Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CQ2021 > KV > Flashcards

KV Flashcards

1
Q

Required Pilot Items

A
  • EFB
  • EFB backup battery
  • Headset
  • Flashlight
  • Medical
  • ATP cert
  • Radio Operator Certificate
  • Glasses with backup pair
  • Company ID
  • Passport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is meant by the term “Non Annunciated”

A

Procedures not related to an EICAS message but rather a condition present in the airplane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a threat that has a memory item but does not trigger an EICAS message?

A
  • Fumes
  • ENG abnormal start
  • Trim runaway
  • Flight control jam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is always the priority in any emergency? When should checklists be called for?

A

Fly the airplane.

Checklists should only be called for when flight path is under control, critical phases of flight (takeoff or landing) have ended, and memory items completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the MEAN acronym as defined by the SOPM

A

Memory items
Emergency items (QRC)
Abnormal items (QRH)
Normal checklists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are all emergency procedures found on the QRC?

A

No

  • rejected takeoff
  • windshear
  • EGPWS
  • TCAS RA
  • etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the actions and callouts of a rejected takeoff (FO)

A
  • First person to notice condition or malfunction announces it.
  • Monitor airplane deceleration status
  • Verify reverse thrust
  • Cancel warnings
  • Callout “80 KNOTS”
  • Advise ATC you are stopping on runway
  • Perform appropriate checklist when called for
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FO emergency evacuation duties

A
  • Assist PIC and FA’s when necessary
  • Assume command if PIC incapacitated
  • Remove applicable emergency equipment
  • Exit immediately and assist evacuation from outside the aircraft.
  • Direct passengers away from aircraft, at least 500 feet upwind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are some EICAS messages inhibited during takeoff including nearly all caution messages?

A

The system uses a level of prioritization of messages called K codes to only give the most critical messages during a takeoff. This is to prevent them from being a nuisance and potentially causing a rejected takeoff when it needed.

Example: bleed 1 overpressure caution message inhibited during takeoff roll. RTO would not be warranted for such an event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does the SOPM direct crews to reject a takeoff for a caution message?

A

No.

Briefing is “If we have an ENGINE FAILURE, FIRE, OR EMERGENCY prior to V1, we reject.”

No need to reject for a caution message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

With the EICAS presentation, why are aural warnings necessary?

A

They are used when pilots need immediate knowledge without having to look at a visual indication of a problem or condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is significant about a voice message? I.E. “sinkrate, traffic, etc.”

A

Voice messages are generated whenever a potentially dangerous condition exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What items trigger a takeoff configuration warning when thrust is applied?

A
  • Flaps not in a takeoff setting
  • Flap position does not match FMS takeoff page 2
  • Parking brake ON
  • Pitch trim is not in green range
  • Any spoiler panel is deployed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some reasons why pilots have attempted to takeoff with one engine running?

A

Root cause: Ineffective checklist discipline and failure to recognize threats related to technology, distractions, and effectively applying the TEM.

Other causes:

  • late runway change
  • rushing
  • Not adhering time SOPM
  • Changing weather
  • Complex SIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After the completion of a rejected takeoff, when can the airplane exit the runway?

A

The airplane must remain on the runway until it is absolutely clear that an emergency evacuation is not necessary and the entire scenario is analyzed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a windshear warning’s action and callouts PF

A

-MAX thrust
-Follow FD guidance
-No configuration changes until clear of windshear and terrain
-After PM calls “windshear warning gone”,
reduce to climb thrust, callout “FLCH, HDG, AP, AT”
-Once stabilized in climb, “climb sequence after takeoff checklist”

17
Q

Describe a windshear warning’s action and callouts PM

A
  • If below 1,000’, callout “CLIMBING ____FEET” or “DESCENDING ____FEET” using the RA for altitude callouts
  • If above 1,000’, callout “CLIMBING” or “DESCENDING”.
  • When clear of windshear and terrain, “WINDSHEAR WARNING GONE”
  • engage modes as called for
18
Q

How will selecting LLWS in ACARS affect takeoff performance?

A
  • T/O 1
  • Optimized flap setting
  • No flex
19
Q

ACARS is inoperative. You need takeoff data for LLWS conditions. How do you get it?

A

Contact the dispatcher

20
Q

Describe the EGPWS escape procedure actions and callouts PF

A
  • AP OFF
  • MAX THRUST and pitch 20° or PLI
  • Maintain configuration
  • Climb to MSA/MORA
  • When clear of terrain, engage HDG, FLCH, AP, AT.
  • Retract gear and flaps and resume normal flight
21
Q

Describe the EGPWS escape procedure actions and callouts PM

A
  • Verify all actions are being performed
  • Communicate with ATC
  • Turn on FSTN BELTS sign
  • Scan for any visual reference
  • Call out radar altimeter indications
  • Read terrain information on MFD and guide PF on relation to terrain/when clear of terrain
22
Q

Is the pitch target of 20° for an EGPWS escape procedure regarding the actual pitch or the flight path angle?

A

It is the actual pitch of the plane, or the black pitch attitude. Not the green flight path angle indication.

23
Q

On the terrain awareness display, what does a solid red color indicate?

A

About 30 seconds from impact

24
Q

On the terrain awareness display, what do high density yellow dots indicate?

A

Terrain is 1,000’-2,000’ above the airplane

25
Q

Describe the actions and callouts of an RA (PF)

A
  • AP disconnect
  • AT disconnect
  • Pitch to green rectangle
  • Thrust as required

Once you hear “CLEAR OF CONFLICT”, return to original clearance unless otherwise directed

26
Q

Describe the actions and callouts of an RA (PM)

A
  • Monitor airspeed and altitude and let PF know if speed becomes an issue
  • Scan for traffic
  • Advise ATC you are climbing/descending and responding to an RA
27
Q

What is an “upset” ?

A

Unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations which are:

  • Pitch greater than 25° nose up
  • Pitch greater than 10° nose down
  • Bank greater than 45°
  • or Airspeed inappropriate for conditions
28
Q

What is the upset recovery procedure? (Overview of philosophy, not specific callouts)

A
  1. ) Recognize and confirm (basically call “UPSET” when either pilot recognizes you are in an upset condition)
  2. ) DISCONNECT all automation, don’t follow flight director
  3. ) PUSH to unload the aircraft.
  4. ) ROLL to wings level in shortest direction
  5. ) THRUST to manage airspeed
  6. ) STABILIZE. Return to normal flight once passing green dot
29
Q

Describe the upset recovery procedure actions and callouts for PF

A
  • Either pilot says “UPSET”
  • Disconnect AP/AT
  • PUSH
  • ROLL
  • THRUST
  • STABILIZE
30
Q

Describe the upset recovery procedure actions and callouts

PM

A
  • Either pilot calls “UPSET”
  • Monitor all aspects of recovery and callout any excessive deviations
  • Callout either “CLIMBING or DESCENDING” based on VSI until returned to stable flight
  • Say “GREEN DOT” when passing green dot
  • Notify ATC of altitude change and declare emergency as necessary
31
Q

When must a cold weather inspection be performed?

A
  • If the OAT is 5°C or less
  • If the wing fuel temp is 0° or less
  • Atmospheric icing conditions present
  • Aircraft has remained overnight and may have frozen contaminants
  • Inbound flight may have residual ice
  • Cold soak suspected in fuel tank area
32
Q

What is a cold weather preflight inspection?

A

An external walk around to detect the presence of frost, ice, or snow on critical surfaces to determine if deicing is needed. MUST include a visual AND tactile check.

33
Q

When does SMGCS become active?

A

1200 RVR. Use those charts

34
Q

A reduced visibility takeoff will happen in the MV. Where can you find the RVR requirements for lower than standard takeoff minimums?

A

OpsSpec C078. (FAR/FOM Cross Reference).

No procedural difference from regular takeoff.

35
Q

List 4 of the 7 conditions that require an engine abort start

A
  1. ) No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N2 increase.
  2. ) No N1 before starter cutout at 50% N2.
  3. ) No ITT within 30 seconds of fuel flow
  4. ) ITT exceeds start limit of 815° (hot)
  5. ) Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limit of 25 PSI
  6. ) N1 and N2 failing to accelerate to a stable idle speed (hung)
  7. ) An intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs before starter cutout

CQ2021 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions