KR Dispatch Release Flashcards

1
Q

Point to the identification number?

A

Top of release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If the release doesn’t have the aid number, is it legal?

A
No need (DIMMWIT)
D - Departure, destination, alternate airports
I - Identification number of aircraft
M - Minimum fuel supply
M - MEL open and/or CDL items on DMI log
W - Weather reports, forecasts or combo
I - IFR or VFR flight
T - Trip number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the flight number of this flight?

A

Top of the release

FLT - 5477

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Point to the ADSB ID number?

A

Upper right corner of the release.

SKW5477

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ADSB ID number for?

A

A - automatic
D - dependent (requires GPS)
S - surveillance ( provides aircraft position, altitude, speed
B - broadcast ( to ATC ground station)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Do all alternates have to be listed on the flight release?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the alternate for the flight?

A

See AL1 or AL2 Tab on flight release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Show me where the type of operation is listed?

A
We only fly instrument flight plans
See
FPL-SKW5377-IS
I - IFR flight plan
S - Scheduled service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the minimum fuel supply for this flight?

A

MINTO line
Includes:
Enroute burn, most distant alternate, holding and reserve fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the minimum fuel determined?

A

Fuel from departure to destination airport, to most distant alternate, plus reserve and holding fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How much fuel is needed to fly to alternate?

A

See alternate fuel listed on release in fuel breakdown section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required? How is it determined?

A

If weather at departure airport is below the landing minimums (visibility only) for that airport

Alternate within 1 hr normal cruise in still air, with one engine inoperative
200- 250nm
700/900- 300nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is a alternate required.

A

1-2-3
1 hr before or after estimated time of arrival
Ceiling must be at least 2,000 ft AFE
Visibility must be at least than 3 sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A

Anytime the conditional weather is below minimums

Exemption 17347 is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated?

A
45 min fuel at 15,000 ft and 250 kts
Planned reserve fuel
2 - 1700
7 - 2300
9 - 2350
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What weather info is required for the flight?

A

Must have current weather report and forecast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What weather elements are allowed to be missing?

A

SKY - unless required by SID/DP or IAP
Temp- estimate found real time mesoscale analysis (RTMA)
Altimeter- only if IAP plate allows use of alternate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a METAR?

A

Aviation Routine weather report

Describes weather at a specific time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How often are METARs renewed

A

Every hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If the flight is delayed up to the two hour limit, would a new destination METAR report be available? How often are the METARs updated?

A

Yes, a new report will be available, but it won’t be on the release

METARs are renewed every hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the flight is less than one hour, can the fight depart with a destination METAR that indicates weather below minimums?

A

No, can’t depart if weather is below minimums

PIC and dispatcher must delay flight until weather is reported at or above authorized minimums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Can you depart to an airport when a METAR is not available?

A

No

Latest METAR required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Read METAR from release?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is their a ceiling in the METAR?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is their a Ceiling in the METAR?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What time was the METAR issued?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When is the METAR valid?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
Issued 4x times daily
US, Puerto Rico, Caribbean, and pacific islands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How often are TAFs updated?

A

Updated every 6 hours

0600, 1200, 1800, 2400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If this flight is delayed up to the 2-hour limit, would a new destination TAF report be available?

A

It’s possible

Wouldn’t be on release unless new release is issued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can you depart to an airport if there is not a current TAF?

A

No, must have current TAF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What TAF terms are used to establish main body? What kind of change would you expected to see with FM?

A

FM - From

Used when a rapid change, occurring in less than a hour. Prevailing conditions expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does TEMP mean in the TAF?

A

TEMP - Temporary
Last less than an hour
May be forecasted in a block greater than an hour when forecaster not sure when weather roll in
Will cover less than 1/2 period of TAF
Greater than 50% probability of occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does PROB mean in TAF?

A

PROB - Probability

Chance of TS, or other precipitation, wind, visibility, sky conditions is at least 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Read the TAF?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is weather in the TAF getting better or worse?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is their any conditional language in the TAF?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the forecast visibility and ceiling at the destination/alternate?

A

Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do each of these numbers mean?

Wind/Temp Deviations
CLB CRZ DSC
Wind 30 51 42
ISA DEV -1 -4 -5

What does it mean when you have a 0 in the climb section?

A

Average wind and ISA deviations used in planning
0 - in climb TOC before first point in flight plan
AVG temp deviations in cruise blank - no temperature deviations and It’s ISA

40
Q

What is the wind direction, speed, OAT at Fxxx?

A

See route page for wind direction and speed
See winds aloft chart on release
Ex 293/062-54 direction 293, speed 62kts, temp -54

41
Q

What does the area forecast indicate for the flight?

A

Use TAF on release, if not available

Use Area forecast aviation weather

42
Q

What are AIRMETs?

A

Airman Meteorological Information

Significant weather concern to all aircraft, especially small aircraft

43
Q

AIRMET tango?

A

Moderate turbulence

Sustained surfaces winds of greater than 30 knots

44
Q

AIRMET Sierra?

A

IFR or Mountain obscuration
Ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or
Visibility less than 3 sm after over 50% area
Extensive mountain obscurations

45
Q

AIRMET Zulu?

A

Moderate Icing

Freezing levels

46
Q

What AIRMET affect this flight? What SIGMET affect this flight?

A

See end of release

47
Q

What are SIGMET?

A

Advise severe weather other than convective
Hazardous to all aircraft
Severe icing
Severe or extreme turbulence
Dust storms or sandstorms vis less than 3 sm
Volcanic Ash

48
Q

What are convective SIGMET?

A

Line of TS at least 60 miles
Area TS affecting at least 3,000 square miles 40% of area and very strong radar returns
Embedded or severe TS
Special Issue- tornado, hail =>3/4in, wind gust >50kts
Implies sever turbulence, severe icing, LLWS
Issue +0:55 and valid for 2 hours

49
Q

Is turbulence forecasted for this flight?

A

See turbulence advisories

AIRMETs & SIGMETs for flight

50
Q

What is the forecasted height of the tropopause for this flight?

A

MWL

Maximum wind level is height of the tropopause layer

51
Q

Point to a section of the TAF and ask: At XX:XX time, what is the lowest weather that could be in the METAR and/or TAF for this destination? Why?

A

Weather must at or above min at ETA for airport

When conditions deteriorate after dispatch, PIC and dispatcher may continue if will not affect safety of flight

52
Q

If a takeoff alternate required for this flight? Why

A

It will under TOA section

If visibility at your departure airport is below approach mins

53
Q

Name two cities that could be considered as a takeoff alternate for this flight? Why did you choose those cities?

A

Alternates must be within 1 hr normal cruise, still air, with one engine inoperative

54
Q

At XX:XX time is an alternate required for this flight? Why?

A

1-2-3 rule for alternate
1 hr before or after eta
2,000 ft ceiling
3 sm visibility

55
Q

What is the lowest weather that could be forecasted for this alternate (if an alternated is listed) to be legal?

A

Single Approach
ADD 400’ to MDA or DA(H)
Add 1 sm to visibility requirement
Double Approach
Add 200’ to higher of MDA or DA(H) used
Add 1/2 sm to higher land min of IAP used
Two different suitable runways (opposite ends of the same surface are still different) wind limits must be considered. Use Rnav need two FMS or FMS fail procedure

56
Q

For the listed alternate (if listed) can a dispatcher utilize the one approach method to derive alternate minimums?

A

It will depend on what the visibility and ceiling is once the derived 1 sm and 400’ to the ceiling is added

57
Q

For the listed alternate (if listed) can a dispatcher utilize the two approach method to derive alternate minimums?

A

2x IAP with different identifiers
2x runways within wind limits
Derived min after adding 200’ and 1/2 sm to higher visibility and ceiling

58
Q

Why is an alternate airport required to be listed for this flight, if applicable?

A

1-2-3 rule for alternate OR FOM p87
Alaska airport and does not have more than one separate runway
Destination with no IAP
Freezing precipitation in forecast (I.e. FZDZ, FRRA, +SN, GR, FZFG, or UP)
RCC valves of less than 3
Safety of flight

59
Q

Based on the weathers a second alternate required?

A

Second alternate required: if the forecast at destination or alternate has conditional language weather below minimums
Main body (FM) - at or above minimums
Conditional weather (PROB, TEMPO) not lower than 1/2 required minimums
BCMG - becomes main body at end end of period

60
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A

A Notice to Airmen is a notice filed with an aviation authority to alert aircraft pilots of potential hazards. Along a flight route or at location that could affect the safety of flight

61
Q

What is a NOTAM (D)?

A

Distant NOTAM
Navigation facilities
Runway closures or obstructions

62
Q

What is a FDC NOTAM?

A

Flight data center NOTAM
Changes to IAP
Changes to airways

63
Q

What are FICON NOTAMs?

A

Field condition NOTAMs

Runway and taxiway condition

64
Q

NOTAM(D)
IOGD 04/003 OGD 3/21 CLSD WEF 0304141400-0311032359
Translate?

A

Ogden UT (Ogen-Hinckley) [OGD]: April NOTAM #3
3/21 closed will be effective April 14th 2003 at 1400Z (8am MDT)
To November 30, 2003 at 2359Z (5:59pm MDT)

65
Q

What is the release fuel for this flight?

A

RLSF

66
Q

What is included in release fuel?

A

Taxi +
MINTO +
Contingency Fuel rounded to nearest 100lb

67
Q

Can the flight leave the gate with XXX fuel (100 less than release)?

A

Yes, it depends on MINTO, if taxi out puts you below MINTO

Then you should not leave the gate without adding fuel

68
Q

Can the flight leave the gate with XXX fuel (200 more than the release)?

A

It depends, carefully not to exceed MFPTW as this would take you over your takeoff or landing weights
Coordinate with dispatch because performance numbers based off weight

69
Q

How much fuel must you have on board at brake release for takeoff?

A

MINTO

70
Q

How many minutes of fuel is allotted for burn off for this flight?

A

Next to burn off, shows burn off time in minutes

71
Q

How is burn off fuel determined?

A

Planned enroute fuel burn from takeoff to touchdown

72
Q

What is the planned fuel consumption from TOD to landing

A

TOD Estimated Fuel Reming

- Landing Fuel

73
Q

How much fuel is required to fly to the alternate?

A

Look at release

GA/ALT - XXXX

74
Q

How is required alternate fuel determined?

A

Direct routing

75
Q

What I your reserve fuel?

A

Reserve

Always 45 minutes

76
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated?

A
45 min at 15,000ft and 250 kias
Never less than:
2 - 1700
7 - 2300
9 - 2350
77
Q

Is hold fuel considered in MINTO?

A

Yes

78
Q

Is CONTIN fuel considered in MINTO?

A

NO

79
Q

What’s included in MINTO fuel?

A

Enroute burn
Go-around/Alternate (most distant)
Reserve
Holding fuel

80
Q

How do you determine if dispatch considered holding and know flight delays in determining the fuel load for this flight?

A

Hold fuel listed on page 1

Remarks section - mention fuel added because of know delays

81
Q

How much CONTIN fuel is allowed for this flight?

A

Next to CONTIN
Cal at planned weigh at 15,000 above airport
Skywest statistical contingency fuel program uses 2 years of fuel usage info to determine base on equipment type, city, season, time of day

82
Q

Are MELs required to be listed on the Dispatch release?

A

Yes

83
Q

Are there any MELs that are not required to be listed on the dispatch release?

A

NO

84
Q

Are CDL required to be listed on the flight release?

A

Yes

85
Q

Are there any CDL not required to be listed on the release?

A

NO

86
Q

Are NEFs required to be listed on the release?

A

No

However, sometimes they are listed in the remarks section of release

87
Q

Are there any NEFs that are required to be listed on the release?

A

No, they get written on a M74B and placed on the center instrument panel

88
Q

If an MEL or CDL deferral is accomplished after the aircraft has blocked out, is a new dispatch release required?

A

Yes if PIC or dispatcher determines a deferral affects aircraft performance
Must be amended or new release must be generated

89
Q

If an NEF deferral is accomplished after the aircraft has blocked out, is a new dispatch release required?

A

NO

90
Q

Where can information on amending release be found?

A

FOM chapter 5

91
Q

When must a new release?

A

Originating airport
Unscheduled landing
Return to origin airport

92
Q

What action is required to amend a release?

A

Message or call dispatcher

93
Q

How can a pilot determine if a dispatch release had be amended?

A

See Amendment number

94
Q

Where are amendments to the dispatch release recorded?

A

See remarks section

95
Q

Does the dispatch release need to be amended if an MEL is added after he point of dispatch?

A

Yes if MEL affects performance

96
Q

When does a release need to be amended for fuel changes.

A

MINTO or release fuel change
Fuel increase
Fuel decrease of 200lbs or half of contingency whichever is more restrictive

97
Q

When is amended release required?

A
Delay 2 hrs
Aircraft swap
New MEL/CDL (not req for NEF)
PIC request fuel increase
Change in route/altitude affecting MINTO
Crew member change
Weather at alternate drops below min
Safety of flight reasons