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REGUB > L20, 21, 26 + 27: Endocrine System > Flashcards

L20, 21, 26 + 27: Endocrine System Flashcards

1
Q

What is endocrine pseudohypofunction?

A
  • appears to be decreased function of endocrine gland

- but really, the target organ receptors are not functioning

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2
Q

In which part of the skull does the pituitary gland sit in?

A

sella turcica (in middle cranial fossa)

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3
Q

What are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland?

A
  1. Anterior Pituitary

2. Posterior Pituitary

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4
Q

What is another name for the anterior pituitary gland?

A

adenohypophysis

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5
Q

What is another name for the posterior pituitary gland?

A

neurohypophysis

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6
Q

What is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland derived from?

A

Rathke’s Pouch - composed of endocrine cells

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7
Q

What is the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland derived from?

A

the 3rd ventricle - composed of neural cells

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8
Q

List the 3 cell types of the anterior pituitary gland

A
  1. Acidophils
  2. Chromophobes
  3. Basophils
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9
Q

List the 7 hormones that the anterior pituitary gland releases

A
  1. Growth Hormone
  2. Prolactin
  3. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
  4. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
  5. Leuteinising Hormone
  6. Adenocorticotrophic Hormone
  7. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone
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10
Q

List 2 causes of hyperpituitarism and state which one is the most common pathology

A
  1. Functioning Adenoma - most common

2. Carcinoma

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11
Q

What is a functional adenoma vs. a non-functional adenoma?

A

Functional = pituitary adenoma having hormonal effects

Non-Functional = pituitary adenoma not having any hormonal effects

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12
Q

What is the most common functional adenoma of the pituitary gland?

A

Prolactinoma

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13
Q

List the top 5 most common functional adenomas of the pituitary gland (from most common to least)

A
  1. Prolactinoma
  2. Somatotrophic Adenoma
  3. Adenocorticotrophic Adenoma
  4. Gonadotrophic Adenoma
  5. Thyrotrophic Adenoma
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14
Q

What is a microadenoma of the pituitary gland?

A

pituitary adenoma less than 1 cm

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15
Q

Which is a macroadenoma of the pituitary gland?

A

pituitary adenoma greater than 1 cm

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16
Q

Functional pituitary adenoma symptoms are dependent on the hormone being overproduced.

There also may be “space effect” symptoms - list some of these symptoms

A
  • Bitemporal Hemianopia (due to optical chiasm pressure)

- Hormone Deficiency (due to increased size of adenoma)

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17
Q

What is the presentation of a prolactinoma in males?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia

  • asymptomatic
  • low libido
  • impotence
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18
Q

What is the presentation of a prolactinaemia in females?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia

  • amenorrhea
  • sterility/infertility
  • galactorrhoea
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19
Q

How can brain stalk/stem compression lead to increased prolactin?

A
  • dopamine normally released from hypothalamus (has inhibitory effects)
  • stalk compression = decreased dopamine
  • increase in prolactin secreted
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20
Q

How can prolactinomas be treated?

A 
Dopamine Agonist (Bromocriptine)
Surgery
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21
Q

What is the drug, bromocriptine, used for?

A

dopamine agonist

used for prolactinomas

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22
Q

If a somatotrophic adenoma occurs before puberty, how would the patient present?

A

Giantism

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23
Q

If a somatotrophic adenoma occurs after puberty, how would the patient present?

A

Acromegaly

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24
Q

List some of the characteristics/clinical presentation of acromegaly due to increased growth hormone

A
  • prognathism
  • brow protrusion
  • broad nose
  • large hands and feet
  • enlarged tongue
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • joint pain
  • deafness
  • glycosuria/diabetes
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25
Q

What is prognathism a/w?

A

acromegaly due to GH excess after puberty

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26
Q

How may a ACTH-producing (functional) pituitary adenoma present?

A
  • usually silent

- can present w/ Cushing’s Disease

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27
Q

What is the difference between Cushing’s Syndrome and Cushing’s Disease?

A

Cushing’s Syndrome - excess glucocorticoids; whatever the cause

Cushing’s Disease - excess glucocorticoids due to pit. adenoma
– leads to bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia

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28
Q

What disease leads to bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia?

A

Cushing’s Disease (due to ACTH producing pituitary adenoma)

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29
Q

List some of the common causes of hypopituitarism

A
  • adenoma (compressing pit. gland)
  • trauma
  • iatrogenic
  • Sheehan Syndrome
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30
Q

What is Sheehan Syndrome?

A
  • causes hypopituitarism
  • due to postpartum necrosis of pit. gland
  • due to excess loss of blood during child birth
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31
Q

A lack of what hormone during childhood can lead to dwarfism?

A

Growth Hormone

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32
Q

A lack of what hormone during childhood can lead to delayed sexual development?

A

FSH/LH

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33
Q

What 2 hormones are released from the posterior pituitary gland?

A
  1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

2. Oxytocin

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34
Q

List some of the effects of oxytocin

A
  • myometrial contraction during labour

- release of milk from lactating breast

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35
Q

What occurs if there is an increased secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)

  • excessive water reabsorption
  • causes hyponatraemia
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36
Q

What occurs if there is a decreased secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

  • unable to conserve water (polyuria, polydipsia)
  • caused by head injury, neoplasm, inflammation
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37
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidus (NOT nephrogenic DI)

A
  • decreased ADH secretion
  • unable to conserve water (polyuria, polydipsia)
  • caused by head injury, neoplasm, inflammation
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38
Q

Which type of cells of the thyroid gland are the thyroid hormones secreted from?

A

Follicular Cells

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39
Q

Which type of cells of the thyroid gland is calcitonin secreted from?

A

Parafollicular C Cells

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40
Q

Is T3 or T4 (thyroid hormones) the more active form?

A

T3

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41
Q

What is present in the colloid of the thyroid gland?

A

Thyroglobulin (necessary for thyroid hormone production)

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42
Q

What does “euthyroid” mean?

A

normal thyroid status + function

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43
Q

What is Struma ovarii and what may it cause?

A
  • ovarian teratoma
  • tumour composed of thyroid tissue
  • causes ectopic production of thyroid hormones

Effect = HYPERTHYROIDISM

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44
Q

List the symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A
  • heat intolerance
  • weight loss + increased appetite
  • tachycardia; palpitations
  • hypermotile GIT
  • tremor
  • irritability
  • exophthalmos
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45
Q

What is exophthalmos and what condition is it a/w?

A
  • bulging of the eye out of socket

- hyperthyroidism

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46
Q

List some of the symptoms of hypothyroidism in adults

A
  • myxoedema (face swelling)
  • apathy
  • mental sluggish
  • cold intolerance
  • hoarse
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47
Q

List some of the symptoms of hypothyroidism in children

A
  • cretinism
  • impaired skeletal development
  • mental retardation
  • mental sluggish
  • cold intolerance
  • oedema of face, tongue and some viscera
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48
Q

What is myxoedema a/w?

A

hypothyroidism in adults

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49
Q

What is cretinism a/w?

A

hypothyroidism in children

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50
Q

What is Graves’ Disease?

A
  • autoimmune disorder w/ hyperthyroidism
  • familial tendency
  • IgG autoantibody to TSH receptor
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51
Q

List some of the clinical features/symptoms of Graves’ Disease

A
  • exophthalmos
  • “lid lag” (when looking down)
  • dermopathy; pretibial myxedema (thickening of skin)
  • ± thyroid swelling
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52
Q

What is Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

A
  • autoimmune disorder w/ hypothyroidism

- a/w chronic thyroiditis

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53
Q

What is thyroiditis?

A

disorders with thyroid inflammation

e.g. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, De Quervain’s thyroiditis

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54
Q

What is De Quervain’s Thyroiditis?

A
  • subacute granulomatous thyroiditis
  • viral aetiology: most pts have history of an upper RTI
  • pts return to euthyroid state in 6 to 8 weeks
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55
Q

What is the clinical presentation of De Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

sudden painful enlargement of thyroid
fever
history of upper RTI

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56
Q

What is a simple/multinodular goitre of the thyroid gland?

