Lab Exam 1 Study Guides Flashcards

1
Q

Anisocytosis

A
  • Noticeable variation in size of erythrocyte population
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2
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

-Presence of red cells of various shapes

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3
Q

Polychromasia

A

-Erythrocytes display varying degrees of pink-blue when stained

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4
Q

Hypochromia

A
  • Erythrocytes have very large area of central pallor due to decreased hemoglobin content
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5
Q

Hyperchromia

A
  • Erythrocytes have no central pallor and dark red-pink color due to increased hemoglobin content
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6
Q

Four purposes of blood smear examination

A

Morphology may be of diagnostic importance to the clinician

  • difference in size
  • difference in shape
  • differences in intracellular content
  • miscellaneous differences
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7
Q

Normal erythrocyte size

A

6.2 to 8.2 um in diameter

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8
Q

Biconcave erythrocytes having a diameter of 6.0um or less are called?

A

Microcytes

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9
Q

Biconcave erythrocytes having a diameter of 8.5um or more are called?

A

Macrocytes

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10
Q

Spherocytes

A
  • have lost biconcave shape
  • spherical
  • no central pallor
  • hyperchromic
  • smaller surface area
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11
Q

Codocytes

A
  • target cells

- central stained area surrounded by pale area surrounded by stained area

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12
Q

Schistocytes

A

-fragmented erythrocytes

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13
Q

Drepanocytes

A

-sickle cells

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14
Q

Basophilic Stippling

A
  • erythrocytes display several small blue-black granules scattered throughout cytoplasm
  • granules are aggregate ribosomes and polyribosomes
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15
Q

Heinz Bodies

A
  • Intracellular inclusions of denatured hemoglobin

- single or multiple, refractile, irregular, or round bodies

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16
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies

A
  • remaining fragments of cell nucleus
  • round, darkly stained structures
  • normally removed by spleen
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17
Q

Pappenheimer Bodies

A
  • aggregates of protein and iron that form from damaged mitochondria
  • appear as blue-black dots
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18
Q

Siderocytes

A

-erythrocytes containing Pappenheimer bodies

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19
Q

Burr cells

A
  • 10 to 30 short blunt, or pointed evenly spaced projections of the cell membrane
  • slightly smaller than normal red cells but maintain their central pallor
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20
Q

Crenated cells

A
  • very irregular membrane projections
  • projections appear rounded and short on the surface
  • appear to have a bubble or drop of water in the center
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21
Q

Rouleaux Formation

A

-erythrocytes are arranged in rolls or stacks of 4 or more cells

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22
Q

Agglutination

A

-cells form irregular clumps

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23
Q

Conditions

-schistocytes

A

-hemolytic anemia, uremia, malignant hypertension, extensive burns, enzyme deficiencies, peptic ulcer, and aplastic anemia

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24
Q

Conditions

-burr cells

A

-renal disease and burns

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25
Q

Conditions

-spherocytes

A

-spherocytosis, hemolytic anemia, burn patients

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26
Q

Conditions

-macrocytes

A

-vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, alcoholism, liver disease, hypothyroidism, aplastic anemia

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27
Q

Conditions

-hypochromia

A

-iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, and lead poisoning

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28
Q

Conditions

-Rouleaux formation

A

-malignant lymphoma, multiple myeloma

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29
Q

Conditions

-eliptocytosis

A

-hereditary, megaloblastic anemia, thalassemia, sickle cell trait, HbC trait and severe iron deficiency

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30
Q

Conditions

-drepanocytes

A

-Hemoglobin S disease

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31
Q

Increased percentage of eosinophils is usually associate with?

A

-asthma, hay fever, and parasitic infections

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32
Q

In appendicitis, one would expect to find an increased number of?

A

-segmented and band neutrophils

33
Q

Basophilia is associated with?

A

-myelogenous leukemia, and rarely allergic reactions

34
Q

Chronic tuberculosis and typhus fever are examples of disease in which what leukocyte is increased?

A

-monocyte

35
Q

Left Shift

A

-increased numbers of immature neutrophils

36
Q

Right Shift

A

-increased number of hypersegmented neutrophils

37
Q

Toxic granulation may be seen in which white cell?

A

-neutrophil

38
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils have how many lobes and are associated with what disease?

A
  • more than 5 lobes

- megaloblastic anemia

39
Q

Increased numbers of which white cell are associated with viral disease such as infectious mononucleosis?

A

-lymphocytes

40
Q

Variant Lymphocytes

A
  • may be larger than monocytes
  • irregular nucleus
  • abundant blue cytoplasm
  • granules and vacuoles
  • cytoplasm is indented by other cells
41
Q

Content of toxic granulation

A

-primary granules

42
Q

Content of dohle bodies

A

-RNA

43
Q

Conditions

-toxic granulation

A

-severe bacterial infection

44
Q

Conditions

-dohle bodies

A
  • septicemia, burns, measles, pneumonia

- granulocytic anemia and hemolytic anemia

45
Q

Conditions

-Auer rods

A

-acute myeloblastic leukemia

46
Q

Conditions

-pseudo pelger-huet

A

-chronic myelogenous leukemia

47
Q

What are found in May-Hegglin anomaly?

A

-Giant platelets and dohle bodies

48
Q

Giant lysosomes are seen in leukocytes in?

A

-Chediak-Higashi syndrome

49
Q

Large numbers of smudge cells are associated with?

A

-chronic lymphocytic leukemia

50
Q

What is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A
  • left shift
  • increased neutrophils
  • increased eosinophils
  • increased basophils
51
Q

What does the X designation on a microscope stand for?

A
  • indicates magnification of lens
52
Q

The eyepiece on most microscopes have what magnification?

A

-10X

53
Q

What does N.A. stand for and what does it tell you about the objective?

A
  • numerical aperture
  • tells the resolving power of the objective
  • the higher the aperture, the more detail can be seen
54
Q

What position should the condenser be in (up or down) when you use the oil immersion (100X) lens?

A

-The condenser should be turned up for higher magnification objectives and set at a lower position for lower power objectives

55
Q

Why do you need to remove oil from the oil immersion lens after each day’s use?

A

-The oil will harden and collect dust, which causes interference when viewing a specimen

56
Q

Which objective should be in place when the microscope is stored?

A

-4X

57
Q

Which are the two most commonly used Romanowsky stains?

A

-Wright and wright-giemsa

58
Q

For optimum staining the pH of the wright stain must be?

A

-6.4 to 6.8

59
Q

Describe the properties of the Wright or Wright-Giemsa stain that aid identification of the differential characteristics of cellular materials

A
  • Methylene blue ions are positively charged and stain the acid components of the cell varying shades of blue to purple
  • Eosin ions are negatively charged and stain the alkaline structures of the cell varying shades of orange to pink
  • Structures that take up both stains will appear pink to lilac in color
60
Q

What substance is used as a fixative in staining?

A

-methanol

61
Q

If the buffer used for the Wright’s stain is too acidic the red cells will appear?

A

-red to pink

62
Q

Normal platelet size

A

-1 to 4 microns

63
Q

The cytoplasm of a platelet contains?

A

-reddish purple granules

64
Q

Platelet estimate

A

(total platelets counted/5) X 15x10^3/uL

65
Q

The process of white cell formation is called?

A

-leukopoiesis

66
Q

Reference Ranges

-neutrophils

A

40-80%

67
Q

Reference Ranges

-monocytes

A

2-10%

68
Q

Reference Ranges

-basophils

A

0-2%

69
Q

Reference Ranges

-lymphocytes

A

25-35%

70
Q

Reference Ranges

-eosinophils

A

0-5%

71
Q

Reference Ranges

-band neutrophils

A

0-5%

72
Q

How many lobes does a mature nucleus have?

A

-3 to 5 segments

73
Q

The large red-orange granules of the eosinophil contain what substance that attracts which part of the stain?

A
  • contain alkaline substance

- attract eosin

74
Q

The large blue-black granules of the basophil contain what substance and attracts which part of the stain?

A
  • contains acid substance

- attracts methylene blue

75
Q

The lymphocyte has what kind of chromatin?

A

-coarsely clumped

76
Q

A few small pink granules (azurophilic granules) may be seen in the cytoplasm of which cell?

A

-Lymphocytes

77
Q

Vacuoles may normally be seen in which cell?

A

-Monocyte

78
Q

Absolute counts

A

% of cell type in differential X white cell count