Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physio > Lab Exam 2 > Flashcards

Lab Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

location of heart

A

Between the 2nd and 5th intercostal spaces when in anatomical position
Located within the thoracic cavity in a space called the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Coverings of the Heart

A

Fibrous pericardium, serous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fibrous pericardium

A

looks like a ligament, very dense connective tissue, very loose covering surrounding the heart, outermost covering of the heart, prevent the overfilling of blood within the heart, anchoring in the pulmonary trunk (anchor the heart into an anatomical position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Serous pericardium

A

right below the fibrous pericardium. Consists of the parietal layer and visceral layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parietal layer

A

outermost region of the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Visceral layer

A

(also called epicardium) innermost region of the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pericardial cavity

A

between the parietal and visceral layer, contains pericardial fluid that will help create a friction free environment for the heart allowing the heart to fully relax and fill with blood, also allow for the heart to contract and bring that blood into pulmonary and systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Layers of the Heart Wall

A

Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epicardium

A

outermost layer of the heart wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Myocardium

A

Composed mainly of cardiac muscle and forms the bulks of the heart
contains cardiac myocytes that are specialized to allow for contraction of the heart, so allow for us to bring blood into both pulmonary and systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Endocardium

A

very thin, aligns the chambers of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pericarditis

A

inflammation of the pericardium, the cause is often unknown, associated with viral infections and many other autoimmune disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Veins

A

(Blue) carried deoxygenated blood, brings blood towards the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Arteries

A

(Red) carries oxygenated blood, carry blood away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the path of blood flow through the heart

A

Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus -> right atrium -> tricuspid valve -> right ventricle -> pulmonary semilunar valve -> pulmonary trunk -> pulmonary arteries -> lungs -> pulmonary capillaries -> pulmonary veins -> heart -> left atrium -> mitral valve -> left ventricle -> aortic semilunar valve -> aorta -> systemic capillaries -> body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Semilunar Valve system consists of

A

pulmonary valve and aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Semilunar Valves

A

prevents backflow into the ventricles when ventricles relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pulmonary valve

A

Controls blood flow of deoxygenated blood from right side of heart into pulmonary trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aortic valve

A

Regulates the oxygenated blood flow from the left side of heart into the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Atrioventricular valve system consists of

A

tricuspid valve, bicuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Atrioventricular Valves (AV)

A

prevents backflow into the atria when ventricles contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tricuspid valve

A

Right side between right atrium and ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bicuspid valve

A

Left side between left atrium and ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If semilunar vales are open

A

atrioventricular valves are closed (vice-versa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diastole

A

filling phase, Atrioventricular valves are open, tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open. Semilunar valves are closed. Phase of ventricular relaxation, 0.5 seconds of the cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Systole

A

ejection phase, Semilunar valves are open, av valves are closed. Phase of ventricular contraction, 0.3 seconds of the cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pulmonary circuit

A

Blood vessels that carry blood to and from the lungs
Receives oxygen poor blood from the body tissues and then pumps this blood to the lungs to pick up oxygen and dispel carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Systemic circuit

A

Blood vessels that transport blood to and from all body tissues
Receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs and pumps this blood throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

vascular circulation

A

tunica adventitia (tunica externa), tunica media, tunica intima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tunica media

A

contained in both veins and arteries, much thicker to control blood flow and blood pressure, spindle shaped cells which is indicative of move muscle and responsible for both vasoconstriction and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

elastic connective tissue

A

More inward, artery contains an elastic connective tissue that will help and prevent for the artery to be very flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tunica intima

A

innermost, endothelial cells are inner lining of the blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

valves and skeletal muscle pump

A

Veins contains valves and skeletal muscle pump that allow for us to pump blood against gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

S1 “Lub”

A

first sound; produced by turbulent blood flow through the AV valves, louder than S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

S2 “Dub”

A

second sound; produced by turbulent blood flow through the semilunar valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5 areas of auscultation

A

Tricuspid, Bicuspid (Mitral), Primary pulmonic, Secondary pulmonic, Aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cardiac output

A

the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute. It is the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Heart rate

A

number of contractions per minute (60-100 bpm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stroke volume

A

volume of blood ejected from the ventricles with each beat (~70 mL)
SV = EDV – ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

End systolic volume

A

total volume of blood left in the ventricles at the end of systole (~50 mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

End diastolic volume

A

total volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (~120 mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Blood pressure is recorded as

A

systolic pressure over diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

systolic pressure

A

When the left ventricle ejects blood into the aorta, the aortic pressure rises. The maximal arterial pressure following ejection. The pressure at which the first Korotkoff sound is heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

diastolic pressure

A

As the left ventricle is relaxing and refilling, the aortic pressure falls. The minimal arterial pressure following ventricular relaxation. The pressure at which the sound disappears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Aortic blood pressure

