L12: Blood Histology Flashcards

1
Q

blood makes up ___ % of body weight

A

8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pH range of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

deviation = death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

blood minus formed elements

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

contents of plasma

A
  • blood minus formed elements
    contains:
    albumin
    fibrinogen
    immunoglobins
    lipids
    hormones
    vitamins
    salts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

plasma w/o blood clotting factors

A

serum

a protein rich fluid lacking fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

contents of serum

A

-plasma w/o blood clotting factors
contents:
albumin
immunoglobins
other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

list the 3 layers of centrifuged, heparinized blood

A
  1. supernatant - plasma
  2. buffy coat - leukocytes
  3. precipitate - RBCs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

female averages

A
  1. 4-5L of blood
  2. 38-48% formed elements
  3. 42% hematocrit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

male averages

A
  1. 5-6L of blood
  2. 44-54% formed elements
  3. 47% hematocrit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

list the blood protein groups

A
  1. fibrinogen
  2. albumins
  3. globulins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fibrinogen

A
  • made in liver
  • main blood clotting protein
  • target for thrombin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

albumin

A
  • most common protein
  • made in liver
  • exert major osmotic pressure on BV walls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

globulins

A

-immunoglobins/antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

list the 6 blood cell types

A
  1. erythrocytes
  2. neutrophils
  3. basophils
  4. eosinophils
  5. monocytes
  6. lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what blood component is derived from megakaryocytes?

A

platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

types of leukocytes

A

granulocytes

agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

granules can be seen under normal light microscopy in granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RBC size

A

7 - 7.5 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RBC properties

A
  • number increases under erythropoietin

- no granules or organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define erythropoietin

A
  • made in kidneys

- factor that tells bone marrow to make/release more RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RBC contents

A

lipids
ATP
carbonic anhydrase
hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RBC proteins

A

50% are integral proteins

peripheral proteins - spectrin and actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
spectrin
- binds cytoskeleton actin to membrane - results in spectrin-actin network - part of the calponin family of actin-binding proteins
26
structure of spectrin
- a tetramer of 2 polypeptide chains (alpha/beta) | - ends of tetramer associate with short actin filaments
27
ankyrin
- links spectrin-actin network to memb. | - by binding spectrin to band 3
28
band 3
a transmembrane protein that links with spectrin
29
protein 4.1
another link binding spectrin-actin junctions to the transmembrane protein glycophorin
30
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
another name for neutrophil | means nucleus of many varieties
31
neutrophil size
7-9 micrometers
32
neutrophil characteristics
1. 3-5 lobed nucleus 2. numerus small granules 3. azurophilic granules 4. live 1-2 days 5. secrete enzymes to destroy bacteria
33
neutrophil granules
1. numerus small granules containing hydrolases | 2. minimal azurophilic granules containing elastase and myelperoxidase
34
basophil structure
7-9 micrometers bilobed nucleus large membrane bound granules
35
basophil granules
1. vasoactive substances - serotonin, heparin, kallikrein | 2. can produce leukotrienes which slow smooth muscle contraction
36
eosinophils are primarily for response to ______ .
parasites but can also cause allergic rxns
37
eosinophil structure
1. 9-10 micrometers 2. bilobed nucleus often not seen 3. specific granules
38
eosinophil granules
- MBP - peroxidase - cationic protein
39
neutralizes heparin and is anti-parasitic
cationic protein | found in eosinophil granules
40
MBP
major basic protein disrupts parasite membranes causes basophils to release histamines found in eosinophil granules
41
lymphocyte nucleus
large, round, sometimes indented fills almost entire cell
42
lymphocyte size
variation in size due to cell age 6-8 10-12 up to 18
43
precursor to plasma cells
B lymphocytes
44
precursor to T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
45
monocyte structure
9-12 largest WBC kidney shaped nucleus cytoplasmic granules - sm lysosomes
46
platelets are _______ of _______ cells because ….?
fragments of megakaryocytes because they are too large to exit the bone marrow so they pinch off pieces of their memb. to enter the blood
47
functions of platelets
1. enhance aggregation by releasing factors | 2. promote clot formation, retraction and dissolution
48
______ cells release ______ to decrease platelet _____.
endothelial cell release prostacyclin to decrease platelet aggregation
49
the elimination of bleeding
hemostasis
50
define hemostasis
the elimination of bleeding
51
define hematoma
bruise | accumulation of blood in tissues
52
5 basic steps of hemostatic events in small vessels
1. constriction of smooth muscle 2. constriction of vessels 3. slowing of blood 4. formation of platelet plug 5. coagulation
53
platelets do not normally adhere to blood vessels, so how do they attach during an injury?
injury exposes the BV underlying collagen fibers which platelets adhere to creating the platelet plug
54
weibel-palade bodies
release von Willebrand factor | which helps platelets adhere in injury
55
what is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?
``` intrinsic = all ingredients are found in blood extrinsic = gets starter from injured tissues ``` both lead to activation of factor x and thus the common pathway
56
another term for Factor XII
Hageman factor
57
draw the intrinsic pathway --- use chart for answer
1. injury-collagen 2. factor XII 3. thrombin + XI activated 4. t = VII + XI 5. XI = IX 6. IX + VIII + Ca = X = common pathway
58
draw the extrinsic pathway --- use chart for answer
1. injury -- tissue release 2. thromboplastin 3. = VII 4. thromboplastin + VII + Ca = X
59
what activates prothrombin
XII common path X + V + Ca = thrombin
60
thrombin + Ca activates
V (no Ca) XIII fibrinogen into fibrin
61
fibrin + factor XIII = ?
blood clot
62
explain blood clot dissolution
plasminogen activated by t-PA = plasmin plasmin + t-PA = clot dissolution
63
what factor is necessary in the cross-linking of fibrin polymers to stabilize the fibrin gel
XIII
64
most clotting factors are synthesized where?
the liver
65
vitamin ___ is necessary in the synthesis of _____ factors .
vit. K VII IX X
66
homing mechanism for extravasation is activated by various cytokines which are released by ?
mast cells platelets damaged tissue cells
67
____ is released by endothelial cells and increases vascular permeability
NO
68
leukocyte extravasation involves two CAMs w/ two phases
selectins phase | integrins phase
69
in selectin phase, leukocytes display ______ antigens on their membrane for __________ binding.
sialyl lewis-x antigens ( which are carb ligands) for P-selectin binding
70
when endothelial cells are activated by inflammatory signaling, ______ appears on cell surface during selectin phase
p-selectins
71
describe selectin phase
carb ligands on leukocytes bind CRD of p-selectins of the cells in damaged tissue thus causing leukocytes to roll along endothelium and slow down for extravasation
72
p-selectins are from _____ ?
weibel-palade bodies
73
during leukocyte integrin phase
- integrin receptors are activated on memb. and bind to ICAM 1/2 - B1/2 integrins on cell bind to VCAM/ICAM on BV - integrins interacting w/ endothelial ligands promotes extravasation
74
define erythroblastosis fetalis
an antibody induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus - when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother - ABO and Rh groups
75
_____ is a major cause of Rh incompatibility
D antigen
76
why does EF not occur in a first pregnancy?
because IgM is produced but is too large to cross placenta in following pregnancies a strong IgG response is made which can easily cross placenta
77
consequences to fetus
1. hemolytic anemia = heart and liver injury = edema 2. jaundice = damaged CNS 3. hyperbilirubinemia
78
what hydrops fetalis
edema in babies | swelling of tissues from excess fluids