Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

STEP > Key Associations > Flashcards

Key Associations Flashcards

1
Q

Acute gastric ulcer assoc. w/ CNS injury

A

Cushing ulcer

increased ICP stimulates vagal gastric H+ secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute gastric ulcer assoc. w/ severe burns

A

Curling ulcer

-Greatly reduce plasma volume results in sloughing of gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alternating areas of transmural inflammation and normal colon

A

Skip lesions

-Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aortic aneurysm, abdominal

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aortic aneurysm, ascending arch

A

Tertiary syphilis

-Occurs due to obliteration of the vasa vasorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aortic aneurysm, thoracic

A

Marfan syndrome

-Assoc. w/ cystic medial degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernick encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency causing ataxia, opthalmoplegia, confusion, and confabulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autosplenectomy (fibrosis and shrinkage)

A

SCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bacteri assoc. w/ gastritis, PUD, and stomach cancer

A

H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacterial meningitis (adults and elderly)

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bacterial meningitis (newborns and kids)

A

S. agalactiae, E. coli

N. meningitidis in teens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bilateral ovarian metastases from gastric carcinoma

A

Krukenberg tumor

-Mucin-secreting signet ring cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bleeding disorder w/ GpIB deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

-Defect in platelet adhesion to vWF; will see giant platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Brain tumor (Adults)

A

Supratentorial: Glioblastoma multiforme (MCC), meningioma, schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Brain tumor (kids)

A

Infratentorial: Medulloblastoma (MCC)

Supratentorial: Craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Breast Cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Breast Mass

A

Think Fibrocystic change
or
Carcinoma in postmenopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cardiac primary tumor (in kids)

A

Rhabdomyoma (seen in tuberous sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cardiac manifestation of lupus

A

Marantic/thrombotic endocarditis on both sides of valve

“Liberman-Sachs endocarditis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cardiac tumor (adults)

A

Metastasis
or
Myxoma (“ball and valve” in LA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A

Chiari II malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chronic arrhythmia

A

A-fib

-high risk of cardiac emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis (AI)

A

Predisposition to gastric carcinoma

-Can also cause pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

A

DES exposure in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypotension

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD (MCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Congenital conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (black liver)

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome (inability of hepatocytes to excrete conjugated bilirubin into bile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Constrictive pericarditis

A

TB (developing world)

Viral illness (developed world)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Coronary artery involved in thrombosis

A

LAD > RCA > L. circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cretinism

A

Iodine deficient/congenital hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Iatrogenic (corticosteroid therapy)

Adrenocortical adenoma

ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma

Paraneoplastic (ACTH secretion by tumors like SCC of lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cyanosis (early; less common)

A

TOR, transposition of the great vessels truncus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cyanosis (late; more common)

A

VSD, ASD, PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Death in CML

A

Blast crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Death in SLE

A

Lupus nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dementia

A

Alzheimer’s disease

Vascular dementia (multiple infarcts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Demyelinating disease in young women

A

MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DIC

A

Severe sepsis

Obstetric complications

Cancer

Burns

Trauma

Major surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dietary deficit

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Diverticulum in pharynx

A

Zenker diverticulum

-diagnosed by barium swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ejection click

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Esophageal cancer

A

SCC

Adenocarcinoma in murica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Food poisoning (via exotoxins)

A

S. aureus

B. cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Glomerulonephritis (adults)

A

Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gynecologic malignancy

A

Endometrial carcinoma (MCC in US)

Cervical carcinoma (worldwide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Congenital heart murmur

A

Mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Heart valve in bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral>Aortic (RF)

Tricuspid (IV drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Helminth infection in the US

A

Enterobius vermicularis

Ascaris lumbricoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of MMA from trauma

-“Lentiform shaped”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of bridging veins in old person w/ cortical atrophy

-“Crescent shaped”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

Multiple blood transfusions or HFE mutation

=» can result in HF, yellow diabetes, and increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Cirrhotic liver

-assoc. w/ HBV, HCV, alcoholism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hereditary bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hereditary harmless jaundice

A

Gilbert syndrome

-benign congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

HLA-B27

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD (UC)
Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

HLA-DR3

A

DM Type I

SLE

Grave’s disease

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

HLA-DR4

A

DM Type I

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Holosystolic murmur

A

VSD

Tricuspid regurgitation

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, blood stasis

A

Virchow triad

*increased risk of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Secondary HTN

A

Renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental excision during thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

Pituitary adenoma (usually a benign tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Infection due to blood transfusion

A

HCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Infections in CGD

A

S. aureus

E. coli

Aspergillus

***Catalase (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Intellectual disability

A

Down’s Syndrome

Fragile-X Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Actinic kertosis

A

Precursor to SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Kidney stones (different types)

A

Calcium= radioopaque

Struvite (ammonium)= radioopaque (formed by urease pos organisms such as Klebsiella, Proteus, and Staph. saprophyticus)

Uric acid= radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected left-right becomes right-left)

A

Eisenmeger syndrome; caused by chronic ASD, VSD, PDA

=»pulmonary hypertension/polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Liver disease

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Lysosomal storage disease

A

Gaucher’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Male cancer

A

Prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Malignancy assoc. w/ noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Malignancy (kids)

A

ALL, medulloblastoma (cerebellum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Metastases to bone

A

Prostate, breast > lung > thyroid

“BLT and a Kosher Pickle”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Metastases to brain

A

Lung > Breast > Genitourinary > Melanoma > GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Metastases to liver

A

Colon&raquo_space; Stomach, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Mitochondrial inheritance

A

Disease occurs in both males and females, inherited thru females only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mitral valve stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Mixed (UMN and LMN) motor neuron disease

A

ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Myocarditis

A

Coxsackie B virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Nephortic syndrome

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Nephrotic syndrome (kids)

A

Minimal change disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Neuron migration failure

A

Kallman Syndrome

-hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia

A

Staph. aureus

Pseudomonas

Enteric GNRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Obstruction of male urinary tract

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Opening snap

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Opportunistic infxn in AIDS

A

PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Staph. aureus (MCC overall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Osteomyelitis in SCD

A

Salmonella paratyphi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Osteomyelitis w/ IV drug abuse

A

Pseudomonas

Candida

Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Ovarian tumor (benign, bilateral)

A

Serous cystadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Ovarian tumor (malignant)

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Pancreatitis (acute)

A

Gallstones, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pancreatitis (chronic)

A

Alcohol (adults)

CF (kids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Pt. w/ ALL/CLL/AML/CML

A

ALL = child

CLL= Adult > 60

AML = Adult

CML= Adult >50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

C. trachomatis or N. gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Philadelphia Chromosome

A

t(9;22) (BCR-ABL)

CML; occasionally AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Pituitary tumor

A

Prolactinoma, somatotropic adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Primary amenorrhea

A

Turner Syndrome; 45, XO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Primary bone tumor (adults)

A

MM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Conn’s syndrome

-Adenoma of adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Primary hyperthyroidism

A

Adenomas, hyperplasia, carcinoma, PTHrP assoc. w/ SCC of lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Primary liver cancer

A

Hepatocelllular carcinoma

-could be assoc. w/ chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, hemochromatosis, a1-antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Pulmonary HTN

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Recurrent inflammation/thrombosis of small/medium vessels in extremities

A

Buerger disease (strong assoc. w/ tobacco use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma; assoc. w/ von-Hippel Lindau and cigarette smoking

-Paraneoplastic syndromes could increase EPO, renin, PTHrP, ACTH and cause as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Right heart failure due to a pulmonary cause

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

s3 heart sound

A

Increased ventricular filling pressure

-Common in dilated ventricles, mitral regurgitation, HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

s4 heart sound

A

Stiff/hypertrophic ventricle

-Aortic stenosis, restrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypocalcemia of chronic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

STD

A

Chlamydia trachomatis, usually coinfxn w/ N. gonnorhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

SIADH

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Site of diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Sites of atherosclerosis

A

Abdominal aorta > Coronary artery > Popliteal artery > Carotid artery > Circle of Willis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Stomach ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma of the duodenum or pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

t (14;18)

A

Follicular lymphoma

*BCL-2 activation causing mitochondrial membrane stability and acts as an anti-apoptotic oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

t(8;14)

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

-c-myc fusion is a transcription factor oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

Risk of ipsilateral blindness due to occlusion of ophthalmic artery

-assoc. w/ polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Testicular cancer

A

Seminoma (malignant, radiosensitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

-estrogen dependent; not precancerous tho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Tumor of adrenal medulla (adults)

A

Pheochromocytoma (usually benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Tumor of infancy

A

Strawberry hemangioma

-grows at first then spontaneously regresses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Tumor of the adrenal medulla (kids)

A

Neuroblastoma (malignant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Type of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Nodular sclerosis = MCC

Lymphocyte depletion = Poorest prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

UTI

A

E. coli

Staph. saprophyticus (young women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Vertebral compression fracture

A

Osteoporosis (Type 1: postmenopausal woman; Type II: elderly man or woman)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Viral encephalitis affecting the temporal lobe

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Vitamin deficiency (U.S.)

A

Folate

-pregnant women are at high risk; body stores only 3-4 months supply; supplementation required to prevent neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Increased homocysteine

A

Damages the endothelium producing thrombosis

  • Can be caused by decreased B12 or Folate
  • Methyl group path: Folate =» B12 =» Homocysteine (converts it to methionine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Cystathionine Beta Synthase deficiency

A

Homocystinuria; decreased conversion of homocysteine to cystathionine

Clinical: Thrombosis, MR, lens dislocation, long, slender fingers

-And crystals in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

CRC

A

Rc x Hct/45

CRC > 3% = good response to anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

VSD baby

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

ASD

A

Assoc. w/ Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

PDA

A

Assoc. w/ congenital rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Transposition of the great vessels

A

Assoc. w/ maternal diabetes (although usually doesn’t happen)

-Maintain PDA until surgery is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Coarction of the Aorta

A

congenital assoc. w/ Turner Syndrome

Adult form occurs AFTER the ligamentum arteriosum BUT leads to notched ribs due to development of collateral vessels
*Also assoc. w/ bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Wilm’s tumor (3 syndromes)

A 
WAGR syndrome (Wilm's, aniridia, genital abnormalities, motor Retardation)
  -WT1 deletion

Denyrs-drash syndrome (Wilm’s, male ️Pseudohermaphroditism)
-WT1 mutation

Beckwith Wiedemann (Wilm's, muscular hemihypertrophy, organomegaly (tongue)
   -WT2 mutation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Maternal alcohol

A

MCC of mental retardation in newborn

Facial abnormalities and microcephaly

VSD

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Maternal cocaine use effects

A

Intrauterine growth retardation

Placental Abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Isotretinoin effects on baby

A

Spontaneous abortion

Hearing and visual defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Phenytoin effects on newborn

A

Digit hypoplasia

Cleft lip/palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Mononuclear germinal centers in the thyroid gland

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

anti-TPO

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Schizophreniform disorder

A

Psychotic episode that lasts 1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Cyclothymic disorder

A

Dysthymia and hypomania lasting at least 2 years

Basically like a mild bipolar type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Dysthymia

A

Persistent Depressive Disorder= depression lasting at least 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Hypomanic episode

A

Similar to a manic episode but does not cause serious impairment in social or occupational fnxn
-Lasts about a week

Distracted 
Irresponsible
Grandiose
Flight of Ideas 
Activity (increased)
Sleep (decreased) 
Talkative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Schizoid Personality (Type A)

A

Voluntary social withdrawal

Limited emotional expression

Content with social isolation

-Lack of any psychosis differentiates from true schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Shizotypal Personality Disorder (Type A)

A

Eccentric appearance

Odd beliefs

Magical thinking

Interpersonal awkwardness

-Lack of any true psychosis differentiates from schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Histrionic Personality Disorder (Type B)

A

Excessive emotionality and excitability

Attention seeking

Sexually provocative

Overly concerned w/ appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (Type C)

A

Preoccupation w/ order, perfectionism, and control

-Behavior is consistent w/ ones own beliefs and attitudes which differentiates it from tru OCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Burnt sugar diapers

A

Maple syrup urine disease; defective a-keto acid dehydrogenase causes defective breakdown of leucine, isoleucine, and valine

-Causes life-threatening neurotoxicity

⭐️Diet should restrict these 3 branches AA’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Protein w/ a mannose-6-phosphate tag

A

Targets the protein for transport to the lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

I-cell disease

inclusion cell disease

A

Failure of golgi to phosphorylate mannose residues causing excess proteins to be secreted extracellularly

Clinical: Coarse facial features
Clouded cornea
Stiff joints
-fatal in childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Peroxisome

A

Catabolism of long chain FAs, branched FAs, and AAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Collagen Types

A

I: Bone, skin, tendon, scar, cornea

II: Cartilage, nucleus pulposus, vitreous body

III: Skin, blood vessels, granulation tissue

IV: BM, lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Collagen synthesis

A
  1. Collagen translated to Gly-X-Y (proline and lysine)
  2. Proline and lysine residues hydroxylated
    • REQUIRES ASCORBIC ACID*
  3. Procollagen formed via H2 and S2 bonds (forms the triple helix; problems cause osteogenesis imperfecta)
  4. Exoctyosis
  5. S2 region cleaved making insoluble tropocollagen
  6. Lysyl oxidase cross-links lysine-hydroxylysin
    • REQUIRES CU2+*
      - Problems here cause Ehlers-Danlos or Menkes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Menkes Disease

A

X-linked disorder cause by defective copper absorption and transport

Clinical: Brittle hair
Growth retardation
Hypotonia

-Impaired lysyl oxidase fnxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

McCune-Albright Syndromme

A

Cafe-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, endocrine abnormalities

  • Due to mutations in G-protein signaling
  • Lethal if a germline mutation occurs; survivable if somatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

X-linked Dominant Disorder

A

Hypophosphatemic Rickets

-Increased phosphate wasting; presents just like Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Telangectasias, Recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, hematuria, GI bleeding, AV-malformations

A

Osler-Weber-Rendau Syndrome

AD disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis tx

A

Splenectomy

Fun fact: This is an AD disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots, cutaneous neurofibromas, pheochromoytomas, Lisch nodules (pigmented iris lesions)

A

NFT 1

AD mutation on Chromosome 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, ependyomas, bilateral acoustic schwannomas

A

NFT-2

AD mutation on chromosome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Frontal balding, cataracts, muscle wasting, testicular atrophy

A

Myotonic dystrophy

AD disorder; CTG repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Intellectual disability, friendliness w/ strangers, “eflin” facies, hypercalcemia

A

William’s Syndrome

-Microdeletion on chromosome 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Meconium ileus in a newborn

A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

a-blocker for PTSD

A

Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Necrolysis migratory erythema

A

Glucagonoma, lesions leave a bronze-colored, central Indurated area with peripheral blistering

-also presents as DM, diarrhea, abdominal pain,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Sonic hedgehog gene mutations

A

Holoprosencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Hox Gene mutations

A

Limbs/appendages in wrong locations

“Homebox” genes normally encode for transcription factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Gubernaculum remnants in adults

A

Male ➡️ anchors testes to the scrotum

Female ➡️ Ovarian ligament and the round ligament of the uterus (travels thru the Inguinal canal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Infundibulopelvic ligament

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

Contains the ovarian vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

SpeA

A

S. PYOGENES VF that is responsible for toxic-shock like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

SpeB

A

S. Pyogenes VF that is responsible for necrotizing fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Theca-luteum cysts

A

Assoc. W/ hydatiform moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Eczematous patch on the Breast

A

Paget’s disease

The actual Paget cells are clear cells found in the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Bilateral Breast cancer

A

Invasive lobular carcinoma

Invade in a single file fashion due to decreased e-cadherins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

MCC of testicular Cancer in old men

A

Testicular lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Hemorrhagic testicular tumor

A

Embryonal carcinoma; may see increased hCG and AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Increased placental ALP

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Increased placental ALP

A

Seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Milrinone

A

PDE-3 inhibitor used to increase cAMP levels causing increased inotropy and systemic Vasodilation

-Can produce severe hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Sign of severity of mitral regurgitation

A

Presence of an S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Sign of aortic stenosis severity

A

LVP: aortic pressure gradient disparity

  • Would increase the crescendo-decreasendo length
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Location of the SA node

A

Where the SVC enters the right atrium

Sinus venarum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Location of the AV node

A

The coronary sinus

-Is also the location where the cardiac veins drain and found near the interatrial septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Location of direct inguinal hernias

A

Hesselbach’s triangle; gut herniated directly thru the Transversalis fascia (floor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

First area with loss of fnxn in Alzheimers

A

Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

First area with loss of fnxn in Alzheimers

A

Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Herpes lesion on tip of nose

A

Hutchinsons sign; important because there’s a high likelihood of corneal involvement

-Treat it ya dingus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Arnold-Chiari II malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Lateral medullary syndrome

A

Vomiting, nystagmus, loss of facial pain and temp sensation, dysphagia, loss of gag reflex,

⭐️Occurs due to damage to PICA

⭐️Nucleus ambiguus differentiates this syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Middle 1/3 of the crus cerebri

A

Corticospinal fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Multinucleated giant cells in the CNS

A

HIV infxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Microglia embryologic origin

199
Q

Possible cause of tibial nerve injury

A

Baker’s cyst

-Loss of inversion of foot and toe flexion

200
Q

P-bodies

A

Partake in decapping mRNA, degrading it, and storing it

201
Q

Trousseau syndrome tumors

A

Adenocarcinoma of the lung

Pancreatic carcinoma

Colon cancer

202
Q

Age distribution of osteosarcome

A

Bimodal (10-20 yrs; >65)

Arises in metaphysis, assoc. With PAGET’s, retinoblastoma, and Li-fraumeni

203
Q

anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

Specific for lupus

-Extra bad tho cuz it means you probs have renal disease

204
Q

Pain, stiffness in the shoulders and hips; fever, malaise, weight loss, temporal Arteritis

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Will see increased inflammatory markers

Tx: corticosteroids

205
Q

Widespread musculoskeletal pain in a woman with stiffness, poor sleep, fatigue

A

Fibromyalgia

Tx: TCAs, SNRIs, exercise

206
Q

Anti-SRP, anti-Mi-2, anti-Jo

A

Polymyositis (endomysial w/ cd8)

Dermatomyositis (perimysial w/ cd4)

207
Q

Increased stratum spinosum

A

Psoriasis; also has Acanthosis with Parakeratosis

-Pitting of nails other sign you usually forget

208
Q

Rash with well-defined demarcations; usually on the face

A

Erisypelas; infxn of upper dermis and superficial Lymphatics by S. Pyogenes

209
Q

Yellow, Crusty rash

A

Impetigo; infxn only involves the epidermis

S. Aureus or s. Pyogenes

210
Q

Possible causes of Acanthosis nigricans

A

Insulin resistance (hyperglycemia, increased FFAs)

Visceral malignancy (gastric adenocarcinoma usually)

211
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis in 2-3 days

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

212
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis in 1 week

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

Tx: ORAL Azithromycin

213
Q

Leading cause of blindness

A

Endemic trachoma cause by Chlamydia Trachomatis Serotypes A-C

214
Q

Corrosive esophagitis

A

Bisphosphonates

-Could also cause osteonecrosis of the jaw

215
Q

Pearson correlation coefficient

A

Examines the linear relationship between two variables

Ex: Relationship between hba1c and blood glucose

216
Q

Belligerence, vertical nystagmus, disorientation, poor judgment, memory loss

A

PCP use

⭐️Primarily an NMDA RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST

217
Q

Site of injection for a femoral nerve block

A

The Inguinal crease

-Remember that this nerve does not actually enter the femoral ring and is not included in the femoral sheath in the thigh

218
Q

Cushing triad

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, bradypnea

⭐️Sign of Increased ICP

-Possible herniation

219
Q

Prostatic nerve plexus

A

Gives rise to the cavernous nerves that parasympathetically mediate erection

Damage ➡️ erectile dysnfnxn

-Usually occurs after prostatectomy

220
Q

Indirect inguinal hernias

A

️Occurs due to a patent Processus vaginalis

-Intestines protrude thru the deep inguinal ring and travel LATERAL to the inferior epigastric vessels

221
Q

Direct inguinal hernia

A

️Occurs in older men due to a weakness in the transversalis fascia

-Content of intestines protrude thru Hesselbach’s triangle and travels MEDIAL to the inferior epigastric vessels

222
Q

Femoral hernia

A

️Occurs in women due to weakness of the proximal femoral canal

-Intestinal content protrudes then the femoral ring and travels INFERIOR to the inguinal ligament

⭐️prone to incarceration and strangulation due to impaired blood flow

223
Q

Cellular receptor for CMV

A

Cellular integrins

224
Q

Cellular receptor for rabies

225
Q

Cellular receptor for rhinovirus

A

ICAM-1 (CD54)

226
Q

Mitochondrial vacuoles action

A

Irreversible cell damage

227
Q

Expired tetracyclines

A

Fanconi syndrome ( a type of metabolic tubular acidosis due to decreased excretion of acid)

228
Q

Subpleural blebs

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

229
Q

Subpleural blebs

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

230
Q

Li-Fraumeni tumors

A 
Breast cancer
Leukemia
Adrenal tumors
Bone cancer 
Sarcomas
231
Q

First dose hypotension

A

️Occurs in pts. Who start ACEIs and have increased renin activity prior to initiation