A

is not usually measured directly but is estimated using an instrument called a sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal blood pressure

A

Systolic less than 120 and Diastolic less than 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Elevated blood pressure

A

Systolic 120-129 and Diastolic less than 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

High blood pressure (hypertension) stage 1

A

Systolic 130-139 or Diastolic 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

High blood pressure (hypertension) stage 2

A

systolic 140 or higher or Diastolic 90 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypertensive crisis (consult your doctor immediately)

A

systolic higher than 180 and/or Diastolic higher than 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

conduction system of the heart 1.

A

Sinoatrial node (SA node) – pacemaker, located near point superior vena cava enters right atrium, contractile cells that initiate stimulus that results in heart contraction. Stimulates internodal pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

conduction system of the heart 2.

A

Internodal pathway – conductile cells, receives stimulus from SA node, distributes stimulus throughout atria, stimulates atrial contraction and AV node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

conduction system of the heart 3.

A

Atrioventricular node (AV node) – located at junction of atria and ventricles, receives stimulus from internodal pathway, stimulates AV bundle, contractile cells may initiate stimulus if SA node does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

conduction system of the heart 4.

A

Atrioventricular bundle (AV bundle) – located in interventricular septum, receives stimulus from AV node, conductile cells that carry stimulus to bundle branches, also called bundle of His

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

conduction system of the heart 5.

A

Right bundle branch – conductile cells that carry stimulus to apex of right ventricle, stimulates Purkinje fibers. Left bundle branch – conductile cells that carry stimulus to apex of left ventricle, stimulates Purkinje fibers

56
Q

conduction system of the heart 6.

A

Purkinje fibers – network in each ventricular wall, conductile cells that carry stimulus to ventricular cardiac muscle cells

57
Q

Electrocardiogram (EKG)

A

x-axis time in seconds, y-axis amplitude (mV)

58
Q

P-wave

A

atrial depolarization or contraction

59
Q

QRS complex

A

represents ventricular depolarization or contraction, atrial repolarization not seen on EKG

60
Q

T-wave

A

ventricular repolarization

61
Q

PR interval (PQ)

A

the amount of time it takes for the signal to be transduced from the atria and reach the ventricles

62
Q

QT interval

A

starts at Q-wave and ends after T-wave represent the amount of time for the ventricle to depolarize and repolarize.

63
Q

ST segment

A

flat or plateau phase indicates ventricular cardio myocyte have fully depolarize. Elevation or depression means some sort of cardiac ischemia or myocardial infarction

64
Q

RR interval

A

one cardiac cycle, calculate heart rate.

65
Q

Sinus Bradycardia

A

sinus rhythm rate less than 60 beats per minute, Normal in sleeping and athletes. Abnormal when exercising.

66
Q

Sinus Tachycardia

A

sinus rhythm rate greater than 100 beats per minute, Normal when exercising. Abnormal when sleeping

67
Q

Atrial flutter (A-flutter)

A

consecutive atrial depolarization waves or “flutter” waves, “saw-tooth” appearance, different ratios (2:1, 3:1, 4:1) possible

68
Q

Atrial fibrillation (A-fib)

A

caused by many ectopic atrial foci firing at rapid rates, no distinguishable P waves because the atria are sending impulses erratically, variable and irregular QRS response

69
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia (V-tach)

A

Characteristic wide QRS complexes, P wave generally blends within the QRS

70
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-fib)

A

is a type of cardiac arrest. There is no effective pumping action by the heart and thus there is no circulation, Lack of any identifiable waves on the electrocardiogram; it appears as erratic, rapid twitching of the ventricles, Requires immediate CPR and defibrillation

71
Q

First-degree AV block

A

Characterized by a consistently prolonged PR interval, PR interval greater than 0.2 second or one large square, Not necessarily a “block” but rather a “delay”

72
Q

Second-degree AV block

A

Allows some atrial depolarization (P waves) to conduct to the ventricles while some are blocked, leaving lone P waves without an associated QRS, second degree blocks can be distinguished by repeated P waves prior to the QRS complex or P waves that are missing their corresponding QRS complex

73
Q

Third-degree AV block

A

Total block of conduction from the atria to the ventricles, The atria and ventricles have lost communication and are now functioning independently of one another, third degree AV blocks can be distinguished by no relationship between the P and the QRS waveforms.

74
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

the process by which blood cells are formed, Begins in the early embryo and continues throughout life, After birth, all blood cells originated in the bone marrow at a rate of 100 billion cells per day, The various types of blood cells all differentiate from a single cell type.

75
Q

Hematopoiesis functions

A

Transportation: Respiration, nutrition, excretion, hormonal
Regulation: Thermoregulation
Protection: Immune response

76
Q

blood composition

A

plasma and formed elements

77
Q

plasma

A

55%, Water, Proteins, Electrolytes, blood gases, nutrients, enzymes, waste products, etc.

78
Q

formed elements

A

45%, Erythrocytes, Buffy Coat (<1%): Leukocytes, Platelets

79
Q

specific components of plasma

A

Consists of 90% water, remaining 10% consists of proteins, electrolytes, gases, hormones, waste, etc.
Plasma proteins make up 7-9% of the plasma: albumin, globulin, fibrinogen

80
Q

Albumin

A

Maintains osmotic pressure, helps keep water from diffusing out of the bloodstream into the extracellular matrix of tissues

81
Q

Globulin

A

Alpha and Beta globulins transport lipids and fat soluble vitamins.
Gamma globulins are antibodies produced by lymphocytes

82
Q

Fibrinogen

A

Forms fibrin threads essential in blood hemostasis
Thrombin is going to convert fibrinogen to fibrin and these fibrin threads are formed and that will help you achieve a blood clot

83
Q

RBCs Structural Characteristics:

A

Lack nuclei and organelles
Biconcave discs

84
Q

RBC Lack nuclei

A

without nucleus you can have this in folding of the membrane that allows these red blood cells to take on this biconcave disc shape and it increases the surface area so we can have the exchange of gases across the membrane occurring more efficiently

85
Q

RBC Lack organelles like Mitochondria

A

mitochondria use oxygen for respiration so they lack mitochondria so they’re not undergoing aerobic respiration while they’re doing their job transporting that oxygen

86
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Each erythrocyte contains approximately 280 million hemoglobin molecules. Each hemoglobin molecule is able to bind four molecules of oxygen.

87
Q

RBC lifespan

A

100 -120 day lifespan, Can be altered by “shear effect”, Red blood cells have shear forces acting on both sides of them whenever they’re bouncing around and getting squeezed through capillaries (decrease life span).

88
Q

Oxidative stress

A

can also affect lifespan. Undergo this by continually binding and unbinding oxygen over and over again so they’re going to end up forming some oxidative byproducts that could be toxic to the cell and while they can get rid of some, over their lifespan it can start accumulating and cause them to die

89
Q

Hematocrit

A

the proportion of the blood that consists of red blood cells
* In healthy men, the hematocrit is 46% +/- 5%
* In healthy women, the hematocrit is 42% +/- 5%

90
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

maintains the balance between production and destruction of red blood cells

91
Q

Formed Elements – WBCs

A

Move in an amoeboid fashion via cytoplasmic extensions
Squeeze through the intracellular junctions between capillary walls via diapedesis or extravasation
Classified based on staining properties; Granulocytes, agranulocytes

92
Q

Granulocytes

A

have brightly stained granules; basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

93
Q

Agranulocytes

A

does not have brightly stained granules; lymphocytes, monocytes

94
Q

Neutrophils

A

most abundant white blood cell, granules are pale red and not as prominent, larger than RBC, nucleus is dark purple and multi-lobed

95
Q

Eosinophils

A

prominent large bright-red granules, larger than RBC, large lobed dark purple staining nucleus

96
Q

Basophils

A

prominent large dark purple-blue granules, larger than RBC, large lobed dark purple staining nucleus often hidden by granules

97
Q

Monocytes

A

largest leukocyte, dark-staining nucleus has C-shaped or kidney bean -shape, abundant cytoplasm with no granules visible

98
Q

Lymphocytes

A

smallest leukocyte, slightly larger than RBC, large round dark-staining nucleus occupies most of the cell, little cytoplasm with no granules visible

99
Q

Antigens

A

found on the surface of cells to help the immune system recognize self cells

100
Q

Antibodies

A

secreted by lymphocytes in response to foreign cells or antigens

101
Q

ABO System

A

There are four major blood groups determined by the presence or absence of antigens on the surface of red blood cells: Group A, Group B, Group AB, Group O

102
Q

Group A

A

has the A antigen on RBCs and B antibody in the plasma

103
Q

Group B

A

has the B antigen on RBCs and A antibody in the plasma

104
Q

Group AB

A

has both A and B antigens on RBCs, but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma

105
Q

Group O

A

has neither A nor B antigens on RBCs, but both A and B antibody are in the plasma

106
Q

Type A

A

cannot have B or AB blood but can have A or O blood

107
Q

Type B

A

cannot have A or AB blood but can have B or O blood

108
Q

Type AB

A

can have any type of blood, is the universal recipient

109
Q

Type O

A

can only have O blood, is the universal donor

110
Q

O- is the universal donor and AB+ is the universal recipient because

A

it doesn’t have any of those antigens so there’s nothing there for the patient’s antibodies to attack. AB+ can receive anything because they don’t have any antibodies so it doesn’t really matter what we give them because they won’t attack it

111
Q

Rh antigen

A

is sometimes referred to as D antigen

112
Q

Rh negative blood

A

is given to Rh negative patients

113
Q

Rh positive blood or Rh negative blood

A

may be given to Rh positive patients

114
Q

Most and least common blood type

A

O+ is the most common blood type, AB- is the least common

115
Q

Blood doping

A

manipulating your red blood cell count so that you have more erythrocytes so that you can bind more oxygen so you can perform better athletically

116
Q

Anemia

A

A group of conditions that result from the inability of erythrocytes to deliver the needed amount of oxygen to the cells of the body

117
Q

There are two ways in which anemia can develop:

A

Insufficient number of erythrocytes
Inability of the erythrocytes to bind the normal amount of oxygen

118
Q

Anemia symptoms

A

fatigue, shortness of breath, light headiness, dizziness, increased heart rate, paleness

119
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

autoimmune response that destroys the cells of their own mucosa -> lack of intrinsic factor which is a protein made in the stomach which is needed to absorb vitamin b12 -> vitamin b12 deficiency

120
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

lacking iron so hemoglobin can’t bind to oxygen. Cause- too much blood loss, diet is lacking iron, absorption issues

121
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

destruction or inhibition of the red bone marrow, affects the formation of all the formed elements. The cause is unknown but can be a result from exposure to toxins, radiation, chemotherapy, autoimmune disease, viral condition. Severe, no cure. Treatment: blood transfusions and stem cell transplants but it’s not widely successful.

122
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

red blood cells have a sickle shape and looks like a crescent moon, affects hemoglobin and makes the cells really vulnerable because they’re easily damaged and destroyed. Genetic mutation that most occurs in African descendants. Treatment: blood transfusions and stem cell transplants but it’s not widely successful

123
Q

Hemorrhagic anemia

A

occurs when there is some type of hemorrhage or blood loss. Acute hemorrhagic occurs when blood loss happens rapidly. Chronic hemorrhagic anemia – occurs overtime, stomach ulcers or GI bleeds

124
Q

Polycythemia

A

Meaning “many blood cells”
Abnormal excess of erythrocytes in the blood

125
Q

Hemolytic Diseases

A

Rh incompatibility of mother and second child
When an Rh- woman carries and delivers an Rh+ baby, a small amount of the baby’s blood comes in contact with the mother’s blood at birth.

126
Q

Hemolytic diseases Post-partum

A

the immune system of some women develop Rh+ antibodies. So if this woman becomes pregnant with another Rh+ baby her antibodies will cross the placenta and attack the embryos blood

127
Q

Complete blood count (CBC)

A

provides a basic assessment of a patient’s overall health, Helpful in detecting a wide range of disorders such as anemia, leukemia, infection, etc.

128
Q

Complete blood count with differential (CBC with diff)

A

provides a more in depth preliminary assessment of a patient’s overall health, Determines the percentage and absolute concentration of each class of leukocyte, Helpful in determining the type of infection a patient may have i.e. bacterial, fungal, viral

129
Q

In healthy adults the distribution of WBCs should be

A
  • Neutrophils: 50% - 70%
  • Lymphocytes: 25% - 33%
  • Monocytes: 3% - 9%
  • Eosinophils: 1% - 4%
  • Basophils: 0.5% - 1%
130
Q

Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP)

A

provides information about the current status of your metabolism including:kidney and liver function, electrolyte and acid/base balance, levels of blood glucose and blood proteins.
Also used to monitor known conditions, such as hypertension, and to monitor the use of medications to check for any kidney- or liver-related side effects

131
Q

Full Lipid Panel

A

Used as part of a cardiac risk assessment to help determine an individual’s risk of heart disease.
Includes: total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), low-density lipoprotein, (LDL), and triglycerides

132
Q

Total cholesterol

A
  • Optimal: <200
  • Borderline High: 200-239
  • High: >240
133
Q

HDL

A
  • Low: <40
  • High: >60
134
Q

LDL

A
  • Optimal: <100
  • Near Optimal: 100-129
  • Borderline High: 130-159
  • High: 160-189
  • Very High: >190
135
Q

Triglycerides

A
  • Optimal: <150
  • Borderline High: 150-199
  • High: 200 -499
  • Very High: >500

Physio (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions