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Histology Exam 2 > L12: Blood Histology > Flashcards

L12: Blood Histology Flashcards

1
Q

blood makes up ___ % of body weight

A

8%

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2
Q

pH range of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

deviation = death

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3
Q

blood minus formed elements

A

plasma

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4
Q

contents of plasma

A
  • blood minus formed elements
    contains:
    albumin
    fibrinogen
    immunoglobins
    lipids
    hormones
    vitamins
    salts
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5
Q

plasma w/o blood clotting factors

A

serum

a protein rich fluid lacking fibrinogen

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6
Q

contents of serum

A

-plasma w/o blood clotting factors
contents:
albumin
immunoglobins
other

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7
Q

list the 3 layers of centrifuged, heparinized blood

A
  1. supernatant - plasma
  2. buffy coat - leukocytes
  3. precipitate - RBCs
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8
Q

female averages

A
  1. 4-5L of blood
  2. 38-48% formed elements
  3. 42% hematocrit
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9
Q

male averages

A
  1. 5-6L of blood
  2. 44-54% formed elements
  3. 47% hematocrit
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10
Q

list the blood protein groups

A
  1. fibrinogen
  2. albumins
  3. globulins
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11
Q

fibrinogen

A
  • made in liver
  • main blood clotting protein
  • target for thrombin
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12
Q

albumin

A
  • most common protein
  • made in liver
  • exert major osmotic pressure on BV walls
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13
Q

globulins

A

-immunoglobins/antibodies

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14
Q

list the 6 blood cell types

A
  1. erythrocytes
  2. neutrophils
  3. basophils
  4. eosinophils
  5. monocytes
  6. lymphocytes
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15
Q

what blood component is derived from megakaryocytes?

A

platelets

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16
Q

types of leukocytes

A

granulocytes

agranulocytes

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17
Q

types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils

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18
Q

types of agranulocytes

A

monocytes

lymphocytes

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19
Q

difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

granules can be seen under normal light microscopy in granulocytes

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20
Q

RBC size

A

7 - 7.5 micrometers

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21
Q

RBC properties

A
  • number increases under erythropoietin

- no granules or organelles

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22
Q

define erythropoietin

A
  • made in kidneys

- factor that tells bone marrow to make/release more RBCs

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23
Q

RBC contents

A

lipids
ATP
carbonic anhydrase
hemoglobin

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24
Q

RBC proteins

A

50% are integral proteins

peripheral proteins - spectrin and actin

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25
Q

spectrin

A
  • binds cytoskeleton actin to membrane
  • results in spectrin-actin network
  • part of the calponin family of actin-binding proteins
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26
Q

structure of spectrin

A
  • a tetramer of 2 polypeptide chains (alpha/beta)

- ends of tetramer associate with short actin filaments

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27
Q

ankyrin

A
  • links spectrin-actin network to memb.

- by binding spectrin to band 3

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28
Q

band 3

A

a transmembrane protein that links with spectrin

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29
Q

protein 4.1

A

another link binding spectrin-actin junctions to the transmembrane protein glycophorin

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30
Q

polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

another name for neutrophil

means nucleus of many varieties

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31
Q

neutrophil size

A

7-9 micrometers

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32
Q

neutrophil characteristics

A
  1. 3-5 lobed nucleus
  2. numerus small granules
  3. azurophilic granules
  4. live 1-2 days
  5. secrete enzymes to destroy bacteria
33
Q

neutrophil granules

A
  1. numerus small granules containing hydrolases

2. minimal azurophilic granules containing elastase and myelperoxidase

34
Q

basophil structure

A

7-9 micrometers
bilobed nucleus
large membrane bound granules

35
Q

basophil granules

A
  1. vasoactive substances - serotonin, heparin, kallikrein

2. can produce leukotrienes which slow smooth muscle contraction

36
Q

eosinophils are primarily for response to ______ .

A

parasites

but can also cause allergic rxns

37
Q

eosinophil structure

A
  1. 9-10 micrometers
  2. bilobed nucleus often not seen
  3. specific granules
38
Q

eosinophil granules

A
  • MBP
  • peroxidase
  • cationic protein
39
Q

neutralizes heparin and is anti-parasitic

A

cationic protein

found in eosinophil granules

40
Q

MBP

A

major basic protein
disrupts parasite membranes
causes basophils to release histamines

found in eosinophil granules

41
Q

lymphocyte nucleus

A

large, round, sometimes indented

fills almost entire cell

42
Q

lymphocyte size

A

variation in size due to cell age
6-8
10-12
up to 18

43
Q

precursor to plasma cells

A

B lymphocytes

44
Q

precursor to T lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes

45
Q

monocyte structure

A

9-12
largest WBC
kidney shaped nucleus
cytoplasmic granules - sm lysosomes

46
Q

platelets are _______ of _______ cells because ….?

A

fragments of megakaryocytes because they are too large to exit the bone marrow
so they pinch off pieces of their memb. to enter the blood

47
Q

functions of platelets

A
  1. enhance aggregation by releasing factors

2. promote clot formation, retraction and dissolution

48
Q

______ cells release ______ to decrease platelet _____.

A

endothelial cell release prostacyclin to decrease platelet aggregation

49
Q

the elimination of bleeding

A

hemostasis

50
Q

define hemostasis

A

the elimination of bleeding

51
Q

define hematoma

A

bruise

accumulation of blood in tissues

52
Q

5 basic steps of hemostatic events in small vessels

A
  1. constriction of smooth muscle
  2. constriction of vessels
  3. slowing of blood
  4. formation of platelet plug
  5. coagulation
53
Q

platelets do not normally adhere to blood vessels, so how do they attach during an injury?

A

injury exposes the BV underlying collagen fibers which platelets adhere to creating the platelet plug

54
Q

weibel-palade bodies

A

release von Willebrand factor

which helps platelets adhere in injury

55
Q

what is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?

A 
intrinsic = all ingredients are found in blood
extrinsic = gets starter from injured tissues

both lead to activation of factor x and thus the common pathway

56
Q

another term for Factor XII

A

Hageman factor

57
Q

draw the intrinsic pathway — use chart for answer

A
  1. injury-collagen
  2. factor XII
  3. thrombin + XI activated
  4. t = VII + XI
  5. XI = IX
  6. IX + VIII + Ca = X
    = common pathway
58
Q

draw the extrinsic pathway — use chart for answer

A
  1. injury – tissue release
  2. thromboplastin
  3. = VII
  4. thromboplastin + VII + Ca = X
59
Q

what activates prothrombin

A

XII
common path
X + V + Ca = thrombin

60
Q

thrombin + Ca activates

A

V (no Ca)
XIII
fibrinogen into fibrin

61
Q

fibrin + factor XIII = ?

A

blood clot

62
Q

explain blood clot dissolution

A

plasminogen activated by t-PA
= plasmin

plasmin + t-PA = clot dissolution

63
Q

what factor is necessary in the cross-linking of fibrin polymers to stabilize the fibrin gel

A

XIII

64
Q

most clotting factors are synthesized where?

A

the liver

65
Q

vitamin ___ is necessary in the synthesis of _____ factors .

A

vit. K
VII
IX
X

66
Q

homing mechanism for extravasation is activated by various cytokines which are released by ?

A

mast cells
platelets
damaged tissue cells

67
Q

____ is released by endothelial cells and increases vascular permeability

A

NO

68
Q

leukocyte extravasation involves two CAMs w/ two phases

A

selectins phase

integrins phase

69
Q

in selectin phase, leukocytes display ______ antigens on their membrane for __________ binding.

A

sialyl lewis-x antigens ( which are carb ligands)

for P-selectin binding

70
Q

when endothelial cells are activated by inflammatory signaling, ______ appears on cell surface during selectin phase

A

p-selectins

71
Q

describe selectin phase

A

carb ligands on leukocytes bind CRD of p-selectins of the cells in damaged tissue

thus causing leukocytes to roll along endothelium and slow down for extravasation

72
Q

p-selectins are from _____ ?

A

weibel-palade bodies

73
Q

during leukocyte integrin phase

A
  • integrin receptors are activated on memb. and bind to ICAM 1/2
  • B1/2 integrins on cell bind to VCAM/ICAM on BV
  • integrins interacting w/ endothelial ligands promotes extravasation
74
Q

define erythroblastosis fetalis

A

an antibody induced hemolytic disease in the newborn that is caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus

  • when the fetus inherits RBC antigenic determinants that are foreign to the mother
  • ABO and Rh groups
75
Q

_____ is a major cause of Rh incompatibility

A

D antigen

76
Q

why does EF not occur in a first pregnancy?

A

because IgM is produced but is too large to cross placenta

in following pregnancies a strong IgG response is made which can easily cross placenta

77
Q

consequences to fetus

A
  1. hemolytic anemia = heart and liver injury = edema
  2. jaundice = damaged CNS
  3. hyperbilirubinemia
78
Q

what hydrops fetalis

A

edema in babies

swelling of tissues from excess fluids

Histology Exam 2 (8 decks)

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