Know This Flashcards
Good Oral Information (167 cards)
1
Q
Minimum width of pavement for a 180° turn?
A
129 Feet
2
Q
Maximum Altitude?
A
43,100 Feet (767)
42,000 Feet (757)
3
Q
Maximum Take-off / Landing Altitude?
A
8,400 PA
4
Q
Maximum Runway slope?
A
± 2% Slope
5
Q
Maximum windspeed with the cargo door in canopy?
A
60 Knots
6
Q
Maximum windspeed with the cargo door full open?
A
40 Knots
7
Q
Flight-Crew shall not ________ for takeoff and landing?
A
blank engine vibration display
8
Q
Takeoff “Warning” Inhibitions are?
A
Rotate ➣ 20 Seconds
Rotate ➣ 400 Feet
9
Q
Takeoff “Caution” Inhibition?
A
80 Knots ➣ 20 Seconds after takeoff
80 Knots ➣ 400 Feet after takeoff
Aural reactivates at less than 75 Knots
10
Q
What items will cause a Takeoff Configuration Warning?
A
Flaps
Spoilers
Stabilizer
Parking Break
(Main Cargo Door Message)
11
Q
Landing Configuration Warning
A
Below 800 Feet
Throttles Idle
12
Q
The only way to fix overspeed is to?
A
Slow down
13
Q
APU can pressurize the aircraft up to about?
A
17,000 feet
14
Q
What altitude limit is there for starting the APU?
A
There is none, though It could be difficult above FL 350
15
Q
The APU burns about how much fuel per hour?
A
400 lbs.
16
Q
Shutting the aircraft battery off before the APU is shut down causes us to loose what?
A
Fire Detection. (Always have fire protection)
17
Q
What does the APU battery provide power to?
A
Air Inlet Door, APU Control Circuitry and a fuel pump begins to operate.
18
Q
What does the Aircraft Battery provide during an APU start?
A
Fire Protection, APU Fuel Valve, DC Fuel Pump, Also supplies control power when the APU battery voltage drops because of heavy loads.
19
Q
How many APU starts in 60 minutes?
A
3 Starts
20
Q
When using the #1 or #2 Autopilot what transponder should be used?
A
The #1 transponder and the #2 transponder should be used with the #3 Autopilot.
21
Q
Can we control the DC Fuel pump?
A
No we cannot control the pump
22
Q
What are the PSI values for the wing tank pumps and the center wing tank pumps?
A
15 PSI wing pumps
30 PSI center wing pumps
23
Q
The wing tank pumps uses motive flow to pull the remaining fuel from center wing. At what point does this occur?
A
Half Full on the wing tanks
24
Q
When does the DC pump work?
A
When on battery power or for a left engine relight
25
Will the left forward (A/C Pump) always run when the APU is running?
Yes.
Can’t shut if off as long as the APU is running.
26
The center tank pumps won’t work on the ground unless?
The engines are at 50% N2 -or- the refueling panel door is open.
27
Fuel Temperature comes from what tank?
Left (767)
Right (757)
28
Is a separate calculation used from the total fuel quantity?
Yes.
It’s not a total of the three gauges. It's a separate calculation.
29
How many hydraulic coolers are there?
1 in the left tank and 2 in the right
30
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
3° above the freezing point of the type of fuel being used
31
What does a “Fuel QTY Error” mean?
3000 lbs. discrepancy between FMC fuel calculated vs. the totalizer
32
What are the two rules when cross feeding fuel?
Rule #1: Don’t crossfeed until cruise +20 Minutes
Rule #2: Open crossfeed valve before turning the crossfeed pumps on.
33
What does an EICAS “Low Fuel” message mean?
Less than 2200 lbs ±500 lbs.
34
What does an EICAS “Fuel Config” message mean?
Unbalance of 2000 lbs. ±500 lbs.
35
IDG “Drive Light”
HOT / LOP
High Oil Temp / Low Oil Pressure
36
Can the APU Generator power both Bus’?
Yes
37
Will you get a light if you requested power from the APU and no power is provided?
Yes
38
When you see the External Power “Avail” light it means?
Good Quality Power
39
What are the three reasons for the AC Utility Bus to trip?
1. Loss of Gen
2. Overload
3. APU during a start
40
Is the ground handling bus de-powered in flight?
Yes.
Its powered by the GPU or APU
41
What provides power to the Ground Service Bus?
Ground Handling Bus while on the ground and connected to external power or the APU.
Select the “Switch” & the APU & Main Batteries will charge.
In flight, the ground service bus is powerd by the right main bus.
42
If both DC Bus’ are in “Auto” they will automatically join in the event of a failure.
What happens if either of the “ISLN” switches are selected?
They will not close (Join networks).
43
Is the HOT Battery bus always powered?
Yes
44
What is powered when the Battery is turned on?
Battery Bus
45
Why do we have an HMG (Hydraulic Motor Generator) ?
In-case of a total AC Failure. The HMG can provide AC & DC Power.
46
What is powered when the Standby Power (STBY) selector is in AUTO?
The standby busses transfer to battery power if normal AC power is lost.
47
When you push in the Battery (BAT) switch what happens (STBY POWER AUTO)?
When on an unpowered aircraft:
1. A few annunciator lights illuminate
2. Allows the APU to be started
3. Powered airplane inflight or on the ground when AC power is removed or lost
4. The standby (AC/DC) and (2)battery busses are powered (Hot battery and battery)
48
In the event the HMG is powering the Aircraft what light will you see next to the BAT on button?
The “DISCH” light will appear until the battery voltage lowers to the HMG voltage. Which is lower than the AC system.
49
What powers the DC Electrical System?
TRU’s or Transformer-Rectifier Units
50
During Autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent sources of power to power the three autopilots, they are configured how?
1. The left main system powers the left autopilot and the captain’s flight instrument transfer bus.
2. The right main system powers the right autopilot and the first officer’s flight instrument transfer bus.
3. The battery / standby system powers the center autopilot.
51
When above 200 feet during Autoland, the loss of a generator results in?
1. Both bus tie breakers close and the operating generator powers both left and right A/C busses.
2. The left main system powers the center autopilot.
3. NO LAND 3 appears on the Autoland Status Annunciator.
52
When below 200 feet during Autoland, the loss of a generator results in?
“Lockout”
1. Both bus tie breakers remain open.
2. The autopilot associated with a failed generator is unpowered.
3. The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses.
4. The autoland continues using the remaining two autopilots.
53
If both main AC busses are lost, what powers the captains flight instruments?
The HDG (Hydraulic Driven Generator) Powers the captains instruments.
54
Each of the three autopilots is checked for what items?
F - Flight Control Computers
I - ILS’ / IRS’
R - Radio Altimeters
E - Electrical Systems
S - Servo’s (Autopilot Servo’s)
55
The Pnueumatic “ISLN” valves only open during?
Engine Starts
56
The Air Demand Pump provides power for what two large demand systems?
The Gear and Flaps
Note: If Center air is not working the Gear & Flaps will still go up and down, albeit slowly.
57
The Auto Rate “Tick” mark on the Cabin Altitude Control panel provides what rates?
Limited to 300⇣ Down & 500⇡ Up
58
In the event of a pressurization system failure while in one of the AUTO modes?
The system will switch to the other AUTO systems automatically.
59
How many motors on the outflow valve?
3 Motors:
1 DC Motor. 1 for the manual pressurization system
2 AC Motors. 1 for each automatic pressurization system.
60
The “Cabin Altitude” Message comes on when?
10000 Feet.
At 11000 Feet a message is sent to close the outflow valve.
At 9000 Feet the outflow valve becomes available again.
At 8500 the message goes away.
61
What do the positive pressure relief valves and negative pressure relief doors do?
They protect the fuselage from excessive pressure differential.
62
Pack High Flow is inhibited when?
C - CARGO FIRE/DEPR switch is pushed.
O - One engine is inoperative.
F - Flaps are not in the up position.
E - 1 Engine is supplying bleed air with anti-ice on.
63
Air Conditioning Standby Mode “N” ?
N = Constant Moderate Temperature
W = Full Warm
64
When a pack has an internal overheat what indications will you have?
“INOP” & “Pack Off” lights
65
When a pack has an external overheat what indications will you have?
“INOP” light and the pack goes full cold
66
67
The Main Deck Temp Selector on the P-61 Panel provides what ranges?
Animal / Normal - 65° to 85° F
Perishable - 35° to 71° F
68
When does the equipment cooling system, keep all air onboard?
1. A/C on the ground
2. Engines | Packs off
3. Below 45°
69
How many equipment cooling fans run on the ground?
Both fans run on the ground.
One fan runs while airborne.
70
If airflow is not detected in the equipment cooling for _______ minutes, the NO COOLING” light illuminates.
1 Minute
71
How many fire loops in the wheel wells?
1 fire detection loop
72
What is the max wheel speed?
235 MPH
73
How many loops must detect a fire to give an engine fire warning?
2 loops
74
How many engine fire extinguishing bottles are there?
2 bottles
75
How many cargo fire extinguishers are there?
2 fire extinguishing bottles:
1st bottle is immediately discharged
2nd bottle in 30 minutes or on final approach
ETOPS A/C Metered are at 195 Minutes
76
What is the only fire condition with no EICAS Warning?
Main Deck Fire
77
Wheel Well fire detection loop detects?
Fire only.
Does not detect hot brakes.
78
When flaps are set to a takeoff position, what system comes on automatically?
Right Demand Pump
79
True or False?
As long as you have air you will have hydraulics?
TRUE
80
When does the RAT deploy?
Both engines fail and the engines are below 50% N2
81
What is the minimum speed for the RAT to work?
130 Knots
82
When does the CTR HYD system go into isolation?
50%
83
What does it mean when the “Brake Source” light illuminates?
Normal and alternate brake pressure is low.
Only accumulator pressure is available.
84
How many spoilers on the aircraft?
12 spoilers (767)
10 Spoilers (757)
85
Aileron lockout means what?
Locks out outboard ailerons at high speeds.
Full authority at low speeds.
86
What does the rudder ratio system do?
Desensitizes inputs from the pilot to reduce the rudder deflection.
87
There are 3 times we should use rudders, what are they?
1. Takeoff
2. Landing
3. Engine Loss
(Keep your feet on the floor)
88
The PES (Pitch Enhancement System) does what?
## Footnote
767
A hydraulic motor on the right side uses trapped hydraulic fluid from the left side to power the Stab Trim at 1/4 the normal rate.
89
Can you trim the aircraft with multiple autopilots engaged?
No, the aircraft won’t trim. However, with 1 autopilot engaged and the trim is activated, it kicks the autopilot off.
90
The air ground system is decided how?
By the tilt of the wheels
91
Nose wheel steering is how many degrees?
65°
92
Rudder pedal steering is how many degrees?
7°
93
Normal brakes come from which system?
Right Hydraulic System
Alternate brakes come from the Center Hydraulic System
94
The auto brakes deceleration rate includes what?
The Brakes
The Thrust Reversers
95
When the anti-skid system is operating normally?
Each wheel has its own anti-skid valve
96
When the anti-skid system is not operating normally?
2 anti-skid valves (1 per axel)
97
Auto Brake RTO conditions?
1. Set before takeoff
2. The aircraft is on the ground
3. Groundspeed is above 85 knots
4. Both thrust levers are retarded to idle and the wheels have spun up
98
The brake accumulator has how many applications?
4 applications of the brake
Anti-skid valves use up the accumulator rapidly
99
On the ILS control head, you should always slect the front course, even when flying the?
Backcourse
100
When the transponder is set to "N" mode it looks up and down how many feet?
2,700 feet
101
Under what conditions will the white "Align Lights" flash?
1. AC is moved
2. No PPOS within 10 minutes
3. Wrong position
(More than 1° LAT/LONG from previous postion)(If you enter the wrong LAT/LONG more than 3 times it will accept the wrong information)
4. Fault
102
Is rudder control active on a single autopilot?
No
Its not active on a single autopilot
103
What are the basic modes?
(PIT) | (ROL)
V/S | HDG
104
How many autopilots can be used above 1,500 feet?
1 Autopilot above 1,500 feet.
Even if you have an approach armed can still only have one above 1,500 feet.
105
How many FCC's to activate the autopilot?
2 FCC's
106
Below 200 feet radio altimiter the ASA display cannot change except to indicate?
NO AUTOLAND condition.
107
What category approach can be made with a "Land 2" | "No Land 3" aunnunciation?
CAT III
108
What will you see for a full CAT III autoland with no issues on the ASA?
Nothing in the ASA windows
109
CAT III Fail Operational ?
CAT III Fail Passive?
What minimum RVR values for each and the Alert Height or Decision Height.
**Fail Operational**
RVR 300
Alert Height 100 Ft.
**Fail Passive**
RVR 600
DH 50 Ft.
110
What does the No AUTOLND tell us?
Unable to make an automatic landing
111
What does the ASA Monitor?
F - Flight Computers
I - ILS/IRS
R - Radio Altimeters
E - Electrical Systems
S - Servos
112
What are the dangers of V/S Mode?
No speed protection
Will fly away from an altitude
113
What is the VMO/MMO ?
360 KTS / .86 M
114
What bank angle do the speed bugs give adequate margin to the stall?
Up to 25° of bank
115
What kind of vertical speed indicator do we have?
Instantaneous
116
The Altitude Alerter comes on when?
900 - 300 feet
117
Load shedding, can occur under the follwoing conditions?
[Trips the "utility busses"]
1. Engine Start
2. Single Generator
3. Generator Overlaod
- OR-
Advancing a single engine while on the ground. The system can be reset by cycling the "Utility Busses" and having returned the engine to idle.
118
IRS "DISPL SEL" displays in "True' or "MAG"?
True Heading
119
How does the autopilot command the position of the flight controls?
The autopilot commands servo actuators which in turn hydraulically position the flight controls.
120
Does the loss of an FCC cause the loss of its associated autopilot?
Yes
121
What is ALPHA Speed?
ALPHA is 1.3 Stall
122
What are the bank limits in the "AUTO" position?
15° to 25°
123
The "Pitch Bar" before takeoff is 8°, what speed does the pitch bar target after takeoff?
Greater of:
V2 + 15
-OR-
Actual Liftoff Speed
124
During Takeoff with an engine failure the pitch bar goes to 1 of 3 speeds, they are?
Selected V2, if less than that value
-OR-
Existing Airspeed if between V2 and V2 +15
-OR-
V2 + 15, if existing airspeed is higher
125
Fail Operational
## Footnote
Land 3
Uses an Alert Height
No Visual References
CAT III / Autoland
If a failure occurs below Alert Height the autoland will continue.
126
Fail Passive
## Footnote
Land 2
No Land 3
Uses DA/RA
Requires Visual References
CAT II
127
With a Land 2 Annunciator, how many autopilots are operating?
2 FCC / 2 Autopilots Sensors and Servos
128
With a Land 3 annunciation what does that mean?
Three independant:
FCC / Autopilot Sensors and Servos
Electric Power Sources
Hydrualic Power Sources
Required for all CAT III Approaches
129
In the event of a failure of both AC buses what happens on the 767?
The ADP (Air Driven Pump) will automatcially operate to pressurize the HMG (Hydraulic Motor Generator)
130
How do you disarm tha AutoBrakes on the 757?
Manual braking
Advancing either thrust lever
Speedbrake "Down" after deployment
Selecting "Disarm or Off"
131
No Alternate Available fuel reserve?
| (Island Reserves)
Destination + 2 Hours
132
Standard Takeoff Path
No turns shall be commenced below 1,000' AFE when takeoff weather is less than:
1,000' Cieling and 3 SM / 5 KM
Unless a Special Dept Procedure or Instrument Dept Procedure requires a turn.
133
Standard Engine Failure Path
Below 1,000' AFE
* IMC / VMC*
* Climb straight ahead to 1,000' AFE.*
Above 1,000' AFE
* Complete IMC procudure when in IMC*
* -OR-*
* Land Visually*
* Radar Vectors can only be accepted above 1,000'*
134
Oceanic or Overwater Reserves
## Footnote
FAR 121.639
Destination + 10%
+
Fuel to the most distant alternate + 30 Minutes at 1,500' AG
135
Contamination Levels can be found where?
The Performance Handbook
## Footnote
Level 1 (Least Contaminated)
Level 2
Level 3 (Most Contaminated)
136
What is the shortest runway we can operate from?
6,000' without DO approval
137
Reduced Thrust takeoff is prohibited when?
Windshear is present or suspected
Contaminated runways
Anti-Skid inoperative
Special departure procedure requires full thrust
138
What are the Release Limit Codes
C - Climb
B - Brakes
O - Obstacale
T - Tires
F - Field
A - Max AFM Chart Weight
V - Vmcg
139
Are we authorized for LAHSO?
No, its prohibited 🚫
140
Is there a Pitch Enhancement System (PES) on the 757?
No, only the 767
141
Does the 757 have a Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?
Yes, on the left hyrdaulic system.
The PTU tranfers hydraulic power from the right hydraulic system to the left hydraulic system.
Automatically activated if the left engine failes or the pressure is low.
142
What is MACH Number Technique
## Footnote
Fly the MACH Number
Must have 10 minutes longitudinal seperation
10 Min = 80 miles
A 1 minute timing error equals 8 miles
\*If ETA is 3 Minutes or more notify ATC
143
Reserve Brake Light Switch ensures what?
The valve is in the correct position.
144
HF Radio's are usually set to what?
USB - Upper Side Band
## Footnote
Note: Never have the HF Radio's on the same frequency.
145
When isolating a Left/Right "Duct Leak" and the light fails to extinguish, what does this mean?
A leak may exist between the isolation valves.
## Footnote
A leak in this area is in a protected area and shouldn't cause any major issues.
146
How much fuel per type?
757 = 75,000 lbs
767 200/300 = 112,000 lbs
767 300ER = 162,400
147
What conditions will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU?
Overspeed
Overtemp
High Oil Temperature
APU Inlet door not fully open
APU Fire
148
How many batteries are required to start the APU?
2 Batteries
Both the aircraft and APU batteries are required to start the APU. The starter, the air inlet door and and the APU control circuitry are supplied by the APU battery. Fire protection, APU fuel valve, and the DC fuel pump are supplied by the aircraft battery.
149
When starting the APU, why does the fault light briefly illuminate?
The APU fuel valve is moving to the open position. Thus its momenarily not in the correct position and the fault light illuminates until it opens.
150
Where is the HMG located?
Left side of the aircraft near the left main wheel area.
151
The Hot Battery bus provides power to what?
Safety related equipment such as Engine Fire Extinguishers, Engine and APU fuel shutoff valves.
152
The purpose of the Ground Handling Bus is what?
To provide cargo handling and aircraft re-fueling. It can only be powered on the ground by the APU or from external power.
153
Scenario: When the right AC bus is not powered.
What are some examples of items that will be powered when selecting the Ground Service Switch to On, on the Main Flight Attendants Panel?
Both Battery Chargers
Exhaust Fans
Lighting
Hydraulic Quantity
Position Lights
154
Fail Operational Definition:
(Land 3)
An automatic landing system is fail-operational if, in the event of a failure, the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system.
NOTE: In the event of a failure, the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system.
NOTE: Land 3 is annunciated for Fail-Operational mode and Land 2 for Fail-Passive, for three A/P systems.
155
Fail Passive Definition:
(Land 2)
An automatic landing system is fail-passive if, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude - but the landing is not completed automatically.
NOTE: For a fail-passive automatic landing system the pilot assumes control of the aircraft after a failure.
NOTE: Land 3 is annunciated for Fail-Operational mode and Land 2 for Fail-Passive, for three A/P systems.
156
No Autoland Definition:
No Autoland indicates a fault which precludes the use of A/Ps for automatic landing.
157
Fail Operational means an airborne system with no common failure modes, and has reduncancy capability down to touchdown and rollout. If one of the required system fails below (AH) Alert Height, the flare touchdown and rollout can be completed with the remaining system.
Fail Passive means that a single failure of any flight system, no significant displacement from glidepath or out of trim condition from an autopilot disconnect. in addition any single failure should not cause any action of the flight control system that is not readily apparent to the pilot.
158
Review Hydraulic Diagram
159
What are the secondary flight controls?
Spoilers
Flaps
Slats
Horzontal Stabilizer
160
The spreedbrakes will not automaticaly retract in flight even if ?
The thrust levers are moved full forward.
161
Non-ETOPS Electrical 767-200
162
HDG Power Source
What you need to know!
On HDG power, the Captain's RDMI is powered.
However, the Captain's RDMI normally receives heading information from the Right IRS. On HDG power, the Right IRS switches to ON DC and will only operate on DC power for five minutes.
On HDG power, the Left and Center IRU's are continuously powered.
Therefore, when on HDG power, the First Officer must select his/her IRS switch to ALTN to allow the Center IRS to continue to provide heading signals to the Captain's RDMI.
163
With the left or right demand switch in AUTO and the associated fire switch pulled out, the hydrualic demand pump will?
Continue to operate
164
Minimum Engine Oil QTY for Dispatch is?
17 Quarts
165
How are primary flight controls powered on the 757?
On the 757, all primary flight controls (ailerons, rudder, and elevators) receive power from all three hydraulic systems.
166
When is the crew alerting system inhibited during takeoff and initial climb?
Caution alerts inhibition:
⇒Beeper and master caution lights inhibited from 80 knots on takeoff roll
Inhibition ends at whichever occurs first:
⇒20 seconds after nose gear strut extension, OR
400 feet radio altitude
167
When are fire warnings inhibited during takeoff?
Fire warning inhibition:
►Fire bell and master warning lights inhibited from nose gear strut extension
The inhibition ends at whichever occurs first:
►20 seconds after nose gear strut extension, OR
400 feet radio altitude
*Any existing fire warning activates when inhibition period ends
