Knee Flashcards

1
Q

What is the largest joint in the body?

A

Tibiofemoral joint

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2
Q

Which tibial plateau has a greater surface area? Which is thicker? Why?

A

Medial has a greater surface area and is 3x thicker

WBing!!

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3
Q

Pittsburgh knee rules:

A

MOI = fall, blunt trauma

Either one of the following:
Age: <12, >50 years old
Inabilty to take 4 WB steps

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4
Q

Ottawa knee rules

A

Radiographs appropriate if 1 of the following is present:
Age >55 years
Isolated patellar tenderness
Tenderness of the fibular head
Inability to flex the knee to 90
Inability to WB immediately post injury

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5
Q

3 outcome measure for the knee

A

KOOS
WOMAC
LEFS

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6
Q

This special test is known as the “grandfather” of meniscus tests

A

McMurray test

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7
Q

Identify three special tests for meniscal pathology:

A

McMurray test
Apley’s compression/distraction
Thessaly’s test

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8
Q

If there’s swelling at the knee, can you test for an ACL pathology?

A

Probably won’t. Either test on the field right away, or after swelling has gone down.

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9
Q

Identify two main ACL special tests:

A

Anterior drawer
Lachman’s

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10
Q

The Noble Compression Test is used to assess what?

A

ITB syndrome.

Careful: no established psychometrics

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11
Q

Term: Describes a spectrum of knee conditions in which loss of motion is a major finding.

A

Arthrofibrosis

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12
Q

Three interventions for arthofibrosis:

A

ROM exercises
Joint mobilizations
Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)

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13
Q

VARUS/VALGUS deformity is common with OA at the knee.

A

Varus

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14
Q

Grade 1 and 2 ligamentous sprain conservative management:

5 things

A
  • PRICE
  • Decreased WB
  • Short term mobilization
  • Strengthening and proprioception
  • Gradual return to activity
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15
Q

What is the most studied musculoskeletal pathology?

A

ACL pathology

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16
Q

4 intrinsic factors for ACL injury:

A
  • Narrow intercondylar notch
  • Weak ACL
  • Generalized laxity
  • LE malignment
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17
Q

4 extrinsic factors for injury:

A
  • Quad and hamstring imbalances
  • Limb symmetry
  • Altered neuromuscular control
  • Playing surface
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18
Q

5 MOIs for ACL injury:

A
  • Sudden deceleration of foot
  • Quad-hamstring strength imbalance
  • Valgus force
  • Twisting with fixed distal segment
  • Extreme hyperflexion or hyperextension
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19
Q

What structures are included in the unhappy triad?

A

MCL+ACL+Medial meniscus

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20
Q

6 Key exam findings for ACL pathology:

A
  • Significant effusion
  • Feeling of “giving way”
  • Pain with WB/altered gait
  • Loss of quad function
  • Decreased A/PROM
  • (+) ant drawer, lachman’s
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21
Q

5 things to “pre-hab” the ACL before surgery

A
  • Decrease pain, edema w/ modalities
  • Hamstring strengthening
  • Re-engage quads as much as possible
  • Increase ROM
  • Gait training with AD if needed
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22
Q

What are the implications of a hamstring graft?

A

Delayed knee flexion post-op

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23
Q

5 general steps for ACL rehab:

A
  • Know graft type
  • Initial mangement
  • Strengthening
  • Perturbation training
  • Visual re-training
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24
Q

Phase 1 of ACL rehab timeframe

A

0-4 weeks

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25
Q

Phase 2 ACL rehab timeframe

A

5-12 weeks

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26
Q

Phase 3 ACL rehab timeframe

A

12 weeks-1 year

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27
Q

Phase 1 ACL rehab

5

A
  • Pain management
  • Education
  • HEP (quad activation focus)
  • WBAT
  • ROM
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28
Q

Phase 2 ACL rehab

3

A

Neuromuscular retraining
approaching full ROM
CKC progressions

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29
Q

Phase 3 ACL rehab

4

A
  • Return to function
  • Caution: 3-4 mo. Pt will want to do more, but graft is at it’s weakest point!
  • CKC and OKC
  • WB -> walk -> run
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30
Q

Criteria needed to run post ACLR:

7

A
  • Pain <2/10
  • Knee flexion A/PROM 95% of uninvolved
  • Full active knee extension
  • Joint effusion resolved
  • Quad/HS isometric strength = 70% uninvolved
  • Single leg hop tests = 70% uninvolved
  • Single leg squat/step up without knee valgus increase

Need ALL to return to run

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31
Q

5 return to sport tests for ACL rehab:

A
  • Single leg hop
  • Single leg vertical jump
  • Triple hop
  • Cross-over hop
  • Vail sports test
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32
Q

Limb symmetry index

A

Affected limb value/unaffected limb value x 100 = LSI

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33
Q

The Vail Sports Test consists of these 4 components:

A
  • Single leg squat for 3 minutes
  • Lateral bounding for 90 seconds
  • Forward jogging for 2 minutes
  • Backward jogging for 2 minutes
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34
Q

Poor ____ strength symmetry is correlated with ris kof reinjury to ACL.

A

Quadriceps

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35
Q

3 main takeaways for return to sports after an ACL tear:

A
  • Symmetry and strength
  • Both limbs need to be trained
  • Return to sports criteria completed (objective tests MUST be performed)
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36
Q

T/F PCL tears can be caused by micro or macro trauma.

A

False! Only macrotrauma due to strength.

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37
Q

ISOLATED/COMBINED injuries are more common in PCL.

A

Combined

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38
Q

3 signs of PCL tear

A
  • Pain in posterior aspect of knee
  • Pain worse with kneeling
  • Minimal pain with extension, worse past 90 deg of flexion.
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39
Q

PCL rehab before/without surgery

4 items

A
  • Quad strengthening - main point
  • Control pain, edema
  • Increase ROM
  • Gait training if needed
40
Q

2 MOIs for PCL tear:

A
  • Blow to tibial tubercle
  • Contact or non-contact hyperextionsion injury
41
Q

4 guidelines for post PCL reconstruction

A
  • Brace
  • Assistive device
  • Early closed chain and isometric quads
  • NO resisted hamstring exercises
42
Q

How long do you wait to do resisted hamstring exercises post PCL reconstruction?

A

~8 weeks post op

43
Q

3 exam signs for MCL/LCL pathology:

A
  • Pain with A/PROM testing
  • (+) varus / valgus testing
  • Possible pain with WBing
44
Q

3 potential complications of knee dislocation:

A
  • Structures that cross the knee at risk
  • Popliteal artery rupture or contusion
  • Common fibular nerve stretch
45
Q

Conservative management of a knee dislocation:

2 items

A
  • Long cast in slight flexion
  • Knee rehab
46
Q

Functional test for ruling out meniscus tear:

47
Q

Total menisectomy leads to….

A

Early degenerative changes

48
Q

Menisectomy management guidelines:

5 items

A
  • Control pain and edema
  • Increase ROM
  • NM strengthening
  • Gait training
  • Proprioception
49
Q

Goals of the menisectomy subacute phase:

3 items

A
  • Increase to pre-op ROM
  • Normal gait
  • Increase strength
50
Q

5 exercises for menisectomy acute phase:

A
  • Bike
  • Isometrics
  • SLR
  • Knee ext and flex (pain free arc)
  • Hamstring and calf stretches
51
Q

2 exercises for menisectomy subacute phase:

A
  • Squats
  • lunges (pref reverse)
52
Q

Don’t forget to address these structures in menisectomy rehab!!

A

Hip and ankle (Above and below)

53
Q

T/F PFPS patients will likely have a mal-tracking patella

A

False. They could, but not necessarily

54
Q

2 factors that could predispose someone to a lateral tracking patella

A
  • Increased Q-angle
  • Lateral tibial torsion
55
Q

Most important interventions for PFPS:

3 items

A
  • Quad strengthening
  • Hip ER/ABD training
  • Neuromotor re-training
56
Q

When managing PFPS what other 2 structures should be looked at?

A

Hip and ankle

57
Q

What does McConnell taping address?

A

Lateral glide of the patella

58
Q

MOI for patellar dislocation

A

Abduction/external rotation injury

59
Q

Management of a patellar dislocation

3 items

A
  • Closed reduction
  • Immobilization in long leg cast in extension
  • Recurrent dislocations - lateral release, repair VMO and joint capsule.
60
Q

Two causes of patellar tendinopathy:

A
  • Overuse
  • Overload (increase in intensity)
61
Q

4 signs of patellar tendinopathy:

A
  • Inflammation
  • Decreased open chain AROM extension
  • Resisted static contraction of quads is painful
  • Squat painful
62
Q

Name each stage of patellar tendinopathy rehab:

A
  1. Load
  2. Move
  3. Bounce
  4. Hop and bound
63
Q

Adipose tissue is HIGHLY/MINIMALLY innervated at the knee

64
Q

What sex is ITBS more predominant in?

65
Q

2 MOI for superficial and deep infrapatellar knee bursitis

A
  • Kneeling
  • Direct trauma
66
Q

Identify:

Pain and swelling on palpation of the prepatellar bursa

A

Prepatellar bursitis
“housemaid’s knee”

67
Q

Identify:

Medial knee pain just distal to joint line
Tibia may externally rotate compared with uninvolved side

A

Superficial pes anserinus bursitis

68
Q

5 components of knee bursitis treatment:

A
  • Removal of the irritation
  • Stretching adaptively shortened structures
  • Joint mobilizations as needed to correct alignment
  • Anti-inflammatory meds
  • Cryotherapy
69
Q

3 potential causes of Hoffa’s syndrome:

A
  • Impingement between femoral condyles and tibial plateau during knee extension
  • Direct trauma or overuse causing irritation
  • Posterior tilt of the inferior pole of the patella
70
Q

Diagnostic test for Hoffa’s

A

Bounce test: pain elicited with passive knee hyperextension

71
Q

2 treatment approaches for Hoffa’s

A
  • Active approach: Shift load away from anterior knee; modify WB
  • Passive approach: rest, ice, NSAIDs, local corticosteroid injection to fat pad
72
Q

Red flag associated with direct blow to muscle, usually the quads.

A

Myositis ossificans

73
Q

Identify:

Condition where bone tissue forms within the muscle

A

Myositis Ossificans

74
Q

Define:

Genu Varum

A

Knees >6 cm apart with malleoli together

75
Q

Define:

Genu Valgum

A

Malleoli >10 cm apart with knees together

76
Q

Normal developmental course of knee position

A
  • Birth to 18 months - increased varus
  • 18 months to 3-4 years - develop genu valgus
  • By age 8-10 - corrected to normal adult alignment
77
Q

Define:

Genu Recurvatum

A

> 5 degrees hyperextension at the knee

78
Q

3 underlying diseases that may cause Genu recurvatum

A
  • RA
  • Polio
  • Charcot’s disease
79
Q

Identify:

Joints without pain sense or proprioception

A

Charcot’s disease

80
Q

Internal tibial torsion is NORMAL/ABNORMAL in infants

81
Q

Excessive INTERNAL/EXTERNAL torsion can lead to patellar tracking problems.

82
Q

Identify:

Compression, fragmentation, or separation of a small fragment of bone

A

Osteochondritis

83
Q

Osteochondritis commonly occurs in what demographic?

A

Childhood or adolescence

84
Q

3 types of Osteochondritis:

A
  • Crushing - compressive
  • Splitting - osteochondritis dessicans
  • Pulling - traction apophysitis
85
Q

Osteochondritis dessicans (splitting) often occurs at which locations?

2 Items

A
  • Talus
  • Femoral condyle
86
Q

Management of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease

5 items

A
  • Rest
  • Decreased WB
  • Quad stretching (if tight)
  • Possible casting 2-4 weeks
  • Usually resolves on own
87
Q

3 S/Sx of osteochondritis dissecans:

A
  • Initially intermittent aching and swelling
  • Episodic catching or locking
  • Atalgic gait
88
Q

What condition does osteochondritis dissecans present similarly to?

A

Meniscus lesion

89
Q

Identify:

Poor mineralization problem occuring in kids

90
Q

Identify:

Adults rickets

A

Osteomalacia

91
Q

3 S/Sx of rickets:

A
  • Bone pain
  • Muscle cramping
  • Impaired growth
92
Q

Management of rickets

2 items

A
  • Medical disease management
  • Osteotomy to straighten tibia
93
Q

Identify:

Structurally weak bone commonly occuring in skull, pelvis, and tibia

A

Paget’s disease

94
Q

4 S/Sx of Paget’s disease

A
  • Increased skill size
  • Bowing of LEs
  • Increased kyphosis
  • Fractures occur more easily
95
Q

Management of Paget’s disease

A

Meds similar to those with osteoporosis