A

diffuse enlargment of the thyroid gland

  • most often caused by low thyroid hormones
  • this stimulates TSH
  • hyperplasia/hypertrophy of the thyroid
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57
Q

What is the difference between a thyroid nodule and a multinodular goitre?

A

Thyroid Nodule = localized

Multinodular Goitre = diffuse enlargement of thyroid

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58
Q

Thyroid nodules undergo “triple assessment.” Explain what triple assessment is

A
  1. Clinical
  2. Radiology (US, radionuclide imaging…)
  3. Pathology (via FNABx)
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59
Q

Give 2 examples of a BENIGN thyroid neoplasm?

A
  1. Follicular adenoma

2. Hurthle cell (oncocytic) adenoma

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60
Q

List some of the risk factors for malignant thyroid tumours

A
  • ionizing radiation exposure
  • iodine rich diet
  • genetics
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61
Q

What is the most common malignant thyroid tumour?

A

papillary carcinoma

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62
Q

List the common malignant thyroid tumours from most common to least

A
  • papillary carcinoma
  • follicular carcinoma
  • medullary carcinoma
  • anaplastic carcinoma
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63
Q

Where do papillary carcinomas of the thyroid gland often invade?

A

regional lymph nodes

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64
Q

List some of the histological features of a papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland

A
  • small whitish nodule
  • pale/clear nuclei
  • overlapping nuclei
  • nuclear inclusions
  • nuclear grooves
  • psammoma bodies*
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65
Q

Where do follicular carcinomas of the thyroid gland often invade?

A

haematogenous spread - to bone marrow

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66
Q

What are the 2 possible treatments for follicular carcinoma?

A
  1. total thyroidectomy
  2. radioactive iodine
  • thyroid hormone given after surgery
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67
Q

What is a medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland?

A
  • malignant tumour of thyroid
  • neuroendocrine neoplasm of parafollicular C cells
  • they secrete calcitonin
  • a/w MEN (multiple endocrine neoplasia)
68
Q

List the histological features of medullary carcinoma

A
  • distinctive amyloid stroma

- often spindled cells

69
Q

What is anaplastic carcinoma?

A
  • malignant tumour of thyroid
  • elderly
  • sudden rapid growth into adjacent neck structures
  • poor prognosis
  • hard, gritty; undifferentiated giant cells
70
Q

List the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex from outside to in

A
  1. Zona Glomerulosa
  2. Zona Fasciculata
  3. Zona Reticularis
71
Q

What are glucocorticoids?

A

cortisol

72
Q

What are mineralocorticoids?

A

aldosterone

73
Q

Where in the adrenal cortex are glucocorticoids made?

A

zona fasciculata

74
Q

Where in the adrenal cortex are mineralocorticoids made?

A

zona glomerulosa

75
Q

Where in the adrenal cortex are sex steroids created?

A

zona reticularis

76
Q

What hormones are created in the adrenal medulla?

A

Catecholamines = adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine

77
Q

What is another term for hypercortisolism?

A

Cushing Syndrome

78
Q

Hypercortisolism can be exogenous or endogenous. What is the most common cause of hypercorisolism (Cushing Syndrome)?

A

Exogenous

79
Q

What is an exogenous cause of hypercortisolism?

A

iatrogenic - administration of glucocorticoids/cortisol

80
Q

List some of the endogenous causes of hypercortisolism

A
  1. Pituitary Adenoma [Cushing Disease]
  2. Adrenal adenoma/carcinoma
  3. Paraneoplastic - secretion of ectopic ACTH by a neoplasm (e.g small cell carcinoma, carcinoid tumours…)
81
Q

What happens to the structure of the adrenal gland in iatrogenic cushing syndrome?

A
  • cortical atrophy

- reduction in the size of the adrenal gland

82
Q

What is Cushing Syndrome and list the clinical features of it.

A

Cushing Syndrome: excess cortisol due to any cause

  • hypertension
  • truncal obesity
  • buffalo hump
  • decreased muscle mass
  • hypergylcaemia (gluconeogenesis)
  • fragile, thin skin
  • cutaneous striae
  • osteoporosis
  • susceptibility to infections
  • mental disturbances
  • hirsutism
  • menstrual abnormalities
83
Q

What are the aldosterone and renin levels in primary hyperaldosteronism?

A 
Aldosterone = Increased
Renin = Decreased
84
Q

Why is there decreased renin in primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

increased aldosterone will suppress RAAS and decrease plasma renin

85
Q

What is another term for primary hyperaldosteronism caused by an adrenocortical neoplasm/adenoma?

A

Conn Syndrome

86
Q

What is Conn Syndrome?

A

primary hyperaldosteronism caused by an adrenocortical neoplasm/adenoma

87
Q

List the causes of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn Syndrome)

A
  1. Adrenocortical Neoplasm/Adenoma (Conn Syndrome)
  2. Adrenocortical Hyperplasia
  3. Glucocorticoid-Suppressible Hyperaldosteronism (rare)
88
Q

What is the treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism caused by an adenoma?

A

surgical removal

89
Q

What is the treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenocortical hyperplasia?

A

aldosterone antagonist - spironolactone

90
Q

What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

overproduction of aldosterone due to the activation of RAAS

91
Q

What are the aldosterone and renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A 
Aldosterone = Increased
Renin = Increased
92
Q

List some of the causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism

A
  • congestive heart failure
  • decreased renal perfusion
  • hypoalbuminaemia
  • pregnancy
93
Q

What is the treatment of secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

correction of underlying cause

94
Q

What are the 2 compounds that are produced in the adrenal zona reticularis?

A
  1. dehydroepiandrosterone
  2. androstenedione

they are converted to testosterone in peripheral tissues

95
Q

List the causes of androgenital syndromes/androgen excess

A
  1. Androgen Adrenocortical (Reticularis) Neoplasm

2. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

96
Q

What is 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency?

A
  • a congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • no mineralocorticoid or cortisol synthesis
  • excess production of androgens
  • hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia inducing acidosis, hypotension, cardiovascular collapse and death
97
Q

What are the 2 causes of primary adrenocortical insufficiency?

A

occurs in adrenal gland
1. acute adrenocortical insufficiency (adrenal crisis)

  1. chronic adrenocortical insufficiency (addison’s disease)
98
Q

What is adrenal crisis?

A
  • primary adrenocortical insufficiency

- acute adrenocortical insufficiency

99
Q

What is Addison’s Disease?

A
  • PRIMARY adrenocortical insufficiency
  • CHRONIC adrenocortical insufficiency
  • progressive destruction of adrenal cortex
100
Q

List some causes of acute adrenal crisis (primary acute adrenocortical insufficiency)

A
  • stress (infections, trauma…) which requires increased steroid output
  • rapid withdrawal of exogenous steroids
  • massive adrenal haemorrhage (e.g. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome)
101
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome?

A

bilateral adrenal haemorrhage

  • usually due to N. meningitidis septicaemia
  • rapid hypotension = shock
  • treated w/ antibiotics
102
Q

What organism most likely causes Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

103
Q

What are the 3 causes of Addison disease?

A
  1. Autoimmune Adrenalitis - MOST COMMON
  2. Infections (e.g. TB)
  3. Metastatic Carcinoma
104
Q

What are the most common carcinomas to cause Addison’s disease?

A

lung/breast

105
Q

The frequency of autoimmune adrenalitis is increased with which 2 histocompatability antigens?

A
  1. HLA-B8

2. DR-3

106
Q

List the clinical manifestations/symptoms of Addison disease

A
  • progressive weakness
  • fatiguability
  • GI symptoms
  • hyperpigmentation of skin
  • aldosterone deficiency: hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypotension
  • glucocorticoid deficiency: hypoglycaemia
107
Q

What is secondary adrenocortical insufficiency?

A

lack of adrenocortical hormone production due to lack of ACTH secretion

108
Q

What is the most common type of adrenocortical neoplasm?

A

Adenoma > Carcinoma

109
Q

What is the histological presentation of an adrenocortical adenomas?

A
  • well circumscribed
  • appear yellow (due to lipid content)
  • haemorrhage
  • cystic degeneration
  • calcification
110
Q

What is the treatment of an adrenocortical adneomas?

A

surgical excision

111
Q

What is the histological presentation of an adrenocortical carcinoma?

A
  • usually >20 cm
  • poorly demarcated
  • necrosis
  • haemorrhage
  • cystic change
112
Q

Where do adrenocortical carcinomas invade and metastasize to?

A
  • invade adrenal vein, vena cava and lymphatics

- metastasize to regional lymph nodes, lungs or other viscera

113
Q

What is an adrenal myelolipoma?

A
  • benign

- has fat and haematopoietic cells

114
Q

What are the 2 cell types present in the adrenal medulla?

A
  1. Chromaffin Cells (neuroendocrine cells)

2. Sustentacular Cells (supporting cells)

115
Q

Which cell type of the adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines?

A

Chromaffin Cells (neuroendocrine cells)

116
Q

What is a phaeochromocytoma?

A

neoplasm of chromaffin cells (in adrenal medulla)

117
Q

What is a histological feature of phaechromocytomas?

A

Zellballen: small nests of polygonal/spindle cells

118
Q

Zellballen is a histological feature of what tumour?

A

Phaechromocytoma

119
Q

List some of the clinical features of phaeochromocytoma

A
  • hypertension
  • tachycardia
  • palpitations
  • headaches
  • sweating
  • tremor
  • abdominal/chest pain
  • paroxysmal episodes of hypertension
120
Q

How is a phaeochromocytoma diagnosed?

A

24 hour urine collection of:

i) catecholamines
ii) metabolites

e.g. VMA and metanephrines

121
Q

Give 2 examples of metabolites that would confirm the diagnosis of a phaeochromocytoma

A
  1. Vanillylmandelic Acid

2. Metanephrines

122
Q

What is the treatment of a phaeochromocytoma?

A

surgical excision (after medication w/ adrenergic blocking agents)

123
Q

What are the 2 cell types present in the parathyroid glands?

A
  1. Chief Cells

2. Oxyphil Cells

124
Q

Which cell type is PTH excreted from?

A

chief cells

125
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • overproduction of PTH due to error in parathyroid gland itself
126
Q

List the 3 causes of primary hyperparathryoidism

A
  1. Parathyroid Adenoma
  2. Primary Hyperplasia
  3. Parathyroid Carcinoma
127
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid adenoma

128
Q

What is the secondary hyperparathryoidism?

A

any condition a/w chronic decreased level of calcium leading to compensatory activity of parathyroid gland
- e.g. renal failure

129
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

renal failure

  • renal failure = decreased PO4 excretion
  • hyperphosphataemia = depressed calcium levels
  • stimulates PTH gland and PTH secretion
130
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

parathyroid activity becomes autonomous and excessive w/ resultant hypercalcaemia

131
Q

What is the treatment of tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

parathyroidectomy

132
Q

List the 4 causes of hypoparathyroidism

A
  1. accidental removal due to thyroidectomy
  2. congenital absence (DiGeorge syndrome)
  3. primary idiopathic atrophy (autoimmune)
  4. familial hypoparathyroidism
133
Q

Chvostek’s sign is indicative of what?

A

hypocalcaemia

134
Q

Trousseau’s sign is indicative of what?

A

hypocalcaemia

135
Q

List some of the signs/clinical manifestations of hypocalcaemia

A
  • numbness + tingling in the extremities and perioral region
  • muscle cramps
  • bronchospasm
  • laryngospasm
  • seizures
  • Chvostek’s sign
  • Trousseau’s sign
  • intracranial manifestations
  • conduction defect w/ prolonged QT interval
136
Q

What are MEN syndromes?

A
  • familial diseases a/w neoplasia or hyperplasia of several endocrine glands
  • AD
137
Q

What is another name for Wermer’s syndrome?

A

MEN Type 1

138
Q

What genetic defect is associated with MEN Type 1?

A

MEN1 gene on chromosome 11q13

139
Q

MEN Type 2 is a/w which mutation?

A

mutations of the RET proto-oncogene at chromosome 10q11.2

140
Q

What is another name for Sipple syndrome?

A

Men Type 2A

141
Q

What is another name for MEN Type 1?

A

Wermer’s Syndrome

142
Q

What is another name for Men Type 2A?

A

Sipple Syndrome

143
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of MEN Type 2A?

A
  1. Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
  2. Phaeochromocytoma
  3. Parathyroid Hyperplasia
144
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of MEN Type 2B?

A
  1. Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
  2. Phaeochromocytoma
  3. Extra-Endocrine Manifestations (e.g. marfanoid habitus - long axial bones)
145
Q

What are marfanoid habitus (long axial bones) a/w?

A

MEN Type 2B

146
Q

What is the treatment for MEN syndromes?

A

any pt w/ germline RET mutation is advised to have a prophylactic thyroidectomy to prevent inevitable development of medullary carcinomas

147
Q

What test can be used to test for a lack of GH and ACTH/Cortisol production in the pituitary gland?

A

Insulin Tolerance Test

  • insulin decreases blood glucose
  • this will normally trigger an increase in GH and ACTH
148
Q

An insulin tolerance test may be done to assess the production of GH and ACTH from the pituitary gland. What are 2 contraindications to this test?

A
  • seizures

- ischaemic heart disease

149
Q

In those that an insulin tolerance test are contraindicated, what test may be done to assess pituitary gland function and cortisol levels?

A

Short Synacthen Test (SST)

  • done to see if cortisol levels will rise
  • where is the problem occuring?
150
Q

What is synacthen? What is it used for

A
  • synthetic ACTH

- used in the Short Synacthen Test (SST) to test for pituitary function

151
Q

What test is done to see if there is a GH excess?

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

  • glucose inhibits GH secretions
  • if GH still high then there is a problem
152
Q

List 3 types of drugs that may be given to a patient with GH excess

A
  1. Dopamine Agonists
    - Cabergoline
  2. Somatostatin Analogues
    - Octreotide, Lareotide
  3. GH Receptor Blocker
    - Pegvisomant
153
Q

What type of drug is Cabergoline and what is it used for?

A

dopamine agonist

- used to treat GH excess

154
Q

What type of drugs are Ocreotide and Lareotide and what are they used for?

A

somatostatin analogues

- used to treat GH excess

155
Q

What type of drug is Pegvisomant and what is it used for?

A

GH receptor blocker

- used to treat GH excess

156
Q

What 2 investigations/test may be used to look for Cushing Syndrome?

A
  1. 24-hour Cortisol-Free Urine [assessing overall cortisol secretion]
  2. Overnight Dexamethasone Suppression Test [this lowers ACTH and should drop cortisol levels]
    - if cortisol is high, this is an adrenal problem
157
Q

What is the MOST sensitive marker of thyroid status/function? Why?

A

TSH

- changes occur early before T3 and T4

158
Q

Which antibodies are present and diagnostic of Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?

A

Thyroid Peroxidase [anti-TPO]

159
Q

Which antibodies are present and diagnostic of Graves’ Disease?

A

TSH Receptor Antibodies [anti-TRAb]

160
Q

What is subclinical hypothyroidism?

A
  • normal free T4
  • but raised TSH (so T4 should be raised, but isn’t)
  • can progress to over hypothyroidism

note: increased rate of miscarriage if TPO antibodies are positive

161
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism can increase the rate of miscarriage under what condition?

A

if TPO antibodies are positive

162
Q

In which 3 conditions should subclinical hypothyroidism be treated?

A
  1. TSH > 10
  2. Pre-Pregnancy/During Pregnancy
  3. Infertility
163
Q

What is thyroid scintigraphy and what is it used for?

A
  • examines uptake of iodine in thyroid

- used to diagnose hyperthyroidism

164
Q

What is subclinical hyperthyroidism?

A
  • low TSH

- normal thyroid hormone levels (should be low as well)

165
Q

What is the most common cause of subclinical hyperthyroidism?

A

exogenous levothyroxine (used in hypothyroidism)

166
Q

List some of the risk factors of developing a carcinoma when a thyroid nodule is already present

A
  • solitary nodule
  • had radiation to neck in teenage/child years
  • growing quickly
  • symptoms of pain or pressure
  • change in voice

REGUB (22 decks)

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