-More like in HF or HCTZ pts

232
Q

Methadone

A

U-opioid agonist with an extremely long half-life; used to Tx. Addiction

-Has decreased central activity

233
Q

Supracondylar fracture with anterolateral displacement of the humerus

A

Wrist drop (radial nerve damage)

234
Q

Supracondylar fracture with anteromedial displacement

A

Median nerve damage (weakened wrist Flexion)

235
Q

Permanent DI

A

Damage to the vasopressornergic neurons of the hypothalamus

-If the DI is transient, most likely a posterior pituitary injury

236
Q

DRESS syndrome

A

“Drug reaction with eosinophila and systemic symptoms”

-️Occurs a few weeks after starting anticonvulsants, allopurinol, Sulfonamides, and antibiotics

Clinical: Fever, lymphadenopathy, facial edema, diffuse rash

237
Q

Intrapleural pressure at FRC

A

-5 cm H2O

Decreases to -7.5 on expansion of the chest wall

238
Q

Epithelia of true vocal cords

A

Stratified squamous

-is the reason why HPV 6 and 11 can infect here

239
Q

Tx of thyroid storm

A

Propanolol

Propylthiouracil

Prednisone

Potassium iodide

⭐️ the 4 p’s

240
Q

Location of HEVs in lymph nodes

A

The Paracortex

241
Q

HLA-DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac disease

242
Q

Cd 16 pos cell

A

NK cell; kills via ADCC and Ifn-a or B activation

243
Q

Positive and negative T-cell selection locations

A

Positive =» Cortex (those that can recognize self survive)

Negative =» Medulla (those with high affinity for self die)

244
Q

FOXP3

A

Th17 cells; produce anti-inflammatory cytokines TGF-B and IL-10

245
Q

Most produced antibody overall

A

IgA (is not the highest in the serum tho)

246
Q

Function of CRP

A

Opsonin that can fix complement and facilitate phagocytosis

247
Q

DOWNREGULATED ARPs

A

Albumin (to save AAs) and transferrin

248
Q

C3 deficiency

A

Increases risk of severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infxns

Also increased risk of Type III HSN rxns

249
Q

Hot T-bone stEAK

A

IL-1 =» Pyrogen

IL-2 =» stimulates T-cells

IL-3 =» stimulates bone marrow

IL-4 =» stimulates IgE prod.

IL-5 =» stimulates IgA prod.; also the growth of eosinophils

IL-6 =» stimulates aKute-phase reactant prod.

250
Q

Relationship b/w Km and Vmax

A

Km= 1/2Vmax

BUT. They are not actually related to each other; one measures the maximum rate of the enzyme and the other measures its affinity for the substrate

251
Q

Crackles on lung auscultation

A

Atelectasis, bronchitis

252
Q

Wheezing on lung auscultation

253
Q

MCC of TIAs and Stroke (Brain attack)

254
Q

Proliferative cells during axon repair

A

Schwann cells

255
Q

Possible sequelae of diverticulosis

A

Fecalith obstruction; presents w/ bleeding and abdominal pain

-Eat high fiber diet to avoid this

256
Q

Sympathetic response to blood loss

A

HTN and increased HR; all of this is done to maintain adequate BP

257
Q

What organelle is usually damaged w/ hepatotoxic substances?

A

Mitochondria

258
Q

Adrenal medulla embryologic origin

A

Neural crest cells

259
Q

Nerves that help to mediate gastric motility

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerves

260
Q

First sign of puberty in a female

A

Breast bud development

261
Q

Why is M. leprae found on the skin?

A

It likes the colder temperature

262
Q

Uterine arteries origin

A

The internal illiac; ligate this during a hysterectomy

263
Q

Nerve damaged w/ jaw fracture

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

264
Q

DOC for diuretics in alcoholic liver disease

A

Spironolactone

265
Q

Appearance of tubular adenomas

A

Pedunculated; look like those cat-tail plants that used to be in your gully

266
Q

Heart Appears enlarged on right side of CXR

A

right atrial enlargemnt

267
Q

Umbilical hernia

A

Present at birth as protruding intestines covered with skin thru an incompletely closed umbilical ring

268
Q

Fluphenazine

A

1st gen typical antipsychotic with an extensive Extrapyramidal ADR profile

-Similar to haloperidol

Ex: dystonia, Akathisia, Parkinsonism

269
Q

PCR amplification requirements

A

Must know the DNA templaTe AND the flanking regions in order to make he necessary RNA primers

270
Q

Inactivated vaccines

A

Rabies, influenza (Intranasal), polio (Salk), hepatitis A

RIP Always

⭐️Only produce a humoral immunity

271
Q

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

Host antibodies against donor HLA antigens and WBCSs

-Fever, chills, headache, flushing

272
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibodies

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

273
Q

Tx. Of thiamine deficient

A

Thiamine AND glucose

⭐️Glucose alone will exacerbate the sx.

274
Q

PDGF and atherosclerosis

A

Release by activated platelets and promotes the proliferation of SMCs

275
Q

Oxalate crystals in the kidney tubules

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

-Will cause acute, toxic tubular necrosis

276
Q

coarse Facies, cold staph Abscesses, retained primary Teeth, increased IgE, Dermatologic problems

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome

-Deficiency of Th17 cells due to STAT3 mutation

277
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

A

T-cell dysnfnxn leading to chronic, non-invasicve Candida infxns

278
Q

Severe pyogenic infxns in early life, opportunistic infxns, increased IgM

A

Hyper-IgM syndrome; usually due to defective CD40L on T-cells

**XLR

279
Q

p-glycoprotein

A

Protein cancer cells use to pump out chemotherapeutic agents

***Classically seen in adrenal cell carcinoma

-Also called MDR1

280
Q

Cachexia mediators

A

TNF-a (primary) and also IL-1, IL-6, and IFN-y

281
Q

c-kit mutation

A

Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

282
Q

p16 TSG

A

Assoc. w/ Melanoma

283
Q

PTEN TSG mutation

A

Breast, prostate, and endometrial cancer

“Cowden Syndrome”- affects gender specifics

284
Q

CA 19-9 tumor marker

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

285
Q

DPC4 tumor suppressor gene

A

Deleted in Pancreatic Cancer

-Assoc. w/ SMAD4?

286
Q

Cancers w/ Psammoma bodies

A

Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
Meningioma
Mesothelioma

287
Q

a-intercalated cells

A

Cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct that secrete H+ in response to aldosterone

(It’s effects on sodium reabsorption happen on the principal cells)

288
Q

Patient w/ fever, jaw pain, a tender thyroid, and increased ESR

A

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

  • Commonly caused by mumps or Coxsackie
  • Self-limited
289
Q

Pramlinitide

A

Amylin analog that slows gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon release

-Helps to regulate post-prandial glucose levels

290
Q

Signs of irreversible cell damage

A

Nuclear pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karolysis

Membrane damage (not just blebbing)

Lysosomal rupture

Mitochondrial vacuolization

291
Q

Dystrophic Calcification

A

Ca2+ deposition in damaged, native tissues

-Seen w/ aortic stenosis, TB, fat necrosis, thrombi, Monckeberg arteriolosclerosis, others too

***Pts. are NORMOCALCEMIC

292
Q

Metastatic calcification

A

Diffuse deposition of Ca2+ in normal tissue secondary to HYPERCALCEMIA

-Predominantly in the interstitial tissues of the kidney, the lung, and the gastric mucosa

293
Q

Where does extravasation of PMNs occur?

A

Postcapillary venules

294
Q

PDGF

A

Secreted by platelets and macros

Induces vascular remodeling and smooth muscle cell migration

Stimulates fibroblast growth for collagen synthesis

295
Q

FGF

A

Stimulates angiogenesis

296
Q

DECREASED ESR

A

Microcytosis, SCA, polycythemia

-Typically due to altered RBC being more dense and falling fast

297
Q

Transthyretin gene mutation

A

Inheritable cause of amyloidosis

-Could potentially cause nephrotic syndrome, restrictive cardiomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly

298
Q

What is the physiology behind lipofuscin?

A

Oxidized and polymerized organelle membranes

299
Q

Dialysis-related amyloidosis

A

Composed of B2-microglobulin; may present as carpal tunnel syndrome?

300
Q

Foramen rotundum

301
Q

Foramen ovale

302
Q

NRTI used in pregnancy to decrease vertical transmission

A

Zidovudine; can cause aplastic anemia tho

303
Q

Foramen rotundum

304
Q

Foramen ovale

305
Q

NRTI used in pregnancy to decrease vertical transmission

A

Zidovudine; can cause aplastic anemia tho as well as peripheral neuropathy and the usual lipodystrophy and lactic acidosis

306
Q

Trapezoid body

A

Body located in the pons that contains decussating cochlear fibers to the CONTRALATERAL superior olivary ️Nucleus

307
Q

COWS

A

Cold Opposite Warm Same

Cold water irrigation moves the eyes towards the opposite side (BUT THE SAME SIDE OF THE IRRIGATION FUCK I DUNNO WHY)

-If only one eye movers ➡️MLF lesion

No eyes move? ➡️ Brainstem lesion

308
Q

Simepravir

A

HCV protease inhibitor; can cause Photosensitivity

309
Q

Sofosbuvir

A

HCV RNA-dependent RNA polymerase inhibitor; can cause flu-like symptoms

310
Q

Ribavirin

A

️Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase in HCV; can cause hemolytic anemia and is a Teratogen in pregnant women

311
Q

Chronic GERD with new odynophagia

A

Ulceration

312
Q

Mossy fibers

A

Afferent excitatory fibers of the Spinocerebellar tracts

313
Q

Climbing fibers

A

Afferent Excitatory fibers of the olivocerebellar tracts

314
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

Contain inhibitory output of the cerebellar cortex to vestibular nuclei

315
Q

Dentate ️Nucleus

A

Major effector Nucleus of the cerebellum giving rise to the dent opthalamic tract projecting to the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

316
Q

Spinocerebellar ataxia

A

Genetic disease charger iced by progressive loss of coordination of gait and hand movement, personality change, and some loss of mental fnxn

-A lot like Alzhemers with more significant cerebellar sx.

317
Q

Sources of input to the Neostriatum

A
  1. Neocortex
  2. SN
  3. Thalamus
318
Q

Efferents pathways of the striatum

319
Q

Sydenham’s chorea

A

️Occurs after viral illness

320
Q

Random flinging of an extremity

A

Vascular lesion of the CONTRALATERAL subthalamic ️Nucleus

-Hemiballismus

321
Q

U-wave

A

Hypokalemia

322
Q

Destruction of the inferior parietal lobe of the nondominant hemisphere

A

Hemineglect

-Topographical memory loss, anosognosia, construction apraxia, sensory neglect, contralateral hemianopia

323
Q

Raphe nuclei

A

Serotonin containing nuclei of the Brainstem

324
Q

Ideational apraxia

A

Inability to demonstrate the use of objects (pt. cant perform multistep task)

-Any apraxia is the inability to perform motor fnxns in the presence of intact motor sensory systems and normal comprehension (represents a defect in association pathways)

325
Q

Non-dominant hemisphere dysprosody

A

Non-dominant Broca’s =» pts. can’t express emotion in speech

Non-dominant Wernicke’s =» pts. can’t understand emotion in speech

326
Q

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

A

Contains nuclei for the sphincter muscle of the iris and the ciliary muscle (parasympathetics)

-Axons ride on CN III

327
Q

Nerves that exit at the cerebellopontine angle

A

VII and VIII

328
Q

Anosognosia

A

Denial of illness

329
Q

Slow acetylator

A

Drug-induced lupus

330
Q

MCC of nosebleed

A

Bleed in Kiesselbachs plexus in anterior segment of nose

-Less commonly due to Sphenopalatine bleed in posterior segment; can be severe and life-threatening here

331
Q

Wheezing on auscultation

A

Increased mucus secretions

-Likely bronchitis or asthma assoc.

332
Q

Eggshell calcification

A

Silicosis

-impaired phagolysosome formation increases TB susceptibility

333
Q

Only pneumoconiosis that affects the lower lungs

334
Q

RFs of NRDS

A

Prematurity

Maternal diabetes

C-section

335
Q

Increased tactile fremitus

A

Pulmonary edema, lobar pneumonia

-Indicates decreased distance b/w the chest wall and lung

336
Q

Genetic Reassortment

A

Host cell is infected w/ 2 segmented viruses that exchange whole genome segments

*Causes antigenic SHIFT

337
Q

Genetic recombination

A

Exchange of genes b/w two chromosomes of two viruses via crossing over

*Causes antigenic DRIFT

338
Q

Indicator of alveolar ventilation rate

A

PaCO2

  • If this is decreased, there is an INCREASED ventilation rate
  • Can be brought on by chronic, decreased PaO2
339
Q

Eruptive xanthomas, hepatosplenomegaly, acute pancreatitis

A

Familial Hyperchylomicronemia

-Deficiency of LPL; causes a milky white blood

340
Q

Restless Leg Syndrome tx.

A

Pramiprexole

-Dopamine agonist

341
Q

Urinary Urgency

A

Detrusor overactivity

342
Q

Stress incontinence

A

External urethral sphincter dysfnxn

-More common in women w/ lots of babies

343
Q

Drugs that decrease HF mortality

A

BB

-Also ACEIs, ARBs, and eplerenone

344
Q

Furosemide ADRs

A 
Ototoxicity
Hypokalemia 
Dehydration
Allergy (sulfa) 
Nephritis 
Gout
345
Q

Drug given w/ Niacin to decrease flushing

A

Aspirin; flushing is due to increased prostaglandins from Niacin

346
Q

a-galactosidase A deficiency

A

Fabry Disease

-XLR

347
Q

Fanconi Anemia

A

Aplastic anemia due to defective DNA repair

Clinical: MR
Aplastic anemia (increased bleeding, infxns, anemia)
**Absent thumbs
Hypoplastic kidneys
Cafe-au-lait or hyperpigmentation

348
Q

Horseshoe kidney complications

A

Difficult surgeries due to multiple anomalous origins of the renal arteries

349
Q

Rotator Cuff Muscles

A

Supraspinatus: Initial abduction of arm; assessed by empty beer can test
-Innervated by suprascapular n.

Infraspinatus: Laterally rotates arm; common pitching injury
-Suprascapular n.

Teres minor: Adducts and laterally rotates arm
-Suprascapular n.

Subscapularis: Medially rotates and adducts arm
-Subscapular n.

350
Q

Fetal Occult Tests

A

Specific, but not sensitive

WAA-WAA-WEE-WAA

351
Q

Pseudofolliculitis barbae

A

Razor burn lol

-Itches and burns ya know; found around facial hair distribution

352
Q

Reyes Syndrome CNS damage

A

Damage occurs due to cerebral edema; this is induced by the hyperammonemia

353
Q

TNM

A

Tumor=size

N=lymph node involvement

M= metastases

-Note that BM invasion is not included in this criteria so a low-grade tumor can still be locally invasive

354
Q

Kallikrein activation

A

Requires a good intrinsic pathway to be activated

355
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

A

*AD

Defective production of proteins involved in the structure and function of peripheral nerves and the MYELIN SHEATH

Assoc. w/ scoliosis and foot deformities along with peripheral neuropathy

356
Q

mRNA translation

A

Can be repeatedly translated;

1mRNA does NOT equal one protein lol

357
Q

Chronic morphine administration

A

Buildup of active metabolites can occur =» respiratory depression

-Even more serious w/ renal failure

358
Q

First action if a drug seeker is in the office

A

Obtain a list of their previously prescribed meds

359
Q

Cross-sectional study

A

Data collected from a group of people to assess the PREVALENCE of a disease at a particular point in time

-Asks, “What is happening?”

360
Q

Case-control study

A

Compares a group of people without a disease to a group of people with disease; looks for a prior exposure or risk factor

-Asks, “What happened?”

361
Q

Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

*AD

Defect in proteins interacting w/ RBC membrane (ankyrin, spectrin)

  • Small, round RBCs w/ increased MCHC and RDW that are removed by the spleen producing ANEMIA
  • Aplastic crises w/ parvovirus B19
362
Q

Site of action of potassium sparing diuretics

A

Late DCT and the CDSs

363
Q

Intrinsic pacemaker of the heart

364
Q

Complication of osmotic diuretic therapy

A

Pulmonary edema; rapid redistribution in ECV can lead to momentary increased hydrostatic pressure

-Drug is normally given to manage ICP

365
Q

Decerebrate posturing

A

Loss of signaling to upper limb flexors so pt. Will be stiff and extended

-Due to damage below the pons, usually at the red Nucleus

366
Q

Decorticate posturing

A

Excess activation of the upper limb flexors

-️Occurs due to damage above the pons

367
Q

Ruxolitinib

A

JAK-kinase inhibitor used to Tx. Primary Myelofibrosis, polycythemia Vera

368
Q

Cholestyramine

A

Binds to bile acids in the GI tract =» increased endogenous synthesis and increased LDL uptake

ADRs: Diarrhea
**Hypertriglyceridemia

369
Q

MCC of glomerular nephritis

A

Berger Disease

Presents as painless hematuria 5-7 days post respiratory or GI infxn

Histo: Mesangial proliferation
IgA deposition

370
Q

Cryoglobulins

A

Cold, precipitable IgGs sometimes assoc. w/ HCV

371
Q

Sudden, severe headache w/ no other focal neurologic deficits

A

SAH

-CT shows some diffuse enhancements surrounding the ACA area

372
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

Pearly mass in the middle ear typically secondary to infxn/trauma

***Composed of squamous cell debris

Clinical: Otorrhea
Conductive Hearing Loss
Loss of taste

373
Q

Ecological Study

A

Utilizes population data on a given data set/characteristic and a given outcome

374
Q

Obesity-hypoventilation syndrome

A

Overweight pts. w/ chronic fatigue, decreased mental fnxn, and dyspnea

  • Also have increased PaCO2 and decreased PaO2
  • Normal A-a gradient tho due to decrease in BOTH PAO2 and PaO2
375
Q

Broad-based budding yeast

A

Blastomyces dermatidis

376
Q

Pseudohyphae w/ blastoconidia

A

Candida albicans

377
Q

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

A

AI destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts

Clinical: Generalized pruritus
              Hepatosplenomegaly 
              Xanthoma 
              Jaundice (if severe)
             ***Coexistance of other AI disease

Labs: Increased ALP and GGT
anti-mitochondrial abs

378
Q

Old person w/ myopia that gradually improves

A

Presbyopia can actually fix myopia

379
Q

Microcalcifications on mammography

380
Q

HF problems

A

Decreased CO =» increased sympathetic output causing…

  • Increased fluid retention (B1)
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Deleterious cardiac remodeling (due to increase stress on heart)
381
Q

V-shaped, septate branches found in IC or Cancer pt.

A

Invasive aspergillosis

Clinical: Fever
Pleuritic chest pain
Hemoptysis
Hematogenous spread

382
Q

MCCoD in TCA OD

A

Cardiac arrhythmia

  • This is due to inhibition of the fast Na+ channels
  • Who the fuck knew?
  • Tx w/ NaHCO3
383
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macros

A

HF cells

-remember, these will stain w/ Prussian blue

384
Q

Global Payment

A

Insurer pays a single-payment to cover all expenses assoc. w/ a single incident of care

-Done w/ elective surgery (will also cover pre- and post-op care)

385
Q

Capitation

A

Payment of a fixed, pre-determined fee per month

  • Idea behind HMOs
  • Motivates both sides to decrease the cost of care
386
Q

Point-of-service plans

A

Requires a patient to see a PCP to obtain a referral for specialist care

-Pts. can go outside the network but at an increased cost

387
Q

Pulmonary abscess

A

Produced by lysosome release from PMNs and macros that eventually damages the lung parenchyma making a walled-off infxn

388
Q

Changes in MVP murmur

A

Increased LV volume =» decreased murmur sound

*squatting and raising legs

389
Q

Only scenario in which monotherapy for TB is ok

A

Patient has a (+) PPD BUT HAS NO SYMPTOMS

390
Q

Kallikrein

A

Converts kininogen =» bradykinin

-Upregulated by the intrinsic pathway

391
Q

Type II Crigler-Najjar syndrome

A

Less severe and responds to phenobarbital

392
Q

Murphy sign

A

Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation due to pain

-Classic with cholecystitis

393
Q

Macula densa

A

Responds to increased blood flow to the kidney with constrictions to the Afferent arteriole

  • Located in the DCT
  • is a local regulatory response
394
Q

Stepwise decrease in cognitive fnxn and memory over time, focal neurologic signs

A

Vascular dementia

  • Often have chronic hypertension in the history
  • Symptoms typically cannot be localized to a single area
395
Q

Corneal transplants

A

Possible vCJD

  • Pts. Present with rapid cognitive deterioration (within a couple months), myoclonus, and involuntary jerking
  • May see abnormal EEG pattern
396
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Modified smooth muscle cells that secrete renin

-Long term renal artery stenosis ➡️ hyperplasia

397
Q

Woman who has had many pregnancies and now has stress incontinence

A

Damaged levator ani muscles

-Do pelvic floor exercises (Kegel)

398
Q

DNA hypersensitivity to IONIZING radiation

A

Ataxia-telangectasia

399
Q

Cerebral Amyloid Angiopathy

A

B-amyloid deposition in the cerebral small and medium arteries leading to weakened walls and potential RUPTURE

**MCCo LOBAR HEMORRHAGE

***COMMONLY AFFECTS PARIETAL AND OCCIPITAL LOBES producing focal deficits

-CT shows many hemorrhages that are old usually

400
Q

Areas affected by Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms

A

Deep brain nuclei (thalamus, globus pallidus, putamen)

401
Q

a-ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

-Pts. present w/ seizure, hypotonia, poor feeding

TX: THIAMINE and avoid branched AAs

402
Q

Peripheral iodothyronine deaminase inhibitors

A

BBs AND PROPYLTHIOURACIL

403
Q

HF drugs

A

BBs, ACEIs, ARBs, and Spironolactone

-ALL OF THESE WORK BY DECREASING ALDOSTERONES DELETERIOUS EFFECTS ON THE HEART

404
Q

Vimentin (+) tumor

405
Q

Right Ventricular MI

A

Occlusion of the RCA; ST elevation in inferior leads

  • Increased CVP, normal PCWP, decreased CO
  • Presents w/ JVD, hypotension, and clear breath sounds (opposed to LV failure)
406
Q

A-fib effects on LVEDV

A

Decreases it; this is especially important in pts. w/ HCM

Can =» pulmonary edema

407
Q

Watershed areas of colon

A

Splenic flexure and rectosigmoid jnxn

-Ischemia presents as necrosis w/ bloody diarrhea

408
Q

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

A

Characterized by TRANSMURAL inflammation of the aortic wall

=»Degradation of collagen and elastin =» expansion of aortic wall

409
Q

ESRD + Excessive Bleeding = ?

A

Uremic platelet dysfnxn

-All labs normal except for bleeding time

410
Q

Splenic Red pulp

A

Contains reticuloendothelial cells that remove damaged RBCs

-Hyperplastic in PK deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis,

411
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum prophylactic drug in HIV pts.

A

Itraconazole

412
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve origin

A

CN X

-Remember what this CN innervates

413
Q

Tonsil sensory innervation

A

CN IX

-Also provides sensory to eustachian tube, posterior pharynx, tympanic membrane, carotid body and sinus

414
Q

3 year old development

A

Talks in 3 word sentences, climbs stairs, rides tricycles, knows gender, and CAN DRAW FUCKING CIRCLES ALL OVER THE GODDAMN PLACE

415
Q

Increased urinary cAMP

A

Sign of increased PTH fnxn on the kidney

416
Q

Finger Drop

A

Damage to the radial nerve as it passes thru the supinator canal

  • Sensory is intact
  • Due to excessive twisting motions of the hand (like using a screwdriver)
417
Q

WATERY diarrhea after being treated w/ antibiotics

A

C. diff

-Is watery because this bacteria IS NOT INVASIVE

418
Q

Filgastrim

419
Q

Diarrhea in diabetics

A

Occurs due to motility issues of the GI tract

420
Q

Abscess formation type of inflammation

A

Liquefactive necrosis

421
Q

Pinealomas

A

Present w/ a Parinaud Syndrome AND usually some signs of cerebral aqueduct obstruction

-possibly some signs of progressive clumsiness as well

422
Q

AV malformations of vessels to mucosal surfaces; digital clubbing

A

Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangectasia

423
Q

Clinical Trials

A

Pts. given a treatment and examined for RECURRENCE of symptoms

-Also done with surgeries

424
Q

ATRA

A

Used to tx. APML

Acetylates histones to allow transcription to progress and leukocytes to mature

425
Q

Solar elastosis

A

“Photo aging”

  • Increased cross-linking of existing collagen fibers => contracting of the dermis
  • Also decreased production of new fibers
426
Q

Natural misoprostol

A

PGE1 that is produced in response to damage or inflammation

-With premature rupture of the amniotic membrane, this PGE1 can produce contractions and bleeding

427
Q

Spermatocytes

A

The adult germ cells that undergo meiosis

-Spermatogonia under mitosis

428
Q

Petrolatum

A

Petroleum jelly; simply fnxns as a barrier to keep moisture in

429
Q

Ascending paralysis, weakness, loss of proprioception

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

-Notice how all the major tracts are affected

430
Q

Km and affinity

A

INVERSELY RELATED

431
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure =» decreased PO43 secretion

-This PO4 binds to free Ca2+ and stimulates the release of PTH

Labs: Increased PTH
Decreased Ca2+
Increased PO43-
Increased AP

432
Q

Tendon damaged in mallet finger

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

433
Q

Transient hyperthyroidism, tender to the touch, may be after a viral illness

A

Subacute Granulomatous Thyroiditis

434
Q

Pt. who has steadily decreasing platelet numbers after being treated for a DVT

A

HIT

-Antibodies are against platelet factor 4; causes thrombosis and thrombocytopenia

**ALWAYS CONSIDER THIS A FEW DAYS AFTER ADMINISTRATION

-In pts. prone to this, use argatroban

435
Q

Urothelial carcinoma

A

RFs: Smoking, azo dyes, phenacetin, cyclophosphamide, naphthylamine

  • Presents as painless hematuria
  • Can be flat (assoc. w/ p53) or papillary (potentially invasive)
  • Often multifocal and recur
436
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A

Arises in background of metaplasia and is assoc. w/ chronic cystitis, Schistosoma haematobium, and long-standing nephrolithiasis

437
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the bladder

A

Arises from a urachal remnant (originally connected fetal bladder to the yolk sac), cystitis glandularis (chronic infxns), or exystrophy

438
Q

Hydronephrosis, flank tenderness, colicky pain radiating to the groin, hematuria

A

Kidney stone signs

439
Q

Prasugrel, Ticlopidine

A

Clopidogrel like drugs

-️Inhibits ADP induced expression of GPIIb/IIIa

440
Q

Cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Damage of the ulnar nerve as it crosses from the arm into the forearm posterior to the medial epicondyle

441
Q

Guyons canal syndrome or ulnar tunnel syndrome

A

Prolonged pressure on the ulnar aspect of the palmar surface of the hand

-Classic in cyclists

442
Q

Baby with flaccid paralysis of the legs, urinary incontinence, and dorsiflexion of the feet

A

Causal regression syndrome

-Agenesis of the sacrum; assoc. With maternal diabetes

443
Q

Pt. With diarrhea and a decreased stool ph

A

Lactase deficiency

444
Q

Sideroblastic anemia treatment

A

Vitamin B6

445
Q

Child with megaloblastic anemia signs, failure to thrive, and developmental delay

A

Orotic aciduria

-Possibly due to defect in UMP synthase
➡️⬇️ de novo Pyrimidine synthesis

Tx: Uridine

446
Q

RBC macrocytic is without hypersegmented PMNs

A

Nonmegaloblasric macrocytic anemia

-Caused by alcoholism, liver disease, hypothyroidism

447
Q

Ferroportin

A

️Enzyme that transports intestinally absorbed iron into the blood

448
Q

Sucrose test

A

Screens for PNH

-Lysed cells secrete procoagulant factors producing thromboses of small Vasculature

449
Q

Signs of intravascular hemolysis

A

Back pain, fatigue

Hemoglobinemia

Hemoglobinuria

Hemosiderinuria

Decrease haptoglobin

Increased LDH

450
Q

WARM AIHA

A

IgG mediated; assoc. With SLE, CLL, penicillin, and cephalosporins

a-methyldopa can cause formation of AI abs to RBCs as well

-Presents with signs of intravascular hemolysis

Tx: Remove drugs, steroids, IVIG, splenectomy

451
Q

PNH Tx.

A

Eculizumab

-C5 inhibitor

452
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiencies

A

Decreased ATP ➡️Decreased RBC membrane stability

-Presents as hemolysis in a newborn

453
Q

Painful abdomen

Polyneuropathy

Psychological disturbances

Port-one urine

Precipitated by drugs (CYP inducers)

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

Decreased porphobilinogen deaminase

Tx: ️Glucose and heme

454
Q

MCC bleeding disorder

A

VonWillebrands; because it’s AD

455
Q

Non-infectious blood transfusion risks

A

Hyperkalemia

Hypocalcemia

Iron overload

456
Q

Rat poison

A

Super Warfarin

-Pt needs plasma

457
Q

MC site of fetal urethral obstruction

A

Uretopelvic junction

458
Q

Intrinsic tyrosine kinase hormones

A

Insulin and hormones ending in “GF”

459
Q

Phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase

A

Increased activity with insulin

May take part in dephosphorylation of glycogen and FA synthase

460
Q

Exemestane, Anastrazole

A

Aromatase inhibitors used in postmenopausal women w/ E2 (+) breast cancer

461
Q

Raloxifen

A

Estrogen antagonist at the breast and uterus

-Agonist at the bone so it’s sometimes used for osteoporosis

462
Q

COX-2 location

A

Endothelial cells

-Therefore, celecoxib doesn’t have an effect on platelets at all

463
Q

Medical Tx. of Gallstones

A

Bile acid supplementation

=» Increased solubility of cholesterol

464
Q

MCC of Ca2+ stones in a health male

A

Idiopathic hypercalciuria

465
Q

Pt. w/ onset of gross hematuria w/ small blood clots and colicky flank pain

A

Renal papillary necrosis

Causes: SCD
Analgesics (vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles)
Diabetes
Pyelonephritis

466
Q

Location of Phenylethandmine-N-methyltransferase

A

Only in the adrenal medullas

  • Converts NER =» ER
  • Is upregulated by ACTH and Cortisol
467
Q

Acid a-glucosidase def.

468
Q

Trisomy 13

A

Patau Syndrome

Clinical: Holoprosencephaly 
              Omphalocele 
              Micropthalmia 
             Cleft lip and palate 
             Polydactyl 
             Cutis aplasi (skin defect on scalp)
469
Q

Trisomy 18

A

Edward’s Syndrome

Clinical: Low set ears 
              Clenched fist 
              Rocker bottom feet 
              Micrognathia 
              Heart defects 
              Prominent occiput 
              Renal defects
470
Q

Glial Scar

A

Formed 2 weeks after cortical infarct by astrocytic fibers

471
Q

Preeclampsia

A

Gestational HTN (>140/>90) and PROTEINURIA

-May also see some end organ damage

Path: Abnormal placental vasculature =» Release of inflammatory mediators that damage maternal vessels

472
Q

Pt. who is inducing damage to themselves or falsifying lab results w/o any obvious external gain

A

Factitious disorder

473
Q

Drug used in acyclovir-(R) HSV or IC CMV retinitis

A

Cidofovir

Foscarnet

474
Q

Male gynecomastia tx.

475
Q

Pt. w/ fever, RUQ pain, jaundice, pruritis, dark urine, and pale stools w/ a history of travel to 3rd world

A

HAV

Histo: Ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes
Councilman bodies
Mononuclear infiltrate

476
Q

Newborn w/ malabsorption signs and histo of lipids in enterocytes

A

Abetalipoproteinemia; LOF in MTP gene =» no production of Apo B48 or B100

Clinical: Fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies
Decreased TGLs, Cholesterol, VLDL, Chylomicrons

477
Q

2nd line drug for CAD

A

Clopidogrel

Usually used if pt. has aspirin-intolerant asthma

478
Q

Vitamin B6 rxns and deficiency

A

Transamination (ALT and AST)
Decarboxylation
Glycogen phosphorylase

Synthesizes heme, Niacin, ER, NER, GABA

Deficiencies =» Peripheral neuropathy, convulsions, sideroblastic anemia

479
Q

High fever in a smoker w/ diarrhea, cough, confusion

A

Legionella

-Often have hyponatremia as well

480
Q

Imperforate hymen

A

Obstructive lesion caused by incomplete degeneration of tissue in the vagina that collected from maternal secretions during childbirth

=» Primary amenorrhea

Clinical: Bulging vaginal mass
Normal secondary sex characteristics

481
Q

Tx. of recurrent C. diff infxns

A

Fidxomicin

Macrocyclic antibiotic that inhibits RNA polymerase

*Minimal effect on normal flora; high sustained cure rate

482
Q

Chronic lymphedema after a radical mastectomy

A

Propensity to develop lymphandiosarcoma OR Cutaneous angiosarcoma (probs this one)

483
Q

Normal heart aging

A

Decreased LV chamber size

Sigmoid shape of the IVC =» impaired outflow

Increased collagen (after muscular atrophy)

Lipofuscin

484
Q

R-CHOP

A

Treats diffuse large b-cell lymphoma very successfully

MC type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults

485
Q

Pseudo-Pelger Huet anomaly

A

PMNs nuclei look like ray bands

-Seem after chemotherapy

486
Q

Ashermann syndrome

A

Secondary amenorrhea due to loss of basalis and scarring

⭐️Due to over aggressive dilation and curettage

487
Q

Woman with dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and retro verged uterus

A

Endometriosis

Inflammation around the ectopic tissue can result in adhesions involving the uterosacral ligament pulling the uterus back

⭐️ Remember, it doesn’t have to present this way

Rf: Nulliparity, early menarche, prolonged menses

488
Q

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo

A

Enlargement of the ventricles due to neuronal volume

Occurs with AIDS dementia; CSF pressure remains normal

489
Q

Young, obese woman with headache, Papilledema, and visual abnormalities with no abnormal labs, scans, or illnesses

A

Pseudotumor cerebri = Idiopathic intracranial HTN

“Pseudohypertension”

490
Q

HIV dementia

A

Subcortical inflammation involving excess infiltration of the HIV infected macros producing

MICROGLIAL NODULES AND MULTINUCLEATED CELLS

491
Q

Determining metabolic alkalosis cause

A

Decreased urine [Cl-] ➡️ Vomiting, diuretics

Increased urine [Cl-] ➡️ Hypovolemic = Diuretics, Bartter’s, Gitelman’s

                              ➡️ Hypervolemic = Hyperaldosteronism, Cushing's
492
Q

Part lacking neurons in Hirschsprung’s

A

The narrow part (usually the rectum) yah dingus

493
Q

Child with increased head size, developmental delay, cerebellar dysfnxn, hydrocephalus

A

Dandy-Walker

Agenesis of the cerebellar vermis and foramen of Luschka and Magendie

494
Q

Erythema multiforme associations

A

HSV, Mycoplasma

Sulfonamides

Malignancy

-Due to excess CD8 response

STEP (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions