid colon = intra 5) rectum = retro

Question 235

greater omentum connections

Answer 235

- connects stomach to transverse colon

Question 236

rectum characteristics

Answer 236

- expandable, filling = urge to defecate - ends as anal canal, opens to outside at the anus - epithelium changes: 1) simple columnar 2) stratified squamous nonkeratinized 3) keratinized

Question 237

rectum features

Answer 237

1) anal canal: circular folds hold feces 2) internal anal sphincter: smooth muscle, thickening of inner circular muscular layer = reflex control 3) external anal sphincter: skeletal muscle = voluntary control

Question 238

large intestine layers

Answer 238

1) mucosa: - changing epithelium - no villi or circular folds - goblet cells, deep intestinal glands - muscularis mucosae 2) submucosa 3) muscular layer: - circular layer - longitudinal layer = teniae coli 4) serosa

Question 239

large intestine control

Answer 239

- regulated by local reflexes in ANS - proximally: fecal material moves slowly by peristalsis, segmentation by haustral churning - mass movements: powerful, peristaltic-like contraction involving teniae coli (infrequently, ~2-3x/day) - rectal distension consciously sensed = sphincter relaxation

Question 240

arterial supply of digestive system

Answer 240

1) celiac trunk = foregut: - left gastric artery: lesser omentum - splenic artery: greater omentum, spleen, pancreas - common hepatic artery: liver, gall bladder, proximal duodenum, connects to left gastric artery 2) superior mesenteric artery = midgut: distal duodenum to left colic flexure 3) inferior mesenteric artery = hindgut: descending colon to upper rectum (also, esophageal arteries, visceral branches of thoracic aorta)

Question 241

hepatic portal system

Answer 241

1) hepatic portal vein: carries nutrient rich and O2 poor blood from digestive system (all other veins) to liver 2) left gastric vein 3) splenic vein 4) inferior mesenteric vein 5) superior mesenteric vein 6) hepatic veins: drain blood from liver to IVC *no common hepatic or celiac vein!

Question 242

portal vein definition

Answer 242

- connects two capillary beds

Question 243

liver capsule

Answer 243

- covered by fibrous CT capsule and visceral peritoneum, except at bare area - peritoneum reflects to make ligaments

Question 244

liver lobes

Answer 244

two major: 1) right 2) left two smaller (only visible posteriorly) 3) caudate: next to IVC 4) quadrate: next to gall bladder

Question 245

liver ligaments

Answer 245

1) coronary ligament: attaches to diaphragm 2) falciform ligament: attachment to anterior body wall 3) round ligament: free edge of falciform, remnant of fetal umbilical vein

Question 246

liver bare area

Answer 246

- close proximity to diaphragm - coronary ligament around attaches to diaphragm

Question 247

porta hepatis

Answer 247

- structure in liver containing: BVs, lymph, bile ducts and nerves - lateral to medial: common hepatic duct, hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein (more posterior) - housed under lesser omentum

Question 248

liver functions

Answer 248

1) digestive: produce and secrete bile, facilitate fat digestion, buffer acidity in chyme 2) metabolic: regulate circulating levels of nutrients, store fat-soluble vitamins, remove metabolic wastes and toxins 3) hematological: synthesize plasma proteins, phagocytize debris in blood, blood reservoir

Question 249

lesser omentum attachments

Answer 249

- attaches stomach to liver

Question 250

liver functional units

Answer 250

- divided by CT (interlobular septum, containing interlobular veins and arteries) into lobules - commonly hexagonal shaped - portal triads at periphery: include branches of hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery proper and bile duct - central vein in the middle

Question 251

blood flow through liver

Answer 251

1) blood from hepatic portal vein and hepatic artery proper drain into hepatic sinusoids (sinusoidal vessel) 2) drain into central vein 3) central veins merge to form hepatic veins 4) empty into IVC

Question 252

blood processing in liver

Answer 252

- as blood passes through, it is processed by: 1) hepatocytes: nutrient packaging, metabolism, bile production, blood processing 2) stellate macrophages: vit A and fat storage

Question 253

liver perisinusoidal space

Answer 253

- separates hepatocytes from endothelial cells - where functions of the liver take place

Question 254

bile flow in liver

Answer 254

1) produced by hepatocytes 2) secreted into bile canaliculi 3) bile ductules 4) bile ducts 5) hepatic ducts: one for each lobe, collects all bile ducts 6) common hepatic duct 7) cystic duct to store in gall bladder 8) OR common bile duct: common hepatic + cystic duct --> major duodenal papilla

Question 255

bile function

Answer 255

- digestion of lipids in duodenum

Question 256

hepatopancreatic ampulla

Answer 256

- collects from common bile duct and pancreatic duct - flow controlled by hepatopancreatic sphincter: formed by part of duodenum wall - lipid/protein-containing chyme stimulates enteroendocrine cell release of CCK - CCK stimulates gallbladder contraction and hepatopancreatic sphincter relaxation

Question 257

pancreas characteristics

Answer 257

- posterior to stomach, incurve of duodenum - secondarily retroperitoneal - ~15cm long - head, body and tail (tail near spleen) - surrounded by thin fibrous CT capsule - divided into lobules by CT septa - endocrine and exocrine functions

Question 258

pancreatic blood supply

Answer 258

1) celiac trunk 2) superior mesenteric artery

Question 259

pancreas histology

Answer 259

1) pancreatic islets: endocrine = lighter staining 2) acinar cells: make up acini, exocrine = darker staining, eosinophilic lumen

Question 260

pancreatic cell types and functions

Answer 260

1) pancreatic islets (contain many diff cells): endocrine products, ex. insulin/glucagon --> BVs 2) acinar cells: mucin, digestive enzymes 3) intercalated duct cells: bicarbonate ions, mix with digestive enzymes to go towards small intestine via pancreatic duct

Question 261

urinary system component

Answer 261

kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra

Question 262

urinary tract components and function

Answer 262

- ureters, bladder, urethra - store and eliminate urine

Question 263

kidney function

Answer 263

- maintenance of water and electrolyte homeostasis - elimination of by-products of metabolism: urine production

Question 264

filtration/reabsorption in kidney

Answer 264

- blood filtered, most reabsorbed - rest is filtrate converted to urine

Question 265

urinary system function

Answer 265

- elimination of organic wastes, toxins and some drugs - conservation of nutrients - storage/excretion of urine - regulation of blood volume and pressure - regulation of erythrocyte production - regulation of blood electrolyte concentration and pH

Question 266

kidney location

Answer 266

- either side of VC between T12-L3 - right: posterior to liver, right colic flexure, duodenum - left: medial to spleen, posterior to stomach, pancreas, left colic flexure, small intestine

Question 267

kidney structure

Answer 267

1) superior pole: adrenal glands 2) hilium: renal BVs (vein anterior to artery), lymphatics, nerves, renal pelvis 3) ureter 4) inferior pole

Question 268

renal pelvis

Answer 268

- connection to ureter in kidney

Question 269

kidney coverings

Answer 269

deep to superficial: 1) fibrous capsule: thin dense irregular CT, maintains shape and protects 2) perinephric fat: cushioning and support 3) renal fascia: dense irregular CT, anchors kidney to surrounding structures and posterior abdominal wall 4) paranephric fat

Question 270

L/R renal vein and artery differences

Answer 270

- L vein longer bc IVC closer to L - L artery shorter bc aorta closer to R

Question 271

internal features of kidneys

Answer 271

1) renal pyramid: renal medulla, has apex and base (abuts renal cortex) 2) renal papilla: formed by apex of renal pyramid, extends into minor calyx 3) renal columns: cortical tissue between pyramids 4) renal lobe: location of renal functional units, includes pyramid and adjacent cortex/columns 5) minor calyx: drains medulla into... 6) major calyx: formed by merging minor 7) renal pelvis: drains major calyxes 8) renal sinus: contains fat

Question 272

blood supply to kidney

Answer 272

1) R/L renal arteries 2a) accessory artery 2b) segmental artery, divides further 3) interlobar arteries 4) arcuate arteries 5) cortical radiate arteries: branch into afferent arterioles and supply nephrons *all are end arteries: do not anastamose with others

Question 273

blood drainage from kidney

Answer 273

- all arteries typically associated with veins - efferent arterioles drain nephrons (functional unit of kidney)

Question 274

nephron components

Answer 274

1) renal corpuscle: spherical, contains glomerulus (bundle of BVs) and glomerular capsule 2) renal tubule: PCT, nephron loop, DCT

Question 275

renal corpuscle function

Answer 275

- filter blood - produce glomerular filtrate (enters capsular space)

Question 276

renal tubule function

Answer 276

- modifies glomerular filtrate through reabsorption/secretion

Question 277

types of nephrons

Answer 277

1) cortical (85%): primarily in cortex, produce glomerular filtrate 2) juxtamedullary nephrons (15%): close to junction between cortex and medulla, extend into medulla, produce filtrate and ALSO create/maintain osmotic gradient in renal interstitium

Question 278

importance of renal interstitium osmotic gradient

Answer 278

- concentration of urine - modification of filtrate as it passes through

Question 279

nephron blood supply

Answer 279

1) renal artery 2) segmental 3) interlobar 4) arcuate 5) cortical radiate 6) afferent arterioles in nephron: 7) glomerulus 8) efferent arteriole 9) peritubular capillaries or vasa recta 10) venules 11) same veins, except no segmental veins

Question 280

peritubular capillaries

Answer 280

- around PCT/DCT - gas, nutrient, waste exchange

Question 281

vasa recta

Answer 281

- around nephron loop - gas, nutrient, waste, exchange

Question 282

afferent vs efferent arteriole

Answer 282

- afferent wider - creates increased hydrostatic pressure that drives H2O and low MW molecules through filter to form filtrate

Question 283

urine formation

Answer 283

renal corpuscle: 1) glomerular filtration: movement of substances from blood within glomerulus to capsular space renal tubule and collecting duct: 2) tubular reabsorption: movement of substances back to blood from tubular fluid (most) 3) tubular secretion: movement of substances from blood to tubular fluid

Question 284

glomerular capsule layers

Answer 284

1) parietal layer: simple squamous cells 2) capsular space: contains glomerular filtrate 3) visceral layer: specialized cells (podocytes) with bulging nuclei and interlaced digits

Question 285

glomerulus structure

Answer 285

1) vascular pole: where afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole enter 2) tubular pole: PCT 3) DCT closely associated with arterioles

Question 286

filtration membrane in kidney

Answer 286

- negatively charged - three layers: 1) fenestration of glomerular endothelial cells: prevents blood cells, but all other plasma components can flow through 2) basal lamina of glomerulus: blocks larger proteins 3) slit membrane between podocytes (pedicels): blocks medium-sized proteins

Question 287

PCT characteristics

Answer 287

- located in cortex - simple cuboidal with very dense microvilli: most absorption in PCT

Question 288

PCT functions

Answer 288

- active reabsorption of ions, nutrients, vitamins, plasma proteins from filtrate to peritubular fluid (H2O follows passively), peritubular capillaries return these to general circulation - active secretion of organic acids/bases, metabolites, drugs into PCT lumen

Question 289

nephron loop characteristics

Answer 289

- descending limb - ascending limb: impermeable to water, actively pumps Na/Cl out of tubular fluid to concentrate interstitial fluid, drawing water with it (reabsorption), vasa recta returns to circulation - each has thick (simple cuboidal) and thin (simple squamous) segment - most water and NaCl reclaimed at this point

Question 290

DCT characteristics

Answer 290

- in cortex, passes vascular pole in renal corpuscle between afferent/efferent arterioles - simple cuboidal with FEW, BLUNT microvilli - smaller diameter than PCT - shorter than PCT

Question 291

DCT function

Answer 291

- active secretion of K/H into tubular fluid - reabsorption of NaCl, H2O when aldosterone and ADH present

Question 292

PCT vs DCT on H&E stain

Answer 292

- PCT: bigger cells, not every cell has nucleus, fuzzy lumen - DCT: smaller cells all with nuclei, empty lumen

Question 293

juxtaglomerular complex function

Answer 293

- regulate glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and blood pressure - ex. BP drop = lower Na in filtrate = SyNS input and release of renin

Question 294

juxtaglomerular complex components

Answer 294

1) macula densa: modified epithelial cells in DCT, monitor [Na] in fluid 2) juxtaglomerular cells: modified (contractile to secretory) smooth muscle cells of afferent arteriole, monitor BP and innervated by SyNS for renin secretion (increases BP) 3) extraglomerular mesangial cells: surround and support vascular pole, FN not well understood

Question 295

juxtaglomerular complex histology

Answer 295

1) macula densa: cells more columnar, contact afferent arteriole 2) juxtaglomerular cells: hard to see, but near afferent arteriole 3) extraglomerular mesangial cells: in space between afferent and efferent arterioles

Question 296

collecting system function

Answer 296

- transport fluid from DCT to minor calyx - make final adjustments to osmotic concentrations and volume - ADH controls permeability ex. dehydration = more ADH = more H2O reabsorption = more concentrated urine

Question 297

collecting system comonents

Answer 297

1) collecting tubules 2) collecting ducts 3) papillary ducts

Question 298

collecting system histology

Answer 298

- tubules = simple cuboidal - ducts = simple columnar - collecting ducts have pale staining principal cells with few organelles and DISTINCT cell borders

Question 299

ureter location

Answer 299

- retroperitoneal - extend from renal pelvis to posterolateral wall of bladder (oblique angle)

Question 300

ureter layers

Answer 300

1) mucosa: transitional epithelium and lamina propria 2) smooth muscular layer: longitudinal inner, circular outer 3) adventitia (CT)

Question 301

bladder location

Answer 301

- posterior to pubic symphysis - retroperitoneal (superior surface covered with peritoneum) - shape and location differ in M/F

Question 302

urethra location

Answer 302

- from urinary bladder to exterior - longer in males - shorter in females, UTIs more common

Question 303

bladder features

Answer 303

1) rugae: formed by mucosal folds, allow for greater distension 2) trigone region: smooth, funnels urine from ureters to urethra 3) internal urethral sphincter: only in males, organized smooth muscle 4) detrusor muscle: 3 layers, contract to expel urine

Question 304

urethra structure in males

Answer 304

1) prostatic urethra: goes through prostate 2) membranous urethra: passes through external urethral sphincter 3) spongy: penis

Question 305

bladder layers

Answer 305

1) mucosa: transitional epithelium and lamina propria 2) submucosa 3) thick detrusor muscle 4) adventitia

Question 306

urethra histology

Answer 306

- large longitudinal folds around lumen - surrounded by bundles of smooth muscle - females: stratified squamous - males: changes from transitional --> stratified columnar/pseudostratified columnar --> stratified squamous

Question 307

micturation control

Answer 307

1) bladder not full: SyNS (T11-L2) inhibit detrusor contraction, stimulate internal urethral sphincter 2) bladder full: baroreceptors and sensory axons (T11-L2) relay info to brain, PSyNS stimulate detrusor contraction and relax internal sphincter, somatic motor (S2-S4) relax external urethral sphincter

Question 308

exocrine gland

Answer 308

- duct connects gland to external environment - secretory cells release chemical products onto epithelial surface via duct - ex. eccrine sweat glands

Question 309

endocrine glands

Answer 309

- no connection to epithelial layer = ductless - secrete chemical products (hormones) into surrounding tissue --> blood stream - ex. endocrine pancreas

Question 310

endocrine organs

Answer 310

1) CNS: hypothalamus, pituitary gland 2) thoracic cavity: thyroid, parathyroid 3) abdominal cavity: adrenal/suprarenal, pancreas

Question 311

endocrine system functions

Answer 311

- secrete hormones that act on receptors that modulate the biochemistry of target cells - maintain homeostasis through endocrine reflexes and feedback loops

Question 312

characteristics of endocrine organs

Answer 312

- clusters or cords of secretory cells - surrounded by supportive dense irregular CT - highly vascularized with fenestrated (most) or sinusoidal capillaries

Question 313

neural vs endocrine signaling

Answer 313

1) same function = regulate body functions to maintain homeostasis 2) mechanism: electrical signaling and chemical neurotransmitters through nervous system ("wired") vs chemical hormones distributed through CV system ("wireless"), BOTH act on specific receptors 3) speed: relatively fast vs slow 4) effect duration: short vs long-term 5) recovery: fast vs slow, BOTH regulated by feedback loops 6) location: localized/specific vs widespread/diffuse

Question 314

types of hormones

Answer 314

1) amino acid derivatives 2) peptide hormones: largest class 3) steroid hormones

Question 315

endocrine reflex

Answer 315

1) stimulus 2) integrating center 3) hormone 1 4) integrating center 5) hormone 2 6) target tissue 7) response *feedback can be negative or positive

Question 316

types of endocrine stimuli

Answer 316

1) humoral: changes in extracellular fluid composition 2) hormonal: changes in hormonal levels 3) neural: presence of neurotransmitter at neuroglandular junction

Question 317

hypothalamus mechanisms

Answer 317

- coordination center, regulates nervous and endocrine system by: 1) secreting regulatory hormones 2) functioning as an endocrine organ 3) direct neural control (endocrine cells of adrenal gland)

Question 318

hypothalamus regulatory hormones

Answer 318

- control endocrine cells in anterior pituitary gland - two classes: 1) releasing: stimulate synthesis and secretion of hormones 2) inhibiting: prevent

Question 319

hypothalamus endocrine organ function

Answer 319

- neurons directly synthesizing hormones, transport to posterior pituitary - released at posterior pituitary - ex. ADH, oxytocin

Question 320

hypothalamus direct neural control

Answer 320

- ANS centers control autonomic output - SyNS activation = suprarenal medulla release of hormones into circulation

Question 321

pituitary gland functions

Answer 321

1) tropic functions: modulate other endocrine glands 2) non-tropic functions: act directly on non-endocrine systems

Question 322

pituitary structure

Answer 322

1) infundibulum: stalk portion connecting hypothalamus and pituitary glands 2) anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) 3) posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis, pars nervosa) 4) sella turcica: hypophyseal fossa of spehnoid, houses glands

Question 323

anterior pituitary divisions

Answer 323

1) pars distalis: most distal 2) pars intermedia: separates anterior/posterior 3) pars tuberalis: forms part of infundibulum

Question 324

anterior pituitary control

Answer 324

- regulatory hormones from hypothalamus via hypophyseal portal system

Question 325

hypophyseal portal system

Answer 325

1) superior hypophyseal artery: branch from internal carotid 2) primary capillary plexus: hypothalamic neurons release hormones here 3) hypothalamic portal veins: carry hormones to AP 4) secondary capillary plexus: regulatory hormones modulate AP activity, AP release hormones here 5) hypophyseal veins: drain blood into general circulation via cavernous sinus

Question 326

anterior pituitary cell types

Answer 326

1) chromophils i) acidophils: prolactin, growth hormones ii) basophils: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH (FLAT) 2) chromophobes: don't stain well

Question 327

anterior pituitary histology

Answer 327

- acidophils = eosinophilic - basophils = basophilic - chromophobes = don't stain - more basophilic (darker) than posterior pituitary

Question 328

posterior pituitary control

Answer 328

- axons from paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of hypothalamus travel through infundibulum to PP - hormones produced by PVN/SON travel along axon to synaptic terminals of PP --> released into interstitium, taken up by capillaries - SON = ADH - PVN = oxytocin

Question 329

posterior pituitary blood supply

Answer 329

1) inferior hypophyseal artery: branch from meningohypophyseal trunk of internal carotid 2) hypohpyseal veins: drain released ADH and oxytocin to general circulation

Question 330

posterior pituitary histology

Answer 330

1) herring bodies: intense staining clusters = terminal end of axons where hormones are stored 2) blood vessels 3) pituicytes: glial cells *very eosinophilic

Question 331

ADH function

Answer 331

- act on kidneys and circulatory system for water reabsorption and increasing BV/BP

Question 332

oxytocin function

Answer 332

- female reproductive system - uterine contractions (positive feedback loop)

Question 333

FSH/LH function

Answer 333

- hypothalamic hormone = GnRH - follicular cells in ovary, nurse/interstitial cells of testes - FSH = estrogen secretion, sperm maturation - LH = testosterone secretion, ovulation

Question 334

TSH function

Answer 334

- hypothalamic hormone = TRH - thyroid gland hormone production

Question 335

prolactin function

Answer 335

- hypothalamic hormone = PRH - mammary gland milk production

Question 336

growth hormone function

Answer 336

- hypothalamic hormone = GHRH - liver, bone, muscle - growth, protein synthesis, lipid metabolism

Question 337

ACTH function

Answer 337

- hypothalamic hormone = CRH - adrenal gland glucocorticoid production

Question 338

thyroid gland characteristics

Answer 338

- two lobes connected by isthmus, created by surrounding DICT capsule - butterfly-shaped - anterior surface of trachea: cartilage ring 2-3 - easily palpable with fingers, especially when enlarged (goiter) - highly vascularized

Question 339

thyroid arterial supply

Answer 339

1) external carotid artery --> superior thyroid artery 2) subclavian artery --> thyrocervical trunk, inferior thyroid artery

Question 340

thyroid venous drainage

Answer 340

1) internal jugular veins --> superior thyroid and middle thyroid veins 2) brachiocephalic vein --> inferior thyroid vein

Question 341

thyroid gland structure

Answer 341

- enclosed in fibrous capsule that sends trabeculae deep into the gland = irregular lobules - functional unit = thyroid follicle (spherical) - follicular cells = thyrocytes - parafollicular (C) cells between thyroid follicles

Question 342

thyroid follicle

Answer 342

- simple cuboidal epithelium (can change to columnar if more active) - cavity filled with colloid (viscous fluid)

Question 343

thyrocyte functions

Answer 343

1) synthesize thyroglobulin (prohormone) 2) secrete colloid --> become iodinated 3) breakdown to form thyroid hormones: thyroxine (T4, storage) and triiodothyronine (T3, active form)

Question 344

parafollicular (C) cell function

Answer 344

- secrete calcitonin, which decreases [Ca]: 1) inhibits osteoclast activity 2) stimulates Ca excretion at kidneys

Question 345

hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis

Answer 345

1) low body temperature 2) hypothalamus: releases TRH 3) anterior pituitary: releases TSH 4) thyroid: produces thyroid hormones 5) increase metabolic rate, increase body temperature 6) negative feedback to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary through homeostasis restoration

Question 346

parathyroid glands location

Answer 346

- 4 pea-sized, located on posterior aspect of thyroid gland - two superior, two inferior

Question 347

parathyroid blood supply

Answer 347

- superior = superior thyroid arteries - inferior = inferior thyroid arteries - venous drainage same as thyroid gland

Question 348

parathyroid characteristics

Answer 348

- surrounded by CT capsule that forms irregular lobules - two specialized cell types: 1) parathyroid cells (chief/principal): produce parathyroid hormone 2) oxyphil cells: immature/inactive parathyroid cells

Question 349

parathyroid gland control

Answer 349

- humoral stimulus = [Ca] in circulation - decrease in Ca stimulates PTH secretion

Question 350

PTH function

Answer 350

1) stimulate osteoclasts and osteoblasts (needed to activate osteoclasts) 2) reduce urinary Ca excretion 3) stimulate calcitriol production (kidney, increases intestinal absorption of Ca)

Question 351

parathyroid gland histology

Answer 351

- very cellular - oxyphil cells: more cytoplasm

Question 352

adrenal (suprarenal) gland characteristics

Answer 352

- pyramid-shaped - one on each superior pole of kidney (retroperitoneal) - CT capsule - highly vascularized - two regions: cortex (superficial) and medulla (deep)

Question 353

adrenal arterial supply

Answer 353

1) abdominal aorta --> superior and middle adrenal arteries 2) renal artery --> inferior adrenal arteries

Question 354

adrenal cortex characteristics

Answer 354

- cells with high lipid content that secrete 24 types of steroid hormones (adrenocortical steroids) - three layers (superficial to deep): 1) zona glomerulosa: cells in densely packed clusters ("glomeruli), produce mineralocorticoids ex. aldosterone 2) zona fasciculata: cells in radiating cords, separated by fenestrated capillaries, produce glucocorticoids ex. cortisol 3) zona reticularis: reticular network of small cells, produce androgens

Question 355

adrenal medulla characteristics

Answer 355

- primarily chromaffin cells: large, rounded, resemble sympathetic ganglia neuron (modified postganglionic sympathetic neuron) - two types of endocrine cells that secrete catecholamines: 80% epinephrine, 20% NE

Question 356

adrenal medulla innervation

Answer 356

- by sympathetic preganglionic neurons --> splenic nerve --> target cells

Question 357

adrenal medulla function

Answer 357

- trigger utilization of cellular energy to increase muscle strength and endurance

Question 358

hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

Answer 358

1) stress 2) hypothalamus releases corticotropin releasing hormone 3) anterior pituitary releases ACTH 4) adrenal cortex releases cortisol 5) stress response *4/5 act as negative feedback on hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

Question 359

pancreas characteristics

Answer 359

- retroperitoneal - head, body, tail - mixed gland: acini/ducts are exocrine (99%), pancreatic islets are endocrine

Question 360

pancreas blood supply

Answer 360

- pancreatic branches of: 1) splenic artery 2) pancreaticoduodenal arteries

Question 361

pancreatic islets characteristics

Answer 361

- aka islet of langerhans - surrounded by CT - fenestrated capillaries - ANS input through celiac plexus

Question 362

pancreatic islet cell types

Answer 362

1) alpha cells: glucagon 2) beta cells: insulin 3) delta cells: somatostatin, inhibits alpha/beta cell production 4) F cells (least common): pancreatic polypeptide, inhibits gallbladder contraction, regulates enzyme production (overall slows digestion) *cannot be distinguished on H&E stain

Question 363

low blood glucose reflex

Answer 363

1) alpha cells release glucagon 2) increased glycogen breakdown in liver 3) increase blood glucose

Question 364

high blood glucose reflex

Answer 364

1) beta cells release insulin 2) stimulates glucose uptake 3) more glycogen formation in liver 4) decrease blood glucose

Question 365

reproductive system components

Answer 365

1) primary sex organs = gonads = testes and ovaries 2) accessory organs

Question 366

gonads function

Answer 366

- produce haploid gametes and sex hormones - ovary = oocytes, estrogen, progesterone - testes = sperm, androgens - gametes fuse to form diploid zygote

Question 367

activation of reproductive systems

Answer 367

- primarily non-functional until puberty, when hypothalamus releases GnRH - acts on ant. pituitary = FSH/LH release - at puberty: external sex characteristics develop, gametes mature and gonads start to secrete sex hormones

Question 368

components of male reproductive system

Answer 368

1) genital ducts: ductus (vas) deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, epididymis 2) external genitalia: penis, scrotum, testes 3) accessory glands: seminal, prostate, bulbourethral

Question 369

testes descent purpose

Answer 369

- for temperature regulation: sperm must be below body temp to be viable

Question 370

testes descent time

Answer 370

- between 3rd month of gestation and birth

Question 371

testes descent

Answer 371

- go from retroperitoneal position to external - descent from posterior abdominal wall into scrotum

Question 372

gubernaculum testes

Answer 372

- cord of CT and muscle fibers anchored to scrotum - does not elongate, eventually shortens - pulls testes through layers of abdominal wall (via inguinal canal)

Question 373

testes descent steps

Answer 373

1) testes anchored by gubernaculum to developing scrotum 2) pulled through abdominal wall during growth: deep inguinal ring formed passing through transversalis fascia 3) peritoneum evaginates at deep inguinal ring = processus vaginalis (does not pass through! only guides) 4) evagination continues through inguinal canal: superficial inguinal ring formed passing through external oblique aponeurosis 5) descent complete by birth: processes vaginalis closes off and forms tunica vaginalis

Question 374

inguinal canal

Answer 374

- between deep and superficial inguinal rings

Question 375

testes descent: layers of abdominal wall

Answer 375

1) does NOT pass through peritoneum 2) transversalis fascia 3) does NOT pass through transversus abdominis 4) internal oblique muscle 5) external oblique muscle/aponeurosis

Question 376

spermatic cord

Answer 376

- structures passing between abdominopelvic cavities and the testes and fascial coverings

Question 377

spermatic cord wall

Answer 377

1) external spermatic fascia 2) cremaster muscle (smooth) and fascia 3) internal spermatic fascia

Question 378

cremaster muscle function

Answer 378

- temperature control - contracts to bring testes closer when cold

Question 379

dartos muscle

Answer 379

- in superficial fascia under scrotum - temperature control: contracts to bring testes closer

Question 380

scrotum

Answer 380

- homologous to labia majora - covers testes

Question 381

spermatic cord contents

Answer 381

1) ductus deferens and artery to ductus deferens 2) testicular artery and pampiniform plexus 3) branch of genitofemoral nerve and autonomic nerves 4) lymphatics

Question 382

pampiniform plexus

Answer 382

- extensive vein network - cools blood entering into testes

Question 383

abdominal wall --> coverings of spermatic cord

Answer 383

1) peritoneum = tunica vaginalis 2) transversalis fascia = internal spermatic fascia 3) transversus abdominis muscle = nothing, not passed through 4) internal oblique muscle/fascia = cremasteric muscle/fascia 5) external oblique aponeurosis = external spermatic fascia 6) subcutaneous tissue = dartos fascia/muscle 7) skin = skin

Question 384

inguinal hernias

Answer 384

- weakened parts of abdominal wall result in protrusion of peritoneal sac - with or without abdominal contents ex. intestine

Question 385

indirect inguinal hernia

Answer 385

- peritoneal sac enters inguinal canal VIA deep inguinal ring - passes LATERAL to inferior epigastric vessels - cause: embryonic processus vaginalis remains open - commonly congenital

Question 386

direct inguinal hernias

Answer 386

- peritoneal sac enters inguinal canal DIRECTLY - passes MEDIAL to inferior epigastric vessels - cause: weakening in abdominal wall - commonly acquired

Question 387

cryptorchidism

Answer 387

- one or both testes fail to descend - higher proportion of inviable sperm produced

Question 388

testes structures

Answer 388

1) tunica vaginalis: serous membrane, parietal and visceral layers line scrotal cavity (containing serous fluid) 2) tunica albuginea: fibrous CT capsule, forms septa lobules 3) septa: subdivide internal space into lobules containing... 4) seminiferous tubules: blind end or loop, contain sustentacular and dividing germ cells 5) ducts: straight tubules --> rete testis --> efferent ductule, which goes to epididymis 6) raphe: ridge of tissue extending from anus to scrotum

Question 389

testes histology

Answer 389

1) outer tunica albuginea 2) seminiferous tubules 3) interstitial cells between = hormone production

Question 390

seminiferous tubules

Answer 390

- site of spermatogenesis - complex stratified epithelium containing sustentacular and spermatogenic cells

Question 391

sustentacular cells

Answer 391

- protection and nourishment for sperm cells - produce inhibit when sperm count is high (inhibits FSH secretion) - secured together by tight junctions = blood-testes barrier

Question 392

blood-testis barrier

Answer 392

- protects sperm from immune system

Question 393

interstitial cells

Answer 393

- produce androgens ex. testosterone - located between seminiferous tubules in loose CT along with BVs, nerves, lymphatics

Question 394

myoid cells

Answer 394

- unique contractile cells - expel contents of seminiferous tubules

Question 395

seminiferous tubule histology

Answer 395

1) myoid cells = outer edge, flattened nuclei 2) interstitial cells = outside 3) sustentacular cell = lighter stain, extend entire tubular wall 4) outer to inner (least to most mature): a) spermatogonium = dark nucleus b) primary spermatocyte = speckled c) secondary spermatocyte d) spermatid = smaller, not speckled e) spermatozoon = tails

Question 396

testes duct system function

Answer 396

- store sperm - transport sperm as they mature and pass out of the body (or die) - facilitate transport through smooth muscle stimulated by oxytocin

Question 397

testes duct system components

Answer 397

1) rete testes 2) efferent ductules 3) epididymis: head, body, tail 4) ductus deferens

Question 398

rete testis

Answer 398

- complex anastomotic network - simple cuboidal with microvilli - receive from straight tubule

Question 399

efferent ductules

Answer 399

- ciliated and non-ciliated columnar - absorb excess fluid secreted by seminiferous tubules

Question 400

epididymis function

Answer 400

- accumulation, storage and maturation (learn to swim) of sperm - uptake and digestion of luminal fluid and degenerated sperm

Question 401

epididymis structure

Answer 401

- highly coiled tube - pseudostratified columnar epithelium with LONG microvilli ("sterocilia") - principal cells = tall, columnar - basal cells = small, round - circular layer of smooth muscle

Question 402

ductus deferens structure

Answer 402

- thick-walled tube within spermatic cord - connects epididymis to prostatic urethra - ends at large ampulla (posterior to bladder) - unites with proximal seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct - empties into prostatic urethra (common with urine)

Question 403

ductus deferens layers

Answer 403

1) mucosa: pseudostratified columnar with few stereocilia + lamina propria 2) muscularis: inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal 3) adventitia

Question 404

accessory gland general functions

Answer 404

- produce/secrete ~95% of seminal fluid to support sperm survival - smooth muscle contraction with SyNS during emission

Question 405

accessory glands specific functions

Answer 405

1) seminal vesicle/gland: secretions with fructose for energy 2) prostate gland: multiple ducts that secrete milky, nutrient rich fluid 3) bulbourethral glands: clear, viscous mucin for lubrication

Question 406

accessory gland locations

Answer 406

1) seminal: lateral to vas deferens, empty into ejaculatory duct 2) prostate gland: around prostatic urethra 3) bulbourethral: embedded in urogenital diaphragm, empty into membranous/spongy urethra

Question 407

perineum

Answer 407

- diamond-shaped area between thighs - inferior to pelvic diaphragm - consists of: 1) urogenital triangle: pubis symphysis, ischiopubic rami to ischial tuberosities 2) anal triangle: ischial tuberosities and coccyx

Question 408

urogenital triangle components

Answer 408

1) base of penis and scrotum OR clitoris 2) urethral and/or vaginal orifices 3) perineal membrane 4) skeletal muscles around external genitalia

Question 409

anal triangle components

Answer 409

1) anus

Question 410

penis function

Answer 410

- conduct urine and semen

Question 411

penis structure

Answer 411

1) bulb connects to body 2) crus of penis: attaches to perineum 3) root: fixed portion in urogenital triangle 4) body: suspended from pubic symphysis 5) glans: expanded, cap-like end of corpus spongiosum (covered by prepuce in uncircumcised person) 6) three parallel erectile columns: homologous to clitoris

Question 412

penis erectile columns

Answer 412

1) bilateral corpora cavernosa: dorsal (anatomical position = erect), surrounded by tunica albuginea 2) corpus spongiosum: ventral, containing spongy urethra * all encased in fascia and skin

Question 413

corpus cavernosa relative anatomy

Answer 413

- diverge as crura of penis - fuse to ischiopubic rami - covered by ischiocavernosus

Question 414

corpus spongiosum relative anatomy

Answer 414

- expands as bulb of penis - fuses to underside of perineal membrane - covered by bulbospongiosus

Question 415

perineal muscles in male

Answer 415

- skeletal - ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus

Question 416

penis blood supply

Answer 416

1) internal iliac artery 2) branches to dorsal and deep arteries 3) deep arteries branch and open into cavernous spaces of erectile tissue 4) arteriovenous anastomoses between deep artery branches and deep dorsal vein

Question 417

erectile tissue structure

Answer 417

- vascular spaces with smooth muscle and elastic CT trabeculae

Question 418

erection

Answer 418

- PSyNS relaxes trabecular and vascular smooth muscles - tunica albuginea limits filling of cavernous spaces = compression of dorsal veins traps blood

Question 419

emission

Answer 419

- SyNS input = peristalsis in ductus deferens and accessory glands

Question 420

ejaculation

Answer 420

- reflexive somatic input = rhythmic contraction of striated muscle surrounding bulb and crura of penis

Question 421

female reproductive system components

Answer 421

1) two ovaries 2) uterine tube 3) uterus 4) peritoneum creates recesses: vesicouterine and rectouterine pouches 5) external genitalia: mons pubis, clitoris, labia minora/majora 6) vagina 7) vestibule

Question 422

descent of ovaries

Answer 422

1) ovaries anchored by gubernaculum 2) growth causes ovaries to descend to pelvic brim (stays internal) 3) portion of gubernaculum attaches to uterus, splits to form: ovarian and round ligaments

Question 423

ovary/uterus ligaments

Answer 423

1) ovarian: ovary to uterus 2) round: uterus to labia majora, travels through inguinal canal 3) broad: drape of peritoneum where anterior and posterior layers connect, connects to ovary at hilum 4) suspensory: ovarian to pelvic wall, contains ovarian BVs, nerves and lymphatics

Question 424

ovaries

Answer 424

- paired, oval - anchored by specific cords and sheets of CT - no peritoneum, in peritoneal cavity

Question 425

ovary and uterine tube connection

Answer 425

- not directly connected - space between

Question 426

broad ligament contents

Answer 426

- subdivisions contain VANs, lymphatics

Question 427

ovary histology

Answer 427

outer to inner: 1) germinal (surface) epithelium: simple cuboidal (mesothelium) 2) tunica albuginea: dense irregular CT 3) cortex: contains ovarian follicles 4) medulla: areolar CT, BVs, Ls, Ns

Question 428

oogenesis

Answer 428

- production of primordial germ cells begins before birth (halted in prophase I = primary oocyte)

Question 429

atresia

Answer 429

- primordial germ cells degenerating throughout childhood (programmed cell death)

Question 430

ovarian cycle

Answer 430

- post puberty - monthly sequence of follicular development regulated by GnRH (affects FSH and LH levels) - follicular (1-14) and luteal phase (15-28)

Question 431

follicular pahse

Answer 431

- stimulated by increasing FSH - primordial follicles (many) --> primary --> secondary --> mature (primary oocyte differentiates into secondary and polar body)

Question 432

primordial follicle

Answer 432

- primary oocyte - simple squamous follicle cells - outer surface has thin basal lamina

Question 433

primary follicle

Answer 433

- simple cuboidal cells that undergo stratification to form granulosa layer (uni to multilaminar) - surrounding stroma (CT + smooth muscle) forms thecal layers (interna and externa) - zona pellucida around primary oocyte

Question 434

zona pellucida

Answer 434

- protective acellular layer around oocyte - contains sperm receptors - "clear"

Question 435

which cells secrete estrogen precursors?

Answer 435

- granulosa - theca interna

Question 436

secondary follicle

Answer 436

- primary oocyte - many granulosa cell layers - follicular fluid accumulates = become one continuous space = antrum - granulosa cells form cumulus oophorus: attaches oocyte to follicular wall - corona radiata: cells of CO that immediately surround oocyte

Question 437

mature follicle

Answer 437

- one predominant follicle - extends thickness of cortex - antrum increases in size - stratum granulosa thins - oocyte and cumulus cells loosen from surrounding granulosum = prep for ovulation - thecal cells become more prominent - secondary oocyte halted in meiosis II until fertilized

Question 438

fate of immature follicles

Answer 438

- atresia (majority)

Question 439

luteal phase

Answer 439

- remaining granulosa cells + theca interna of ruptured follicle = corpus luteum, secretes progesterone and estrogens to prepare uterine lining for implantation

Question 440

ovulation

Answer 440

- surge of LH causes release of secondary oocyte into peritoneal cavity

Question 441

corpus luteum vs granulosa/theca interna cells

Answer 441

- increase in size, fill with lipids

Question 442

end of luteal phase if no sperm

Answer 442

- corpus albicans = dense CT scar from degenerating corpus luteum - estrogen and progesterone decrease = uterine lining shed

Question 443

end of luteal phase if there is sperm

Answer 443

- secondary oocyte fertilized, may implant in uterine wall - pre-embryo produces human chorionic gonadotropic (hCG) hormone - hCG maintains corpus luteum, which continues to secrete progesterone - after 3 months: placenta takes over, corpus luteum degenerates

Question 444

polycystic ovary disease

Answer 444

- multiple follicular cysts - thickness of tunica albuginea prevents ovulation of mature follicle

Question 445

uterine tube structure

Answer 445

1) uterine part 2) isthmus 3) ampulla: expanded region where fertilization typically occurs 4) infundibulum: funnel-like area with fimbriae that sweep secondary oocyte into tube

Question 446

uterine tube histology

Answer 446

1) columnar (ciliated and non-ciliated) epithelium 2) lamina propria 3) smooth muscle: inner circular, outer longitudinal 4) serosa

Question 447

uterus support

Answer 447

- thick, muscular wall - pelvic floor (inferior) - ligaments: cardinal (transverse cervical), uterosacral, round

Question 448

uterus epithelium

Answer 448

- simple columnar - transitions to stratified squamous nonkeratinized passing through cervix and vagina

Question 449

uterus structure

Answer 449

1) fundus 2) body with uterine cavity 3) isthmus: narrowing 4) cervical canal

Question 450

internal/external os

Answer 450

1) internal = cervical opening from uterus (simple columnar to simple cuboidal) 2) external = cervical opening to vagina (simple cuboidal to stratified squamous nonkeratinized)

Question 451

cardinal (transverse cervical) ligaments

Answer 451

- under broad ligament - cervix to pelvic wall - prevents inferior movement of uterus

Question 452

uterosacral ligament

Answer 452

- attaches to sacrum (posterior side of uterus) - restricts inferior and anterior movement of uterus

Question 453

round ligament of uterus

Answer 453

- anterior side - attaches to external genitalia - prevents inferior and posterior movement of uterus

Question 454

prolapse

Answer 454

- weakness of pelvic floor and/or ligaments causes uterus to fall through into vagina - varying degrees

Question 455

uterine wall layers

Answer 455

1) perimetrium: outer, mostly serosa, continuous with broad ligament 2) myometrium: middle, 3 concentric layers of smooth muscle 3) endometrium: innermost mucosa = simple columnar (some ciliated, others secretory) + lamina propria (with uterine glands)

Question 456

uterine wall blood supply

Answer 456

1) branch from internal iliac artery (from aorta --> 2x common iliac --> internal) 2) uterine artery 3) arcuate artery = myometrium 4) radial artery = myometrium 5) straight artery = basal layer of endometrium 6) spiral artery = functional layer of endometrium

Question 457

endometrium layers

Answer 457

1) basal: highly cellular lamina propria, uterine glands 2) functional: sparser (spongier) lamina propria, more ground substance, includes most of length of glands and superficial epithelium --> lost during menstruation

Question 458

menstruation mechanism

Answer 458

- spiral arteries retract - functional endometrium loses blood supply

Question 459

uterine cycle

Answer 459

- cyclical changes to endometrial lining under influence of estrogens and progesterone 1-7 = menstrual phase ~10 = proliferative ~14 = secretory

Question 460

inhibin in females

Answer 460

produced by granulosa cells, inhibits FSH production

Question 461

menstrual phase

Answer 461

- triggered by decreasing progesterone and estrogen - spiral arteries contract, superficial becomes ischemic - degeneration and sloughing of functional layer

Question 462

proliferative phase

Answer 462

- increasing estrogen from developing follicles - cellular proliferation to regenerate functional layer (uterine epithelium, glands and spiral arteries) - glands secrete glycogen and rich mucus

Question 463

secretory phase

Answer 463

- begins after ovulation, persists as long as corpus luteum is intact - stimulated by progesterone and estrogen from corpus luteum - glands enlarge and accelerate secretion rate

Question 464

vagina structure

Answer 464

- fibromuscular tube with three layers: 1) mucosa: stratified squamous nonkeratinized + lamina propria 2) muscular layer (thinner than uterus) 3) adventitia - greater vestibular glands around vestibule: area between labia minora

Question 465

vagina acidic environment

Answer 465

- discourages bacterial growth - necessitates buffering capacity of seminal fluid

Question 466

vagina connections

Answer 466

- vaginal canal connects cervix to external environment

Question 467

urogenital triangle in females

Answer 467

- covered by perineal membrane - provides attachment for erectile tissue of external genitalia (vulva)

Question 468

female external genitalia arrangement

Answer 468

1) mons pubis = skin and adipose tissue 2) labia majora = paired thickened folds of skin, homologous to scrotum 3) labia minora = paired folds, no hair, more medial than majora 4) vestibule: contains urethral (anterior) and vaginal openings

Question 469

female erectile tissue

Answer 469

1) clitoris: crura, body, glans = homologous to penis 2) bulbs of vestibule: bilateral, deep to vestibule, connected to clitoris, homologous to bulb of penis

Question 470

perineal muscles in female

Answer 470

- bulbospongiosus over bulbs of vestibule - ischiocavernosus over crura of clitoris - propel blood into body and glans of clitoris - skeletal muscle

Question 471

upper limb bone divisions

Answer 471

1) shoulder: pectoral girdle 2) arm: humerus 3) forearm: radius, ulna 4) hand: carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

Question 472

upper limb bone count

Answer 472

32 in total

Question 473

pectoral girdle components

Answer 473

clavicle and scapula

Question 474

pectoral girdle function

Answer 474

- connects upper limb to axial skeleton - attachment site for muscles

Question 475

sternoclavicular joint

Answer 475

- clavicle + manubrium (sternum) - only articulation between upper limb and axial skeleton

Question 476

clavicle function

Answer 476

- strut: allows range of movement - protects upper limb - transmits shock from upper limb to axial skeleton

Question 477

clavicle surfaces

Answer 477

- smooth superior - rough inferior: for ligamentous connections

Question 478

clavicle structure

Answer 478

1) acromial end 2) shaft 3) sternal end

Question 479

scapula bone type

Answer 479

flat bone

Question 480

scapula anterior vs posterior surface

Answer 480

- posterior has spine and acromion - anterior has coracoid process

Question 481

scapula borders

Answer 481

1) superior 2) lateral 3) medial

Question 482

scapula angles

Answer 482

1) superior 2) inferior 3) lateral

Question 483

scapula fossae and cavities

Answer 483

anterior: 1) subscapular fossa 2) glenoid cavity posterior: 3) supraspinous 4) infraspinous 5) suprascapular notch

Question 484

humerus bone type

Answer 484

long bone

Question 485

humerus articulations

Answer 485

- proximal glenohumeral joint: head (humerus) + glenoid cavity (scapula) - distal elbow joint: articulates with radius and ulna

Question 486

humerus anterior and posterior structures

Answer 486

1) head: 1/3 sphere, glenoid cavity = shallow = mobile joint 2) greater tubercle (lateral side) 3) anatomical neck 4) surgical neck: only bone with two necks, common breaking point 5) deltoid tuberosity (lateral): roughened area for deltoid attachment

Question 487

humerus anterior only structures

Answer 487

1) intertubercular sulcus 2) lesser tubercle: more medial 3) radial fossa: head of radius during elbow flexion 4) coronoid fossa: coronoid process of ulna during elbow flexion 5) lateral epicondyle: forearm muscle attachment 6) medial epicondyle: funny bone (nerve) presses against this 7) capitulum (lateral) 8) trochlea (medial)

Question 488

humerus posterior only structures

Answer 488

1) radial groove: radial nerve + artery 2) olecranon fossa: olecranon process of ulna during elbow extension

Question 489

radius and ulna bone types

Answer 489

long bones

Question 490

radius and ulna articulations

Answer 490

1) antebrachial interosseous membrane (DICT): holds bones together, separates anterior from posterior 2) proximal radioulnar joint: with humerus 3) distal radioulnar joint: with carpal bones

Question 491

ulna features

Answer 491

1) olecranon: forms elbow in olecranon fossa 2) coronoid process 3) trochlear notch: grips humerus trochlea 4) radial notch: radial articulation 5) ulnar tuberosity: muscle attachment 6) head of ulna (distal end!): ball of wrist 7) ulnar styloid process

Question 492

radius features

Answer 492

1) head of radius: articulates with radial notch of ulna 2) neck of radius 3) radial tuberosity: muscle attachment 4) radial styloid process 5) carpal articular surface: articulates with carpals

Question 493

ulna and radius relative location

Answer 493

ulna medial to radius

Question 494

carpal bone types

Answer 494

short bones (cube shaped)

Question 495

carpal bone arrangement

Answer 495

proximal row (lateral to medial): 1) scaphoid: biggest, commonly broken 2) lunate 3) triquetrum 4) pisiform distal row (lateral to medial): 5) trapezium: thumb bone 6) trapezoid 7) capitate 8) hamate: anterior side has hook of the hamate SOME LOVERS TRY POSITIONS THAT THEY CAN'T HANDLE

Question 496

carpal bone that can't be seen posteriorly

Answer 496

pisiform because lies on top of triquetrum

Question 497

metacarpal and phalange bone types

Answer 497

long bones

Question 498

metacarpal structure

Answer 498

each has base (attached to carpals), body and head

Question 499

metacarpal numbering

Answer 499

1-5 lateral to medial (thumb is one)

Question 500

phalange naming

Answer 500

- proximal, middle and distal (except thumb does not have middle)

Question 501

thumb anatomical name

Answer 501

pollex

Question 502

upper limb joint classification

Answer 502

- most are diarthrotic synovial joints - exceptions: 1) scapulothoracic joint: scapula + thoracic wall = not a true joint (no bone-bone articulation, no joint capsule) 2) antebrachial interosseous membrane: amphiarthrotic fibrous joint

Question 503

synovial joint classification

Answer 503

1) plane = uniaxial 2) pivot = uniaxial 3) saddle = biaxial 4) hinge = uniaxial 5) condylar (condyloid) = biaxial 6) ball and socket = multiaxial

Question 504

synovial joint structure

Answer 504

- double layered joint capsule: inner synovial, outer fibrous - creates joint cavity with synovial fluid - ligaments reinforce capsule (have unique names - articular cartilage along bones - some have bursae

Question 505

synovial fluid function

Answer 505

- lubrication - nourishes articular cartilage - shock absorber

Question 506

bursae function

Answer 506

- fibrous saclike structures filled with synovial fluid - alleviate friction

Question 507

carpometacarpal joint (CMC) classification

Answer 507

digit 1 = saddle, others = plane

Question 508

metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP) classification

Answer 508

condyloid

Question 509

proximal/distal interphalangeal joint (PIP) classification

Answer 509

hinge

Question 510

thumb movements

Answer 510

1) abduction: perpendicular away from pal 2) adduction 3) extension: parallel away from palm 4) flexion 5) opposition: connect thumb to other digits in front of palm

Question 511

CMC joint movement

Answer 511

- for digits 2-5: flex/ex

Question 512

MCP joint movement

Answer 512

- flex/ex - ab/adduction (middle finger considered midline)

Question 513

PIP joint movement

Answer 513

- flex/ex

Question 514

sternoclavicular joint type

Answer 514

- saddle synovial - acts as ball and socket

Question 515

sternoclavicular joint movements

Answer 515

- elevation/depression - anterior/posterior

Question 516

sternoclavicular joint features

Answer 516

1) articular disc: shock absorber from upper limb

Question 517

sternoclavicular joint ligaments

Answer 517

1) anterior/posterior sternoclavicular ligaments: reinforce capsule 2) interclavicular ligament 3) costoclavicular ligament: underside of clavicle

Question 518

acromioclavicular joint type

Answer 518

plane synovial, allows gliding

Question 519

acromioclavicular joint articulation

Answer 519

acromial end of clavicle + acromion of scapula

Question 520

acromioclavicular joint features

Answer 520

- articular disc - muscle fibers of trapezius help support the joint

Question 521

acromioclavicular joint ligaments

Answer 521

1) acromioclavicular ligament: intrinsic 2) coracoclavicular: extrinsic, attaches to underside of clavicle

Question 522

intrinsic vs extrinsic ligament

Answer 522

- intrinsic: part of joint, formed by thickening of joint capsule - extrinsic: not part of joint capsule

Question 523

glenohumeral joint (shoulder joint) type

Answer 523

ball and socket

Question 524

glenohumeral joint articulation

Answer 524

head of humerus (1/3) + glenoid cavity

Question 525

glenohumeral joint features

Answer 525

1) standard joint capsule 2) glenoid labrum: wraps around glenoid cavity, deepening it for more stability (more of head can fit)

Question 526

glenohumeral joint movements

Answer 526

1) flex/ex in sagittal plane 2) abd/add in frontal plane 3) horizonal abd/add in transverse plane 4) medial/lateral rotation in transverse plane

Question 527

glenohumeral joint supporting structures

Answer 527

1) inferior aspect of acromion and coracoid process support joint superiorly 2) rotator cuff muscles/tendons (absent inferiorly! common dislocation = moves inferior, pulled ant/post)

Question 528

glenohumeral joint ligaments

Answer 528

1) coracoacromial ligament: limits superior dislocation 2) intrinsic glenohumeral ligaments 3) coracohumeral ligament: inhibits excessive rotation

Question 529

glenohumeral joint bursae

Answer 529

1) subacromial 2) subdeltoid 3) tendinous sheath *all located in areas of friction

Question 530

glenohumeral joint muscle support

Answer 530

1) rotator cuffs on anterior/posterior 2) tendon of long head of biceps brachii: helps stabilize head of humerus

Question 531

shoulder separation

Answer 531

- acromioclavicular joint separated

Question 532

shoulder dislocation

Answer 532

- glenohumeral joint separated

Question 533

scapulothoracic joint type

Answer 533

- not a true joint! - no bone-bone articulation, instead separated by muscle - no capsule/ligaments

Question 534

scapulothoracic joint function

Answer 534

- enable free range of motion of the upper limb

Question 535

scapulothoracic joint movements

Answer 535

1) elevation/depression 2) retraction (scapula closer together) / protraction (move away from vertebral column 3) upward rotation: glenoid cavity and inferior angle point up, contributes to abduction of UL 4) downward rotation: glenoid cavity and inferior angle down, contributes to adduction of UL

Question 536

scapulothoracic joint supporting muscles

Answer 536

1) subscapularis: between thoracic wall and scapula 2) serratus anterior: wraps around thorax

Question 537

elbow joint type

Answer 537

- compound: more than one articulation - hinge synovial

Question 538

elbow joint articulations

Answer 538

1) humeroulnar: trochlea of humerus + trochlear notch of ulna 2) humeroradial articulation: capitulum of humerus and head of radius 3) proximal radio-ulnar joint: within articular capsule

Question 539

elbow joint movements

Answer 539

flex/ex

Question 540

elbow joint ligaments

Answer 540

1) anular ligament: stabilizes radial head within radial notch of ulna (goes one side of ulna to other) 2) radial collateral ligament: stabilizes lateral aspect 3) ulnar collateral ligament: medial aspect

Question 541

why is anular ligament important in elbow?

Answer 541

- shallow groove - doesn't completely ossify until older = needs more support

Question 542

collateral ligaments

Answer 542

on sides of joints

Question 543

elbow joint bursae

Answer 543

1) olecranon bursa

Question 544

radioulnar joints characteristics

Answer 544

- connected by flat ligament: antebrachial interosseous membrane - articulation of radius and ulna

Question 545

radioulnar joint type

Answer 545

pivot synovial: radius rotates around stationary ulna

Question 546

radioulnar joint movements

Answer 546

1) supination: palm up, radial tuberosity up 2) protonation: palm down, radial tuberosity down

Question 547

radiocarpal (wrist) joint type

Answer 547

condyloid synovial

Question 548

radiocarpal joint articulations

Answer 548

- proximal row of carpals (except pisiform) + distal radius + articular disc

Question 549

radiocarpal joint ligaments

Answer 549

1) anterior/posterior 2) ulnar collateral: stretched during abduction 3) radial collateral: stretched during adduction

Question 550

radiocarpal joint capsule contents

Answer 550

1) distal radioulnar joint 2) intercarpal joints *ulna not included in wrist joint!

Question 551

radiocarpal joint movements

Answer 551

1) flex/ex 2) abd/add

Question 552

how do skeletal muscles produce movement?

Answer 552

work together to pull on bones (cross joint that they move)

Question 553

agonist (prime mover)

Answer 553

muscle that provides major force for producing a movement

Question 554

antagonist

Answer 554

muscle that opposes action of agonist, located on opposite side of joint

Question 555

fixators

Answer 555

when agonists and antagonists contract simultaneously

Question 556

synergists

Answer 556

help agonist by adding extra force to the same movement

Question 557

concentric contraction

Answer 557

muscles shorten under tension

Question 558

origin vs insertion

Answer 558

- origin: attachment point that often stays fixed during muscle contraction, usually proximal - insertion: moves closer to origin during contraction, usually distal

Question 559

muscles that move pectoral girdle location and function

Answer 559

- anterior and posterior thorax - fix scapula to wall of thorax - move pectoral girdle

Question 560

pectoral girdle muscles

Answer 560

1) trapezius 2) levator scapulae 3) rhomboid major/minor

Question 561

trapezius origin

Answer 561

occipital bone, nuchal ligament, spinous processes of C7-T12

Question 562

trapezius insertion

Answer 562

spine of scapula, lateral clavicle, acromion

Question 563

trapezius action

Answer 563

1) upper fibers: elevate scapula 2) middle fibers: retract scapula 3) lower fibers: depress scapula 4) upper and lower: upward rotation of scapula

Question 564

trapezius nerve

Answer 564

accessory nerve (CN XI)

Question 565

levator scapulae and rhomboid locations

Answer 565

deep to trapezius, levator scapulae is superior and lateral to rhomboids

Question 566

levator scapulae and rhomboid origin

Answer 566

C1-T5 mnemonic: 4, 2, 2, 4 C1-C4 (transverse processes: levator scapulae C5-6 skip C7-T1 (spinous processes): rhomboid minor T2-T5 (spinous processes): rhomboid major

Question 567

levator scapulae and rhomboids insertion

Answer 567

- medial border of scapula - levator scapulae above spine, rhomboids below

Question 568

levator scapulae and rhomboid actions

Answer 568

- levator scapulae: elevate and downward rotation of scapula - rhomboids: retract and downward rotation of scapula

Question 569

levator scapulae and rhomboid nerve

Answer 569

dorsal scapular nerve

Question 570

anterior thoracic muscles

Answer 570

1) subclavius 2) pectoralis minor 3) serratus anterior ("boxer's muscle")

Question 571

subclavius origin

Answer 571

side of manubrium

Question 572

subclavius insertion

Answer 572

underside of clavicle

Question 573

subclavius action

Answer 573

stabilize and depress clavicle

Question 574

subclavius nerve

Answer 574

nerve to subclavius

Question 575

serratus anterior origin

Answer 575

ribs 1-8

Question 576

serratus anterior insertion

Answer 576

medial border of scapula (wraps around)

Question 577

serratus anterior action

Answer 577

protraction and upward rotation of scapula

Question 578

serratus anterior nerve

Answer 578

long thoracic nerve

Question 579

pectoralis minor origin

Answer 579

ribs 3-5

Question 580

pectoralis minor insertion

Answer 580

coracoid process

Question 581

pectoralis minor action

Answer 581

stabilize scapula by drawing it inferiorly and anteriorly

Question 582

pectoralis minor nerve

Answer 582

medial pectoral nerve

Question 583

winged scapula

Answer 583

- impaired serratus anterior causes protrusion of scapula when arms raised

Question 584

muscles that move the glenohumeral joint

Answer 584

anterior: 1) pectoralis major posterior: 2) deltoid 3) teres major 4) latissimus dorsi lateral: 5) rotator cuff muscles

Question 585

rotator cuff muscles

Answer 585

1) supraspinatus 2) infraspinatus 3) teres minor 4) subscapularis

Question 586

pectoralis major structure

Answer 586

large, fan-shaped muscle with two "heads": clavicular and sternocostal

Question 587

pectoralis major origin

Answer 587

medial clavicle, sternum, costal cartilages of ribs 1-6

Question 588

pectoralis major insertion

Answer 588

intertubercular sulcus of humerus

Question 589

pectoralis major actions

Answer 589

- clavicular head: flex GH joint - sternocostal head: adduct and medial rotation of GH joint - lower fibers of sternocostal head: extends GH joint from flexed position

Question 590

pectoralis major nerve

Answer 590

medial and lateral pectoral nerves

Question 591

deltoid origin

Answer 591

lateral clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula

Question 592

deltoid insertion

Answer 592

deltoid tuberosity of humerus

Question 593

deltoid actions

Answer 593

- all fibers: abduct GH joint - anterior part: flex and medial rotation of GH joint - posterior part: opposite of anterior = extend and lateral rotation of GH joint

Question 594

deltoid nerve

Answer 594

axillary nerve

Question 595

teres major origin

Answer 595

dorsal region of inferior scapula

Question 596

teres major insertion

Answer 596

intertubercular sulcus of humerus

Question 597

teres major action

Answer 597

adduct and medially rotate GH joint

Question 598

teres major nerve

Answer 598

lower subscapular nerve

Question 599

latissimus dorsi origin

Answer 599

very broad along spine

Question 600

latissimus dorsi insertion

Answer 600

intertubercular sulcus (humerus)

Question 601

latissimus dorsi action

Answer 601

extend, adduct, medially rotate GH joint

Question 602

latissimus dorsi nerve

Answer 602

thoracodorsal nerve

Question 603

intertubercular sulcus muscles (insertions)

Answer 603

P.L.T (lateral to medial) pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, teres major

Question 604

teres major and latissimus dorsi relationship

Answer 604

teres major = synergist to latissimus dorsi

Question 605

rotator cuff muscle function

Answer 605

- rotate humerus - stabilize GH joint

Question 606

rotator cuff muscles

Answer 606

1) supraspinatus 2) infraspinatus 3) teres minor 4) subscapularis

Question 607

subscapularis origin and insertion

Answer 607

origin = subscapular fossa insertion = lesser tubercle

Question 608

subscapularis action

Answer 608

medial rotation

Question 609

subscapularis innervation

Answer 609

upper/lower subscapular nerves

Question 610

supraspinatus origin/insertion

Answer 610

supraspinous fossa, greater tubercle

Question 611

supraspinatus action

Answer 611

abduction (NO rotation!)

Question 612

supraspinatus innervation

Answer 612

suprascapular nerve

Question 613

infraspinatus origin and insertion

Answer 613

infraspinous fossa, greater tubercle

Question 614

infraspinatus action

Answer 614

lateral rotation

Question 615

infraspinatus nerve

Answer 615

suprascapular nerve

Question 616

teres minor origin and insertion

Answer 616

lateral border of scapula, greater tubercle

Question 617

teres minor action

Answer 617

lateral rotation

Question 618

teres minor nerve

Answer 618

axillary nerve

Question 619

rotator cuff anterior/posterior muscles

Answer 619

anterior: supraspinatus, subscapularis posterior: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor

Question 620

axilla location

Answer 620

pyramidal space inferior to GH joint

Question 621

axilla purpose

Answer 621

protective passageway for neurovascular structures

Question 622

axilla apex

Answer 622

clavicle, 1st rib, superior border of scapula

Question 623

axilla lateral wall

Answer 623

intertubercular sulcus

Question 624

axilla medial wall

Answer 624

thoracic wall (some ribs), serratus anterior

Question 625

axilla base

Answer 625

armpit skin + subcutaneous CT

Question 626

axilla anterior wall

Answer 626

pectoralis major, pectoralis minor

Question 627

axilla posterior wall

Answer 627

scapula, subscapularis, teres major, latissimus dorsi

Question 628

axillary contents

Answer 628

1) axillary sheath: nerves and BVs 2) fat: protects sheath 3) lymph nodes: in fat

Question 629

axillary artery

Answer 629

- branches from subclavian artery - begins at lateral border of rib 1 - continues posterior to pectoralis minor - ends at inferior border of teres major

Question 630

axillary artery parts

Answer 630

1) before pec. minor: a) superior thoracic branch 2) under pec. minor: a) thoraco-acromial b) lateral thoracic 3) after pec. minor: a) posterior circumflex b) anterior circumflex c) subscapular: posterior scapula

Question 631

upper arm veins

Answer 631

- deep veins accompany arteries (with same names)

Question 632

posterior/anterior circumflex branch of axillary artery

Answer 632

- around surgical neck - can anastomose with each other

Question 633

brachial plexus parts

Answer 633

1) 5 roots (C5-T1) 2) 3 trunks: superior, middle, inferior 3) 2 divisions: anterior/posterior 4) 3 cords: lateral, posterior, medial 5) 5 terminal branches Really Thirsty Drink Cold Beer

Question 634

terminal branches of brachial plexus

Answer 634

1) musculocutaneous 2) axillary (C5/6 only!) 3) median 4) radial 5) ulnar

Question 635

additional nerves of brachial plexus

Answer 635

1) C5: dorsal scapular 2) superior trunk: suprascapular 3) C5-7: long thoracic 4) lateral cord: lateral pectoral 5) medial cord: medial pectoral 6) posterior cord: upper/lower subscapular 7) posterior cord: thoracodorsal

Question 636

brachial plexus cord naming

Answer 636

named based on relationship to axillary artery

Question 637

brachial plexus drawing

Answer 637

:)

Question 638

where do brachial plexus roots emerge from?

Answer 638

- between anterior and middle scalene muscles

Question 639

axillary nerve location

Answer 639

around surgical neck of humerus

Question 640

arm muscle division

Answer 640

- divided into two compartments by septa

Question 641

upper arm transverse section

Answer 641

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with superficial veins 3) brachial fascia 4) lateral and medial intermuscular septa 5) muscles 6) humerus

Question 642

anterior compartment arm muscles

Answer 642

1) biceps brachii 2) coracobrachialis 3) brachialis

Question 643

anterior compartment arm muscles nerve

Answer 643

musculocutaneous nerve

Question 644

posterior compartment arm muscles

Answer 644

1) triceps brachii 2) anconeus

Question 645

posterior compartment arm muscles nerve

Answer 645

radial nerve

Question 646

biceps brachii origin

Answer 646

- long head: supraglenoid tubercle - short head: coracoid process

Question 647

biceps brachii heads

Answer 647

lateral long head, medial short head

Question 648

biceps brachii insertion

Answer 648

- radial tuberosity and forearm fascia - via bicipital aponeurosis

Question 649

biceps brachii action

Answer 649

- elbow flexion - radioulnar supination (when elbow flexed) - GH flexion (synergist)

Question 650

coracobrachialis origin and insertion

Answer 650

coracoid process, middle 1/3 of humerus

Question 651

coracobrachialis action

Answer 651

GH joint flexion

Question 652

brachialis origin and insertion

Answer 652

distal anterior surface of humerus, ulnar tuberosity

Question 653

brachialis location

Answer 653

deep to biceps brachii

Question 654

brachialis action

Answer 654

elbow flexion

Question 655

musculocutaneous nerve location

Answer 655

- pierces coracobrachialis - continues distally between biceps brachii and brachialis

Question 656

proximal biceps brachii rupture

Answer 656

tendon comes off radial tuberosity leading to the popeye sign

Question 657

triceps head orientation

Answer 657

long and lateral heads superior to medial

Question 658

triceps brachii origin

Answer 658

- long: infraglenoid tubercle - lateral: posterior surface of humerus ABOVE radial groove - medial: posterior surface of humerus BELOW radial groove

Question 659

triceps brachii insertion

Answer 659

olecranon process

Question 660

triceps action

Answer 660

- extension of elbow - long head = extension at GH joint

Question 661

anconeus action

Answer 661

synergist to triceps brachii elbow movement and stabilizer

Question 662

radial nerve location

Answer 662

- in radial groove - pierces lateral intermuscular septum - continues distally in anterior compartment of arm

Question 663

upper arm blood supply

Answer 663

1) brachial artery branches from axillary, runs along anterior surface of arm 2) deep brachial artery branches from brachial, runs in radial groove going posterior 3) collateral branches: from brachial artery 4) recurrent arteries: form arterial anastomoses around elbow 3/4: collateral flow ensures blood flow in different joint positions

Question 664

cubital fossa borders

Answer 664

1) superior: imaginary line between lateral and medial epicondyles 2) lateral: medial border or brachioradialis 3) medial: lateral border of pronator teres

Question 665

cubital fossa contents

Answer 665

lateral to medial: biceps brachii tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

Question 666

forearm muscles function

Answer 666

move hand at wrist and/or joints of fingers

Question 667

forearm muscle transverse section

Answer 667

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with superficial veins 3) antebrachial fascia: creates anterior/posterior compartment 4) radius + ulna: connected by interosseous membrane

Question 668

anterior forearm muscle layers

Answer 668

1) superficial 2) intermediate 3) deep

Question 669

anterior forearm common origin

Answer 669

superficial and intermediate muscles share common flexor tendon at medial epicondyle

Question 670

anterior forearm nerve

Answer 670

mostly median, with some exceptions

Question 671

anterior forearm superficial layer muscles and actions

Answer 671

1) pronator teres: protonation 2) flexor carpi radialis: major wrist flexor, abduction 3) palmaris longus: weak wrist flexor 4) flexor carpi ulnaris: major wrist flexor, adduction

Question 672

flexor retinaculum

Answer 672

- anchors tendons of FCR/FCU - palmaris longus tendon lies overtop

Question 673

what is unique about palmaris longus?

Answer 673

- vestigial - not every wrist has one

Question 674

anterior forearm intermediate layer muscles and actions

Answer 674

1) flexor digitorum superficialis: flexes metacarpophalangeal joint and proximal interphalangeal joints of 2-5, some wrist flexion

Question 675

flexor digitorum superficialis tendons

Answer 675

- spilt at MCP to leave room for flexor digitorum profundus tendon

Question 676

anterior forearm deep layer muscles and actions

Answer 676

1) flexor digitorum profundus: flex MCP/PIP/DIP of 2-5 2) pronator quadratus: protonation 3) flexor pollicis longus: flex MCP/IP of thumb

Question 677

anterior forearm innervation exceptions

Answer 677

ulnar nerve = flexor carpi ulnaris and medial (vs lateral) half of FDP

Question 678

median nerve location

Answer 678

- descends between FDS and FDP - continues into hand to innervate thenar muscles

Question 679

ulnar nerve location

Answer 679

- posterior to medial epicondyle - descends between FCU and FDP - continues into hand to innervate intrinsic hand msucles

Question 680

carpal tunnel location

Answer 680

- between carpal bones (CT and synovial membrane) and flexor retinaculum

Question 681

carpal tunnel contents

Answer 681

- long flexor tendons of FDS (4), FDP (4) and FPL (1) - median nerve

Question 682

carpal tunnel syndrome

Answer 682

- compression of median nerve - ex. build up of synovial fluid due to inflammation - chronic = muscle atrophy

Question 683

posterior forearm muscle layers

Answer 683

1) superficial 2) deep

Question 684

posterior forearm common origin

Answer 684

many attach on common extensor tendon on lateral epicondyle

Question 685

posterior forearm common nerve

Answer 685

radial nerve and deep branch of radial nerve

Question 686

extensor retinaculum

Answer 686

- covers tendons of posterior forearm muscles

Question 687

posterior forearm superficial layer muscles and actions

Answer 687

1) brachioradialis: elbow flexion 2) extensor carpi radialis longus: main wrist extension, abduction 3) extensor carpi radialis brevis: main wrist extension, abduction 4) extensor digitorum: digits extension (primarily MCP, secondarily IP of 2-5) 5) extensor digiti minimi: extends fifth digit 6) extensor carpi ulnaris: main wrist extension, adduction

Question 688

what is special about brachioradialis?

Answer 688

- can be seen from both anterior and posterior - transition between compartments

Question 689

ECRlongus vs ECRbrevis?

Answer 689

longus starts above lateral epicondyle

Question 690

extensor digitorum tendons pass under…

Answer 690

- pass under extensor retinaculum

Question 691

extensor digitorum origin and insertion

Answer 691

common extension origin, extensor expansions of medial 4 digits

Question 692

extensor digitorum intertendinous connections

Answer 692

- variable in people - restrict independent extension of digits

Question 693

posterior forearm deep layer function

Answer 693

- act on pollex and index finger - except supinator

Question 694

posterior forearm deep layer common nerve

Answer 694

deep branch of radial nerve

Question 695

posterior forearm deep layer muscles

Answer 695

1) abductor pollicis longus: I = lateral aspect of thumb 2) extensor pollicis brevis 3) extensor pollicis longus 4) extensor indicis 5) supinator: supinate proximal radioulnar joint (works with biceps brachii) *only supinator attaches to lat. epicondyle

Question 696

radial nerve location entire arm

Answer 696

- perforates lateral intermuscular septum of arm: runs with radial groove with deep brachial artery - enters cubital fossa between brachioradialis and brachialis

Question 697

radial nerve branches

Answer 697

1) deep branch: pierces supinator, continues along interosseous membrane 2) superficial branch: cutaneous nerves, descends deep to brachioradialis

Question 698

blood supply of entire arm

Answer 698

1) subclavian 2) axillary a) brachial artery: anterior compartment, divides in cubital region into radial/ulnar b) deep brachial artery: runs posterior 4) collateral branching/anastomoses 5) radial artery 6) ulnar artery: three branches a) common interosseous divides into: b) anterior interosseous c) posterior interosseous 7) deep and superficial palmar arches in hand: anastomoses

Question 699

radial artery location forearm

Answer 699

- descends deep to brachioradialis - winds around lateral wrist (goes posterior) in anatomical snuff box

Question 700

ulnar artery location

Answer 700

- descends deep to pronator teres

Question 701

forearm veins

Answer 701

deep veins accompany arteries, have same names

Question 702

superficial veins location

Answer 702

run subcutaneously in superficial fascia

Question 703

superficial veins function

Answer 703

venous return, temperature regulation

Question 704

superficial veins in arm

Answer 704

1) axillary vein 2) cephalic vein: from back of hand to axillary 3) basilic vein: medial side, from palm to axillary 4) median cubital vein: joins 2/3, common site for cannulation

Question 705

cannulation

Answer 705

inserting a cannula, a small tube, into a vein, artery, or other body cavity to provide access for fluids, medications, or blood sampling

Question 706

anatomical snuff box borders

Answer 706

1) floor: scaphoid and trapezium 2) lateral: tendons of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus 3) medial: tendon of extensor pollicis longus

Question 707

anatomical snuff box contents

Answer 707

- branch of radial nerve - radial artery - cephalic vein

Question 708

lower limb bone functional division

Answer 708

1) pelvic girdle 2) bones of free lower limb

Question 709

lower limb bone articulations

Answer 709

primarily diarthroses and synovial joints

Question 710

lower limb bones structural division

Answer 710

1) thigh: hip to knee 2) leg: knee to ankle 3) foot: below ankle

Question 711

acetabulum features

Answer 711

1) lunate surface: smooth, where head of femur articulates 2) acetabular fossa: bony depression filled with fat 3) acetabular notch

Question 712

sacrospinous ligament

Answer 712

- attaches from sacrum to ischial spine - creates foramina: greater/lesser sciatic foramen

Question 713

femur structures

Answer 713

1) head 2) neck 3) greater trochanter: lateral 4) lesser trochanter: medial 5) lateral/medial epicondyle 6) lateral/medial condyle 7) adductor tubercle anterior only: 1) intertrochanteric line posterior only: 1) intertrochanteric crest: more prominent than line 2) gluteal tuberosity 3) linea aspera 4) intercondylar fossa

Question 714

largest bone in the body?

Answer 714

femur

Question 715

patella bone type

Answer 715

sesamoid: within tendons

Question 716

patella location

Answer 716

within quadriceps femoris tendon: convergence of quadriceps muscles

Question 717

patella in babies

Answer 717

not fully ossified

Question 718

patella function

Answer 718

- protect knee joint - allow quadriceps femoris tendon to glide smoothly over joint: maximises movement

Question 719

patella structure

Answer 719

- rough anterior: tendon attachment - smooth posterior: articular cartilage with femur - base - anterior apex - posterior facets

Question 720

why is tibia bigger than fibula?

Answer 720

tibia bears all the weight when standing

Question 721

fibula purpose?

Answer 721

muscle attachment and forms part of ankle joint

Question 722

tibia superior view

Answer 722

1) flat articular surfaces of condyles 2) intercondylar eminences 3) can see tibial tuberosity on anterior side

Question 723

tibia and fibula inferior view

Answer 723

1) lateral/medial malleolus 2) fibular notch 3) inferior articular surface

Question 724

tibia features

Answer 724

1) lateral tibial condyle 2) medial tibial condyle 3) tibial tuberosity: large, rough, for quadriceps femoris muscles 4) medial malleolus

Question 725

fibula features

Answer 725

1) head 2) neck 3) lateral malleolus

Question 726

tibia and fibula relative anatomy

Answer 726

- tibia medial side - connected by interosseous membrane

Question 727

foot purpose

Answer 727

- support body weight - act as lever to propel body forward in walking and running

Question 728

foot bone divisions

Answer 728

7 tarsals, 5 metatarsals, 14 phalanges

Question 729

foot tarsals

Answer 729

medial to lateral, proximal to distal 1) talus: on top of... 2) calcaneus: heel bone 3) navicular 4) cuboid 5) medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform

Question 730

calcaneus features

Answer 730

1) calcaneal tuberosity: connects to calcaneal (Achilles) tendon 2) sustentaculum tali: holds up talus

Question 731

talus features

Answer 731

1) trochlea: articulates with mallei 2) head: articulates with navicular

Question 732

foot metatarsals

Answer 732

numbered big to small toe

Question 733

foot phalanges

Answer 733

- only two for big toe - others have proximal, middle and distal - all long bones

Question 734

foot arches

Answer 734

1) medial and lateral longitudinal arches 2) transverse arch

Question 735

foot medial longitudinal arch

Answer 735

in most people 1) metatarsals 1-3 2) cuneiforms 3) navicular 4) talus 5) calcaneus

Question 736

foot lateral longitudinal arch

Answer 736

typically not as prominent as medial 1) calcaneus 2) cuboid 3) metatarsals 4-5

Question 737

foot transverse arch

Answer 737

1) bases of metatarsals 1-5 2) cuboid 3) cuneiforms 4) muscle tendons

Question 738

support of foot arches

Answer 738

1) shape of bones 2) ligaments: spring, long/short plantar ligaments 3) intrinsic foot muscles and muscle tendons 4) plantar aponeurosis

Question 739

pes planus

Answer 739

- flat feet - medial longitudinal arch affected - causes: bone development, ligament/muscle injury, excess weight

Question 740

ankle (talocrural) joint type

Answer 740

hinge synovial: thin joint capsule reinforced by collateral ligaments

Question 741

ankle joint articulation

Answer 741

- malleoli of tibia and fibula form mortise (deep socket): articulates with trochlea of talus

Question 742

ankle joint movements

Answer 742

1) dorsiflexion: flex foot 2) plantarflexion: point foot

Question 743

why is dorsiflexion more stable?

Answer 743

- trochlea widest anteriorly - fits between trochlea and mortise tightest and with more articulation

Question 744

ankle joint ligaments

Answer 744

1) anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments: reinforce mortise 2) lateral ligament of ankle: three bands that stabilize ankle during inversion a) anterior talofibular ligament b) calcaneofibular ligament c) posterior talofibular ligament 3) medial (deltoid) ligament: stabilizes ankle during eversion

Question 745

subtalar tarsal joint

Answer 745

plane synovial joint between talus and calcaneus

Question 746

transverse tarsal joint

Answer 746

plane synovial joint between talus and navicular

Question 747

subtalar and transverse tarsal joint movements

Answer 747

1) eversion: sole away from body 2) inversion: sole towards body

Question 748

sacroiliac joints type

Answer 748

compound joint: 1) synovial plane: auricular surfaces of ilium and sacrum 2) syndesmosis: connected by fibrous CT

Question 749

sacroiliac joint characteristics

Answer 749

- connects axial skeleton and inferior appendicular skeleton - strong, weight-bearing - limited mobility

Question 750

sacroiliac joint intrinsic ligaments

Answer 750

1) anterior sacroiliac 2) posterior sacroiliac 3) interosseous sacroiliac (many)

Question 751

sacroiliac joint extrinsic ligaments

Answer 751

1) sacrospinous: sacrum to ischial spine 2) sacrotuberous: sacrum to ischial tuberosity

Question 752

sacroiliac joint extrinsic ligament function

Answer 752

- prevent excess anterior rotation of pelvis - weight of body passes anterior to axis of rotation of sacroiliac joint

Question 753

hip joint type

Answer 753

ball and socket synovial

Question 754

hip joint articulation

Answer 754

head of femur + lunate surface of acetabulum

Question 755

hip joint supporting structures

Answer 755

1) fat pad 2) transverse acetabular ligament: spans acetabular notch, merges with... 3) acetabular labrum: around acetabulum, extend depth of articulation (2/3 sphere) 4) joint capsule 5) ligament of femoral head: not as important for stability, but makes path for BV

Question 756

hip joint movements

Answer 756

1) flex/ex 2) abd/ad 3) medial/lateral rotation

Question 757

hip joint intrinsic ligaments

Answer 757

- all spiral anteriorly and become taut during extension 1) iliofemoral: ilium to femur (intertrochanteric line), strongest ligament in the body 2) pubofemoral: limits overabduction 3) ischiofemoral

Question 758

knee joint type

Answer 758

modified hinge synovial joint

Question 759

knee joint articulations

Answer 759

1) femorotibial: condyles of femur + tibia 2) femoropatellar: facets of patella + condyles of femur

Question 760

lateral and medial meniscii

Answer 760

- between femorotibial articulations - stabilize, increase articulation and absorb shock

Question 761

knee joint actions

Answer 761

flex/ex and slight rotation (two axes)

Question 762

knee joint ligaments

Answer 762

1) fibular (lateral) collateral 2) tibial (medial) collateral 3) posterior cruciate ligament 4) anterior cruciate ligament 5) patellar ligament and tendon (quadriceps)

Question 763

fibular collateral ligament

Answer 763

- stability during extension - separate from meniscus

Question 764

tibial collateral ligament

Answer 764

- stability during extension - direct attachment to meniscus

Question 765

posterior cruciate ligament

Answer 765

- from posterior tibia - prevents anterior sliding of femur on tibia, especially during flexion

Question 766

anterior cruciate ligament

Answer 766

- from anterior tibia -prevents posterior sliding (hyperextension)

Question 767

testing for cruciate ligament tears

Answer 767

1) anterior drawer sign: pull anteriorly for ACL 2) posterior drawer sign: push posteriorly for PCL

Question 768

muscle groups that move hip joint

Answer 768

1) gluteal 2) lateral rotators 3) iliopsoas 4) adductors

Question 769

gluteal muscles

Answer 769

1) gluteus maximus, partially layered over... 2) gluteus medius: slightly lateral 3) gluteus minimis: deep to all, slightly lateral 4) tensor fasciae latae (TFL): lateral

Question 770

gluteus maximus origin and insertion

Answer 770

O: iliac crest, sacrum, coccyx I: gluteal tuberosity and posterior iliotibial tract

Question 771

gluteus maximus nerve

Answer 771

inferior gluteal nerve

Question 772

gluteus maximus action

Answer 772

extension and lateral rotation of hip joint

Question 773

gluteus medius/minimis nerve

Answer 773

superior gluteal

Question 774

gluteus medius/minimis action

Answer 774

abduction, medial rotation of hip joint

Question 775

gluteus medius/minims origin and insertion

Answer 775

O: external ilium I: greater trochanter

Question 776

tensor fasciae latae action

Answer 776

- tense iliotibial tract (anterior) - assist with flexion, abduction and medial rotation of hip joint

Question 777

tensor fasciae nerve

Answer 777

superior gluteal

Question 778

muscles during single leg stance

Answer 778

- abductors on opposite side of lifted leg contract - keeps pelvis level by counteracting force of gravity

Question 779

trendelenburg gait

Answer 779

- compromised abductors - pelvis drops to contralateral side during single leg stance

Question 780

lateral rotator muscles

Answer 780

1) piriformis 2) superior gemellus 3) obturator internus 4) inferior gemellus 5) obturator externus 6) quadratus femoris P-GO-GO-Q

Question 781

lateral rotators general origin and insertion

Answer 781

pelvis to greater trochanter

Question 782

lateral rotators action

Answer 782

- lateral rotation of extended hip joint - abduct flexed hip joint - stabilize hip by pulling head of femur into acetabulum

Question 783

lateral rotators location

Answer 783

- run horizontally posterior to hip joint - under gluteus maximus - inferior to gluteus medius and minimis

Question 784

lateral rotators nerve

Answer 784

branches from lumbosacral plexus

Question 785

lateral rotators along sciatic notches

Answer 785

- greater: piriformis - lesser: obturator internus

Question 786

obturator internus vs externus

Answer 786

- both cover obturator foramen - externus = external aspect, internus = internal

Question 787

sciatic nerve location

Answer 787

emerges below piriformis

Question 788

iliopsoas parts

Answer 788

- composite muscle: psoas major and iliacus - merge beneath inguinal ligament

Question 789

psoas major origin

Answer 789

lumbar vertebrae

Question 790

iliacus origin

Answer 790

iliac fossa

Question 791

iliopsoas common insertion

Answer 791

lesser trochanter

Question 792

psoas major nerve

Answer 792

branches of lumbar plexus

Question 793

iliacus nerve

Answer 793

femoral

Question 794

iliopsoas action

Answer 794

hip flexors

Question 795

adductor muscles

Answer 795

1) pectineus: same plane as... 2) adductor longus 3) adductor brevis: deep to 1) 4) adductor magnus: adductor and hamstring, deep to 1-3 5) gracilis: also crosses posterior knee

Question 796

adductor muscles common origin

Answer 796

external pubis

Question 797

adductor muscles common insertion

Answer 797

linea aspera, except gracilis = anterior tibia

Question 798

adductor muscles common nerve

Answer 798

obturator nerve, except hamstring of adductor magnus by tibial division of sciatic nerve

Question 799

adductor muscles common action

Answer 799

hip adduction, except gracilis also does knee flexion

Question 800

adductor hiatus

Answer 800

gap in adductor magnus where BVs pass through

Question 801

parts of adductor magnus

Answer 801

- anterior adductor part - posterior hamstring part, connected to sacrotuberous ligament

Question 802

lumbar plexus rami

Answer 802

anterior rami of L1-L4

Question 803

lumbar plexus location

Answer 803

formed within psoas major and innervates it

Question 804

lumbar plexus end nerves

Answer 804

abdominal wall: 1) iliohypogastric nerve: L1 2) ilioinguinal nerve: L1 lumbar region: 3) obturator nerve: L2-L4 4) femoral nerve: L2-L4

Question 805

obturator nerve location

Answer 805

- enters medial compartment of thigh via obturator canal: gap of obturator foramen - accompanied by obturator vessels

Question 806

femoral nerve location

Answer 806

- passes deep to inguinal ligament into anterior thigh - accompanied by femoral vessels

Question 807

sacral plexus rami

Answer 807

- anterior rami of L4-S4

Question 808

sacral plexus nerves

Answer 808

1) lumbosacral trunk: L4-S5 sacral part: 2) superior gluteal nerve: L4-S1 3) inferior gluteal nerve: L5-S2 4) sciatic nerve: L4-S3

Question 809

superior gluteal nerve location

Answer 809

- passes through greater sciatic foramen SUPERIOR to piriformis - accompanied by superior gluteal vessels

Question 810

inferior gluteal nerve location

Answer 810

- passes through greater sciatic foramen INFERIOR to piriformis - accompanied by inferior gluteal vessels

Question 811

sciatic nerve location

Answer 811

- passes through greater sciatic foramen INFERIOR to piriformis - goes to posterior thigh - consists of tibial and common fibular divisions

Question 812

thigh blood supply

Answer 812

1) aorta 2) common iliac arteries: a) internal iliac artery: gives rise to superior/inferior gluteal arteries and obturator artery b) external iliac artery: becomes 3) below inguinal ligament 3) femoral artery: becomes 4) deep femoral artery: chief artery, gives rise to medial and lateral femoral circumflex and perforating branches *deep veins accompany arteries

Question 813

thigh cross section

Answer 813

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with veins 3) fascia lata 4) anterior, medial and posterior compartments 5) femur

Question 814

anterior thigh muscles

Answer 814

1) sartorius 2) quadriceps femoris: a) rectus femoris b) vastus lateralis c) vastus medialis d) vastus intermedius

Question 815

anterior thigh common action

Answer 815

knee extension (except sartorius)

Question 816

anterior thigh common nerve

Answer 816

femoral

Question 817

iliotibial tract formed by...

Answer 817

thickening of fascia lata + muscles (gluteus maximus)

Question 818

sartorius origin and insertion

Answer 818

anterior superior iliac spine, medial tibia

Question 819

sartorius actions

Answer 819

1) hip flexion, abduction and lateral rotation 2) knee flexion

Question 820

quadriceps muscle origins

Answer 820

1) rectus femoris: anterior inferior iliac spine 2) vastus lateralis: greater trochanter 3) medialis: femur 4) intermedius: femur

Question 821

quadriceps muscles common insertion

Answer 821

- over patella --> patellar ligament --> tibial tuberosity

Question 822

quadriceps muscles arrangment

Answer 822

- rectus femoris most superficial - intermedius deep to RF - lateralis = lateral, medialis = medial, goes a little more distal

Question 823

quadriceps muscles actions

Answer 823

- all extend knee joint - rectus femoris can also flex hip

Question 824

which quadriceps muscles stabilize knee joint?

Answer 824

all, but especially inferior fibers of vastus medialis and lateralis

Question 825

femoral triangle location

Answer 825

- subfascial space in anterosuperior 1/3 of thigh

Question 826

femoral triangle boundaries

Answer 826

1) floor (deep): iliopsoas and pectineus 2) roof (more superficial): fascia lata, subcutaneous tissue, skin 3) superior: inguinal ligament 4) medial: adductor longus 5) lateral: sartorius

Question 827

femoral triangle contents

Answer 827

NAVL lateral to medial: Nerve femoral Artery femoral Vein Lymphatics

Question 828

femoral canal

Answer 828

- in femoral triangle - formed by femoral sheath - contain artery, vein and lymphatics

Question 829

groin injuries

Answer 829

- strain, stretch or tear of proximal attachments of anteromedial thigh muscles - often occur in sports with quick starts, ex. sprints

Question 830

posterior thigh muscles (hamstring muscles)

Answer 830

1) biceps femoris 2) semimembranosus 3) semitendinosus

Question 831

posterior thigh common origin

Answer 831

ischial tuberosity, except short head of biceps femoris = linea aspera

Question 832

posterior thigh common action

Answer 832

1) hip extension (except short head) 2) knee flexion

Question 833

posterior thigh common nerve

Answer 833

tibial division of sciatic, except short head = common fibular division

Question 834

biceps femoris insertion

Answer 834

fibula

Question 835

semimembranosus characteristics

Answer 835

deep to semitendinosus, ligament broadens distally

Question 836

biceps femoris heads

Answer 836

medial long, lateral short (under iliotibial tract)

Question 837

semimembranosus insertion

Answer 837

medial condyle of tibia

Question 838

semitendinosus characteristics

Answer 838

- ends in long, thin tendon - more superficial than semimembranosus

Question 839

semitendinosus insertion

Answer 839

medial tibia

Question 840

pes anserinus components

Answer 840

conjoined tendon of: 1) sartorius 2) gracillis 3) semitendinous

Question 841

pes anserinus location

Answer 841

anteromedial side of proximal tibia

Question 842

pes anserinus function

Answer 842

reinforce medial aspect of knee joint

Question 843

femoral artery location

Answer 843

- passes through femoral triangle and adductor canal - supplies anterior thigh compartment

Question 844

deep femoral artery location

Answer 844

- passes deep between pectineus and adductor longus - supplies posterior thigh compartment

Question 845

adductor hiatus close arteries

Answer 845

- femoral artery passes posterior here to become popliteal artery - part of abductor magnus

Question 846

popliteal artery location

Answer 846

- ends at inferior border of popliteus - branches around knee

Question 847

popliteal fossa location

Answer 847

- fat-filled, diamond shaped space posterior to knee joint

Question 848

popliteal fossa boundaries

Answer 848

1) roof (superficial: skin, popliteal fascia 2) floor: femur, knee joint capsule, fascia of popliteus 3) medial: semimembranosus superior to medial head of gastrocnemius 4) lateral: biceps femoris, lateral head of gastrocnemius

Question 849

leg transverse section

Answer 849

1) skin 2) superficial fascia with veins 3) crural fascia: forms anterior, posterior and transverse intermuscular septae 4) 3 compartments a) anterior: interosseus membrane and anterior septum b) medial: anterior/posterior septa c) posterior: interosseus membrane and posterior septum, transverse separates deep from superficial)

Question 850

leg retinaculae

Answer 850

- thickening of fascia at distal leg - hold muscle tendons in place as they cross ankle joint - ex. inferior extensor retinaculum

Question 851

common action of leg tendons

Answer 851

tendons passing: 1) posterior to ankle = plantarflexion 2) anterior to ankle = dorsiflexion 3) dorsal toes: extension 4) plantar toes: flexion tendons attaching to: 1) medial foot: inversion 2) lateral foot: eversion

Question 852

anterior leg muscles

Answer 852

1) tibialis anterior 2) extensor digitorum longus 3) extensor hallucis longus 4) fibularis tertius 1-3 superficial to deep

Question 853

tibialis anterior origin and insertion

Answer 853

lateral condyle of tibia, medial side of foot (medial cuneiform + metatarsal 1 base)

Question 854

tibialis anterior actions

Answer 854

inversion + dorsiflexion of foot

Question 855

extensor digitorum longus origin/insertion

Answer 855

lateral condyle of tibia, dorsal aspect of digits 2-5

Question 856

extensor digitorum longus action

Answer 856

dorsiflexion, extension of toes 2-5

Question 857

extensor hallucis longus origin and insertion

Answer 857

medial fibula to dorsal digit 1

Question 858

big toe anatomical name

Answer 858

hallux

Question 859

extensor hallucis longus action

Answer 859

hallux extension, dorsiflexion

Question 860

fibularis tertius origin and insertion

Answer 860

inferior/anterior fibula, dorsal digit 5

Question 861

fibularis tertius action

Answer 861

dorsiflexion, eversion of foot

Question 862

anterior leg muscles common nerve

Answer 862

deep fibular

Question 863

lateral leg muscles

Answer 863

1) fibularis longus 2) fibularis brevis (deep)

Question 864

fibularis longus origin and insertion

Answer 864

head of fibula, plantar surface of foot (crosses from lateral to medial side)

Question 865

fibularis brevis origin and insertion

Answer 865

lateral fibula, base of 5th metatarsal

Question 866

fibularis longus/brevis action

Answer 866

eversion, plantarflexion of foot

Question 867

fibularis longus/brevis nerve

Answer 867

superficial fibular

Question 868

foot drop

Answer 868

- foot drags instead of anterior part lifting - compromised deep fibular nerve

Question 869

posterior leg compartments

Answer 869

1) superficial 2) deep

Question 870

superficial posterior leg muscles

Answer 870

1) gastrocnemius 2) soleus 3) plantaris superficial to deep: 1, 3, 2

Question 871

gastrocnemius origin

Answer 871

medial and lateral femoral condyles (2 heads)

Question 872

soleus origin

Answer 872

posterior, proximal tibia and fibular head

Question 873

plantaris origin

Answer 873

above lateral femoral condyle

Question 874

superficial posterior leg muscles common insertion

Answer 874

calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (Achilles)

Question 875

superficial posterior leg muscles common action

Answer 875

plantar flexion

Question 876

superficial posterior leg muscles additional actions

Answer 876

gastrocnemius flexes knee, plantaris weakly assists

Question 877

superficial posterior leg muscles common nerve

Answer 877

tibial nerve

Question 878

flexor retinaculum of foot

Answer 878

- supports tendons of deep posterior leg muscles - medial malleolus to calcaneus - reinforced by transverse intermuscular septum

Question 879

posterior leg deep compartment

Answer 879

1) flexor digitorum longus 2) flexor hallucis longus 3) tibialis posterior 4) popliteus

Question 880

deep posterior leg muscles tendons organization

Answer 880

superior/medial 1) tibialis posterior 2) flexor digitorum longus 3) flexor hallucis longus inferior/lateral Tom, Dick, Harry

Question 881

flexor digitorum longus origin/insertion

Answer 881

posterior tibia, bases of distal phalanges 2-5

Question 882

flexor digitorum longus action

Answer 882

flexes digits 2-5

Question 883

flexor hallucis longus origin/insertion

Answer 883

inferior/posterior fibula, base of distal phalanx 1

Question 884

flexor hallucis longus action

Answer 884

flexes hallux

Question 885

tibialis posterior origin/insertion

Answer 885

origin = interosseous membrane, posterior tibia and fibula insertion = navicular, cuneiforms, cuboid, calcaneus (sustentaculum tali), bases of metatarsals 2-4

Question 886

tibialis posterior action

Answer 886

inversion, plantarflexion, support medial longitudinal arch

Question 887

popliteus characteristics

Answer 887

triangle-shaped, forms floor of popliteal fossa

Question 888

popliteus origin and insertion

Answer 888

origin = lateral condyle of femur, lateral meniscus insertion = posterior proximal tibia

Question 889

popliteus action

Answer 889

unlocks knee by rotating femur slightly to enable knee flexion

Question 890

posterior deep leg muscles common action

Answer 890

plantarflexion, except popliteus

Question 891

posterior deep leg muscles common nerve

Answer 891

tibial

Question 892

lower leg innervation

Answer 892

1) sciatic nerve branches into: 2a) common fibular nerve: branches into 3a) superficial fibular nerve: lateral compartment 3b) deep fibular nerve: anterior compartment 2b) tibial nerve: posterior compartment with tibialis posterior, branches into 3c) medial and lateral plantar nerves

Question 893

leg arteries

Answer 893

1) (superficial) femoral artery 2) popliteal artery branches into 3a) anterior tibial artery: anterior compartment, also supplies lateral 4a) dorsalis pedis artery after extensor retinaculum 3b) posterior tibial artery: posterior compartment, also lateral, branches: 4b) fibular artery: posterior leg, near posterior septum 4c) medial and lateral plantar arteries after flexor retinaculum

Question 894

leg deep veins

Answer 894

accompany arteries with same name

Question 895

leg superficial veins

Answer 895

1) femoral vein medial side: 2) dorsal venous arch empties into... 3) great saphenous vein, empties into 1) posterior side: 4) small saphenous vein empties into popliteal vein

Question 896

intrinsic back muscles location

Answer 896

- deepest muscles - enclosed in deep fascia

Question 897

intrinsic back muscles general purpose

Answer 897

movement and maintain posture of vertebral column

Question 898

intrinsic back muscles common origin

Answer 898

- tendinous connection from posterior iliac crest, sacrum and spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae - insert above

Question 899

intrinsic back muscles common nerve

Answer 899

posterior rami of spinal nerves

Question 900

nuchal ligament

Answer 900

from external occipital protuberance to C7 (spinous processes)

Question 901

supraspinous ligament

Answer 901

thoracic vertebrae and below until median sacral crest

Question 902

intrinsic back muscles layers

Answer 902

1) superficial: splenius 2) intermediate: 3x erector spinae 3) deep: transversospinalis muscle group

Question 903

intrinsic back muscles bilateral contraction

Answer 903

extension of head and vertebral column

Question 904

intrinsic back muscles division

Answer 904

divided into parts: capitis, cervicis, thoracis, lumborum

Question 905

splenius parts

Answer 905

1) capitis 2) cervicis

Question 906

splenius location

Answer 906

- deep to trapezius - fibers run superolaterally to cervical vertebrae and cranium (V shape)

Question 907

splenius origin

Answer 907

nucheal ligament

Question 908

splenius unilateral contraction

Answer 908

ipsilateral head rotation and neck lateral flexion

Question 909

erector spinae location

Answer 909

- column of muscles from sacrum to skull - between spinous processes and angle of ribs

Question 910

erector spinae origin

Answer 910

- tendinous connection from posterior iliac crest, sacrum and spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae

Question 911

erector spinae muscles

Answer 911

lateral (longer) 1) iliocostalis 2) longissimus 3) spinalis medial (shorter) I Like Standing

Question 912

erector spinae unilateral contraction

Answer 912

ipsilateral: 1) lateral flexion of VC 2) head rotation 3) spine rotation

Question 913

iliocostalis insertion

Answer 913

transverse processes of cervical vertebrae

Question 914

longissimus insertion

Answer 914

- ribs - transverse processes of thoracic/cervical vertebrae - temporal bone mastoid process

Question 915

spinalis insertion

Answer 915

spinous processes of upper thoracic vertebrae + skull

Question 916

transversospinalis group location

Answer 916

deep to erector spinae, fibers run superomedially (A shape)

Question 917

transversospinalis muscle groups

Answer 917

1) semispinalis: capitis, cervitis, lumborum 2) short muscles that extend from 1 vertebrae to the next

Question 918

transversospinalis group unilateral contraction

Answer 918

contralateral head and VC rotation