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Knowledge Review > KV 21 CQ > Flashcards

KV 21 CQ Flashcards

1
Q

How does the FOM define mechanical irregularities?

A

Any condition of aircraft system or component
Not operating in a normal manner
Suspected or visible damage
Failure indication of EICAS
Deviations from normal function i.e. airspeed, G-load
Turbulence, lightning strike

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2
Q

How do we report mechanical irregularities?

A

Use FlightView eAML

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3
Q

A mechanical irregularity is discovered at the gate prior to block out. Describe the actions that you will take?

A

Report Mx item via FlightView

Maintenance determines the action required

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4
Q

Enroute you received an amber caution message. After running the QH the message is extinguished and does not re-occur. What actions will the PIC take once the aircraft has arrived a the gate and the passenger door is opened?

A

Write up caution in eAML

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5
Q

After closing out FliteView, the FO informs you of some aircraft damage. Explain how to properly report this problem?

A

Log back into the flight on FliteView

Write up the problem in the eAML

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6
Q

Is the FO also responsible for ensuring that mechanical irregularities have been appropriately reported. True or False?

A

True

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7
Q

Upon arriving to the aircraft, you discover an open circuit breaker. What action do you take?

A

Write up the popped circuit breaker in eAML

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8
Q

When is preflight inspection required?

A

Before every flight

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9
Q

When is a post flight inspection required?

A

After every flight

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10
Q

Where is the tire wear criteria found for the CRJ200? CRJ700?

A

Both are in the Preflight Section of SOPM Chapter 4

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11
Q

You arrive to your destination and MX is there to take the aircraft to the hanger. Are you still required to conduct a post flight walk around?

A

Yes

Any damage is written up in eAML

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12
Q

When can a post flight inspection be waived

A

In board crew resolve any Mx issues
Outbound crew arrives prior to terminating check
Outbound crew arrives prior to aircraft being powered down
Outbound crew performs preflight inspection

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13
Q

Where on the aircraft is the pre- and post flight inspection recommended to start?

A

Left forward fuselage

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14
Q

During a post flight inspection at an outstation you observe what appears to be a bird strike on the leading edge of the left wing. What do you do?

A

Write up bird strike in eAML.

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15
Q

Is it ever permissible for the telescopic duct voter plate to be missing from the leading of the wing on CR7/9?

A

Yes
Crakes in underlying bracket have been alleviating by removing this cover plate
Skywest obtained an engineering authorization to operate without plate
No performance penalty

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16
Q

On a FFOD are you required to verify the security seals on MCD< gallery service door and cargo door and compare them to ground crew log prior to opening the doors?

A

Technically Yes,

Open ground crew opens doors

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17
Q

What action is taken if a security seal is verified to be missing?

A

Security Search

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18
Q

When is cold weather preflight inspection required?

A 
OAT <= 5C
Conditions conducive to icing
RON
Through flight 
Wing fuel temp <0
Cold soak ice in fuel tank area
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19
Q

How is a cold weather preflight inspection conducted?

A

Visual

Physically run hand allow leading edge and upper surface of wing

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20
Q

Missed Approach

PF actions and call outs

A 
“MISSED APPROACH” Or “GO AROUND”
TOGA / Advance to GA thrust / Pitch 10
“GO AROUND THRUST FLAPS 8”
Gear Up / Speed Mode /HDG or NAV mode / AP on / Climb sequence
After Takeoff Check
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21
Q

Missed Approach

PM actions and call outs

A

Selects flaps 8 / Set GA thrust
“GO AROUND THRUST FLAPS 8”
Verify positive rate of climb- “POSITIVE RATE” / “GEAR UP”
Gear Up / Speed Mode /HDG or NAV mode / AP on / “FLAPS UP”
Set climb thrust / complete after TO flow / “AFTER TO CHECK COMPLETE”

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22
Q

When recovering from high altitude UPSET conditions, what is the airspeed/Mach number in the CRJ200, CRJ7/9 when returning to level flight?

A

CRJ200 - 250/.70

CRJ700/900 - 250/.74

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23
Q

Per the SOPM, RTO limited to what malfunctions?

A

EICAS warnings
Smoke toilet
Thrust REV unlock
Engine failure

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24
Q

Procedure fo RTO

A

CP calls and perform abort
“Abort Abort Abort”
Thrust to Idle / max thrust reverse / max braking
“This is captain, please remain seated with seat belts fastened”
Take a breath / What’s going on / Have FO run checklist
Call FA / Assess

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25
Q

FO actions during RTO

A

Notify TC
Monitor deceleration
Run checklist as appropriate

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26
Q

What communication statement is made to FA when evaluating if Emergency evacuation is required?

A

Assess and wait for my command

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27
Q

During a emergency evacuation, if possible where do you direct the passengers as they evacuate the aircraft and what emergency equipment is take with you?

A

500 ft upwind

Crash axe and fire extinguisher as required

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28
Q

Describe how an expedited deplaning conducted?

A

Deplane through MCD
Must be parked at gate with MCD open and jet bridge attached
“This is the captain. We will deplane the airplane through the main cabin door. Follow the direction of your flight attendant(s).

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29
Q

What QRC/QRH checklist items require confirmation by the PF during Emergency abnormal procedures in flight?

A

Generators
Guarded switches
Thrust Levers

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30
Q

What QRC/QRH checklist items required confirmation by the PF during a emergency/abnormal procedures on the ground?

A

None

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31
Q

When are O2 masks required to be donned, 100% selected and crew communication established?

A

Suspected depressurization

Cabin ALT warning

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32
Q

CRJ900 Wing span

A

CRJ9 - 81ft 4in
CRJ7 - 76ft 3in
CRJ2 - 69ft 8in

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33
Q

Reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A 
W - Windshear report or forecast
W - Wing or cowl A/I
A - Anti-Skid Inop
T - Tail > 5kts
C - Contaminated Runway 
H - Heavy or larger aircraft depart behind
Flaps 8 TO CRJ200
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34
Q

When Cont Ignition required?

A 
TO and LND contaminated runways
X-wind > 10kts CRJ200
Flight in vicinity of TS
Moderate or greater rain
Moderate or greater turbulence
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35
Q

Engine start duty CRJ200

A

60 sec on / 10 sec off
60 sec on / 10 sec off
60 sec on / 5 min off
60 sec on / 5 min off

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36
Q

Engine start duty CRJ700/900

A 
90 sec on / 10 sec off
90 sec on / 10 sec off
90 sec on / 5 min off
90sec on / 5 min off
90 sec on / 5 min off
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37
Q

When the second engine is started using APU bleed air, what is Max N2 thrust setting allowed from the operating engine?

A

70% N2

38
Q

What requirements must be met to operate engine above 75% N1?

A

2 minutes or
All operating indications in the green band
Whichever is longer

39
Q

Crosswind limits for takeoff?

A

2 /7 /9

27kias / 28 kias / 35 kias

40
Q

Crosswind limits for landing?

A

2 / 7/ 9

27 kias / 30 kias / 32 kias

41
Q

Under what conditions is the max takeoff and landing cross wind component limited to 10 knots for all variants?

A 
Takeoff or Landing with
RCC 1 or 2 or Poor BA
> 1/8 in standing water
> 1/8 in slush 
Ice
42
Q

Name different sources of AC power?

A

IDG
APU
ADG
AC ground power

43
Q

What is required for the green AVAIL lamp to illuminated in the AC external power switch light on the ELECTRICAL SERVICES PANEL?

A

Corrected phase
Voltage
Frequency

44
Q

After turning on the Battery Master switch and prior to establish AC power. Is it normal for the AC ESS XFER switch light to be illuminated? What does it mean?

A

Yes
ALTN light comes on when AC Bus 1 loses power
ALTN light comes on when ACC ESS XFER switch is pressed - AC ESS bus powered by AC bus 2

45
Q

Describe the components of the IDG?

A

Constant speed drive (CSD)
Electrical generator
CSD use internal oil to turn variable speed of the engine accessory gearbox to constant speed needed for generator operations

46
Q

Under what conditions will the IDG fault caution message be displayed?

A

HOT LOP
High Oil Temperature
Low Oil Pressure

47
Q

Is the IDG still producing power when the IDG fault caution message is displayed?

A

Yes,
If its not disconnected - mechanical disconnect will occur or
Shearing of the drive shaft due to over torque

48
Q

Will the IDG DISC switch light be illuminated with the engine shutdown at the gate if the IDG is disconnected?

A

No

Light only illuminates when engines running and IDG is disconnected

49
Q

As directed by the QRH, IDG 1 is disconnected. Is this something that the flight crew can reverse in flight?

A

Nope

Must be reset on the ground with the engines off

50
Q

Describe AC power priority for AC bus 2?

A

Gen 2
APU Gen
Gen 1
External power

51
Q

What does the AUTO XFER caution message and AUTO XFER OFF status message?

A

AUTO XFER caution - Auto transfer failed
Due to a fault/short or gen overcurrent
Automatically
AUTO XFER OFF status - Disable automatic Gen priority
Manually selected

52
Q

What would cause the AC utility buses to load shed while on the ground?

A

Ground - single gen ops, flaps down and MCS and galley door closed

53
Q

What would cause the AC utility busses to load shed while in flight?

A

Automatically - Generator fails and single gen operations

54
Q

Under what conditions will he ADG automatically deploy?

A

Loss of AC power
Last sourced of AC power was internal source
Weight off wheels sensed (Battery master off will generate WOW signal
Parking brake released (SKywest modification

55
Q

What buses and or components will be powered when the ADG is supplying power?

A

AC ESS BUS

HYD 3B regardless of switch position

56
Q

What airspeed limitations exist for a wet ADG? Dry ADG?

A

Wet max speed 250 kias

Dry max speed Vmo/Mmo

57
Q

After restoring normal AC power, how is the AC ES bus transferred to normal AC distribution system?

A

PWR TXFR Override (ADG Auto deploy control - next to ADG handle)
Returns AC ESS bus to normal AC distribution and
Returns HYD 3B to normal operations

58
Q

Name the different sources of DC power available?

A

5 x TRU
2 Nicad Batteries
External DC power

59
Q

What are the minimum voltage requirement on the APU and MAIN batteries prior to starting the APU?

A

Voltage > 22V

60
Q

Ground operations in only DC power are limited to how long?

A

5 minutes

61
Q

What is the amp rating for the TRUs in the CRJ200?

A

100 A

62
Q

What is the amp rating for the TRUs in the CRJ7/9?

A

120 A

63
Q

Is TRU #2 capable of suppling power to DC bus #1 in the event of TRU 1 failure? Explain?

A

Yes

Tie 1 and Tie 2 needs to open

64
Q

Are all the DC ties capable of being closed automatically?

A

DC Tie 1 AUTO
DC Tie 2 AUTO
ESS Tie - no automatic action

65
Q

How may hydraulic systems does the CRJ have?

A

3 systems

66
Q

The CRJ hydraulic systems are serviced with Skydol, which is easily identify by its purple color. T/F?

A

True

67
Q

How many hydraulic pumps does the CRJ have? How are they operated?

A

6 pumps
2 Engine drive pumps (On when engine is running?
4 AC motor pumps (operated by hydraulic panel)

68
Q

What is the normal pressure range for the hydraulic system?

A

Green

Pressure >=1800 PSI

69
Q

Below what pressure value does the HYD ( ) LO PRESS caution message display?

A

Pressure <= 1800 PSI

70
Q

What is the normal quantity range for the hydraulic fluid reservoirs?

A

Green

Fluid Quantity >45% and <85%

71
Q

How is cooling of the hydraulic fluid accomplished?

A

Engine drive HYD Pump - air from ram scoop is directed over a air/hydraulic oil heat exchange

ACMP - no provisions for cooling / not near any heat sources

72
Q

In cruise, which hydraulic pumps are operating assuming all systems are operating normally?

A

1A / 2A / 3A

73
Q

On final approach, which hydraulic pumps are operating assuming all systems are operating normally?

A

1A / 2A / 1B / 2B / 3A / 3B

74
Q

Explain IDG logic?

A

To avoid losing operation of the system hydraulic pump
Generators power cross-side hydraulic pump
IDG 1 - 2B & 3B
IDG 2 - 1B & 3B

75
Q

Does the ACMP 3B switch have to be selected ON in order to operate if the ADG is deployed and supplying electrical system power?

A

No its powered regardless of switch position

76
Q

Will ACMP 1 or 2 turn on automatically when their respective engine driven pump has failed?

A

No

Nothing turns on automatically

77
Q

How do you close the HYD SOVs in the CRJ200? CRJ 700/900?

A

CRJ200 - Engine Fire Push

CRJ700/900 - L HYD SOV and R HYD SOV

78
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the OUTBD brakes?

A

Hydraulic system 2

79
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the NWS and INBD brakes?

A

Hydraulic system 3

80
Q

Which stages of bleed air are used by the CRJ200?

A

10th stage

14th stage

81
Q

Which stages of bleed air are used by the CRJ700/900?

A

6th stage

10th stage

82
Q

On the CRJ200, what is the 10th stage bleed air used for?

A

Engine starting
Air conditioning
Pressurization

83
Q

On the CRJ200, what is the 14th stage bleed air used for?

A

Thrust reverse

Anti-Ice

84
Q

What sources can provide air to the 10th stage bleed manifold in the CRJ200?

A

Engine
APU
External Air

85
Q

What sources can provide air to the 14th stage bleed manifold in the CRJ200?

A

Engines

86
Q

How are the 10th stage bleed valves operated?

A

Electronically controlled
Pneumatically operated
One-way check valve

87
Q

How are the 14th stage bleed valves operated?

A

Electronically controlled

Pneumatically operated

88
Q

If he 10th stage bleed valves fail, what position will they fail in?

A

Fail Closed

89
Q

If the 14th stage bleed valves fail, what position will they fail in?

A

Fail Open

90
Q

Describe APU interlock protection?

A

Prevent manifold pressure from entering the APU
APU ECU monitors switch position
L 10th selected Open - APU LCV will close
R 10th & ISOL selected Open - APU LCV will close

91
Q

How does the CRJ200 detect bleed leaks in the 10th stage manifold?

A

Dual Loop sensing system

Both loops must detect a leak before a warning

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