Kaplan Biochem Flashcards

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1
Q

in alpha amino acids, both the … and … groups are bound to the alpha carbon

A

amino; carboxyl

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2
Q

not all amino acids have to have the amino and carboxyl groups .. –> GABA has the amino group on the gamma C

A

on the same C

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3
Q

… amino acids: the 20 alpha amino acids encoded by DNA

A

proteinogenic

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4
Q

only nonchiral/non-optically active amino acid: …

A

glycine

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5
Q

all chiral amino acids used in eukaryotes are … amino acids
all except cysteine have … configuration
cysteine is ..

A

L
S
R

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6
Q
nonpolar, nonaromatic aas: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... --> cyclic, conformationally strained
A
glycine
alanine
valine
leucine
isoleucine
methionine
proline
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7
Q

aromatic aas:


… —> polar

A

phenylalanine
tryptophan
tyrosine

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8
Q
polar aas: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... - has thiol that can participate in ... bonds
A
serine
glutamine
asparagine
threonine
cysteine; disulfide
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9
Q

in cysteine, sulfur is larger and less electronegative than O –> leaves Cys susceptible to …

A

oxidation

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10
Q

amide groups for Gln and Asn do not … – amides are relatively …

A

become charged; neutral

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11
Q

acidic aas:


the negative charges on the anion forms of these aas form at … (…) –> these are the only 2 amino acids that have … on the side chains at physiological pH

A

aspartic acid
glutamic acid
physiological pH; 7.4; negative charges

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12
Q

basic aas:


A

lysine
histidine
arginine

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13
Q

pKa of histidine imidazole group is close to ….; at physiological pH, one N from the imidazole is … and the other is not

A

physiological pH; protonated

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14
Q

all aas with … are hydrophilic –> more likely to be found on protein surface
… and … are also hydrophilic

A

charged side chains (acidic and basic aas)

asparagine; glutamine

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15
Q

all nonpolar aas are … the rest have both … and …

A

hydrophobic; hydrophobic and hydrophilic character

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16
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations)

alanine

A

ala, A

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17
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) arginine

A

Arg, R

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18
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) asparagine

A

Asn, N

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19
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) aspartic acid

A

Asp, D

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20
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Cysteine

A

Cys, C

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21
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) glutamic acid

A

Glu, E

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22
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) glutamine

A

Gln, Q

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23
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) glycine

A

Gly, G

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24
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Histidine

A

His, H

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25
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Isoleucine

A

Ile, I

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26
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) leucine

A

Leu, L

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27
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Lysine

A

Lys, K

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28
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Methionine

A

Met, M

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29
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Phenylalanine

A

Phe, F

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30
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Proline

A

Pro, P

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31
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Serine

A

Ser, S

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32
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Threonine

A

Thr, T

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33
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Tryptophan

A

Trp, W

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34
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Tryosine

A

Tyr, Y

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35
Q

(three and one letter abbreviations) Valine

A

Val, V

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36
Q

amino acids are …: they have both basic (amino) and acidic (carboxylic) groups that makes them able to either accept/donate a proton

A

amphoteric

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37
Q

in general: at low pH, ionizable groups tend to be …

at high pH, ionizable groups tend to be …

A

protonated; deprotonated

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38
Q

pKa is the point at which the concentration of the protonated and deprotonated species are … –> …

A

equal; [HA] = [A-]

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39
Q

pH most groups will be …

pH > pKa –> most groups will be …

A

protonated

deprotonated

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40
Q

all aas have at least … pKas bc they have 2 groups that can be protonated/deprotonated (amino and carboxyl)
pKa for carboxyl group is around …
pKa for amino group is around …

A

2
2
9-10

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41
Q

at physiological pH, the carboxyl group will be … and the amino group will be …

A

deprotonated; protonated

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42
Q

…: has both positive and negative charge but is electrically neutral as a whole –> … ions
exist in water as …

A

zwitterion; dipolar; internal salts

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43
Q

…: pH at which the molecule is electrically neutral
average of the … values
aas with acidic side chains have relatively … isoelectric points and those with basic side chains have relatively … isoelectric points

A

isoelectric point
two nearest pKa values
low; high

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44
Q

…: small peptides, up to 20 residues

A

oligopeptides

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45
Q

peptide bond formation occurs as a …/… reaction
has partial … character due to … which restricts its ability to rotate
by convention, peptides are drawn with … to the left and … to the right and are read from left to right

A

condensation; dehydration; double bond; resonance; N-terminus; C-terminus

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46
Q

hydrolysis of peptide bonds in living organisms is …

e.g. trypsin and chymotrypsin –> cleave at specific peptides

A

enzymatically catalyzed

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47
Q

the secondary, tertiary, and quarternary structures a protein adopts is that which is most … in a given environment

A

energetically favorable

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48
Q

primary sequence of a protein can be determined by … – most easily done by … from which the protein derives

A

sequencing; sequencing the DNA

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49
Q

…: peptide chain coils clockwise around central axis –> …

A

alpha-helix; right-handed

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50
Q

alpha helix
stabilized by … between carbonyl oxygen and amide H … residues away
side chains point … helix core
significant secondary structure of …

A

intramolecular H bonds
n+4
away from
keratin

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51
Q

…: either antiparallel or parallel

A

beta pleated sheets

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52
Q

beta sheets stabilized by both … and … H-bonds

A

intramolecular; intermolecular

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53
Q

due to its cyclic nature, proline would introduce a … in the peptide chains when in the middle of alpha helices or beta sheets
only in alpha helices for something that will ..
Tends to be found at the … in a beta pleated sheet and at the start of an alpha helix

A

kink; cross cell membrane; turns

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54
Q

… proteins: have structures that resemble sheets or long strands
e.g. …
tend to serve … purposes

A

fibrous;
collagen
structural

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55
Q

… proteins: tend to be spherical (like a globe)
e.g. …
can be hormones, enzymes, etc. –> have more … than the other category of proteins

A

globular
myoglobin
diverse roles (other category is fibrous)

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56
Q

…: intermediate states of protein folding

A

molten globules

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57
Q

when a solute dissolves in a solvent, nearby solvent molecules form a

A

solvation layer

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58
Q

when hydrophobic substances dissolve in water, water cannot … effectively and so water molecules must arrange themselves into a more … structure to maximize H bonding –> results in an …
this is the basis for the … that largely influence protein folding

A

hydrogen bond; ordered; unfavorable decrease in entropy; hydrophobic effect

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59
Q

when hydrophilic substances dissolve in water, …

A

entropy is increased

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60
Q

quarternary structure roles:
can be more stable, by … of the protein complex
can reduce amount of … needed to … protein complex
can bring … close together
can induce … (as in hemoglobin) or … effects

A

reducing the surface area; DNA; encode; catalytic sites; cooperativity; allosteric

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61
Q

… proteins: derive part of their function from prosthetic groups

A

conjugated

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62
Q

… are permanently attached cofactors that can be organic molecules (e.g. vitamins) or metal ions – necessary for enzyme function

A

prosthetic groups

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63
Q

…: proteins with lipid prosthetic groups
…: proteins with carb prosthetic groups
…: proteins with nucleic acid prosthetic groups

A

lipoproteins
glycoproteins
nucleoproteins

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64
Q

denaturation of proteins is often irreversible

can be caused by …, …, …

A

heat; solutes; pH

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65
Q

… is the individual amino acid Cys. … is when two of them form a disulfide bond

A

cysteine; cystine

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66
Q

peptide bond is thermodynamically …., but hydrolysis doesn’t occur spontaneously in the cell because the … is too high, such that hydrolysis is …

A

unstable; activation energy; kinetically unfavorable

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67
Q

… are needed to catalyze peptide bond hydrolysis

A

enzymes

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68
Q

N amino acids –> … peptide bonds

A

n - 1

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69
Q

… angle: angle of rotation of single bond between N and alpha C
… angle: angle of ration of single bond between carboxyl C and alpha C

A

phi

psi

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70
Q

Gabriel synthesis of amino acids:

… is alkylated using base, then …, and then …. to yield amino acid

A

N-phthalimidomalonic ester;
hydrolyzed
decarboxylated

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71
Q

strecker synthesis of amino acids:
starting materials: …, …, …/…
aldehyde reacts with … to yield an … … is added to the imine to yield … which is hydrolyzed to form the alpha amino acid

A

ammonia; KCN; aldehyde; ketone

ammonia; imine; KCN; alpha-amino nitrile

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72
Q

…: catalyze redox rxns –> transfer of electrons between molecules
…: electron donor
..: electron acceptor
… or … tend to be of this class
enzymes that have oxidase in their names use … as the final electron acceptor

A
oxidoreductases 
reductant 
oxidant 
dehydrogenases; reductases
oxygen
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73
Q

dehydrogenases remove a … –> removing …

A

hydride; electrons

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74
Q

…: catalyze movement of functional groups between two molecules
…: catalyze transfer of a phosphate group

A

transferases;

kinases

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75
Q

…: catalyze breaking of a compound into two molecules by addition of water
tend to be named only for their …
…: cleaves a phosphate group from another molecule

A

hydrolases; substrate

phosphatase

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76
Q

…: catalyze cleavage of a single molecule into two products; don’t require water
synthesis of two molecules into a single molecule can also be catalyzed by a lyase –> …

A

lyases; synthases

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77
Q

…: catalyze rearrangement of bonds within a molecule

A

isomerases

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78
Q

…: catalyze addition/synthesis rxns, often require ATP

A

ligases

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79
Q

enzymes don’t alter the … for a reaction and do not change the … of a rxn. they only affect …

A

free energy change; equilibrium; rxn rates

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80
Q

… theory suggests that enzyme’s active site is already in the appropriate conformation for the substrate to bind –> no … necessary to form enzyme substrate complex

A

lock and key; conformational change

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81
Q

… model: conformational change of the enzyme is necessary for substrate binding to occur

A

induced fit

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82
Q

…/…: nonprotein molecules that bind to the active site of an enzyme and participate in catalysis

A

cofactors; coenzymes

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83
Q

…: enzymes without their cofactors

…: enzymes containing their cofactors

A

apoenzymes

holoenzymes

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84
Q

…: generally inorganic molecules/metal ions –> …

directly participate in enzymatic rxn

A

cofactors; minerals

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85
Q

…: small organic groups –> … and derivatives of these

A

coenzymes; vitamins

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86
Q

water-soluble vitamins: … and …

fat-soluble vitamins: …, …., …, …

A

B; C

A; D; E; K

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87
Q

fat-soluble vitamins regulated by … – quantify ability of a molecule to dissolve in a polar/nonpolar environment

A

partition coefficients

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88
Q

coenzymes act as a … molecule

A

carrier

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89
Q

cofactors and coenzymes tend to be … and usually carry a charge by …, …, or …
usually in …, … concs in the cells

A

small; ionization; protonation; deprotonation

low; tightly regulated

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90
Q

…: all enzymes bound to substrate

A

saturation

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91
Q

reaction rate can no longer increase once … is achieved –> enzyme working at …

A

saturation; maximum velocity

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92
Q

can only increase vmax by increasing

A

enzyme concentratio

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93
Q

… describes relationship between rate of reaction, enzyme, substrate, and product concs
equation: … or …

A

michaelis-menten

v= (v_max[S])/(K_m+[S]) or v= (k_cat[E]*[S])/(K_m+[S])

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94
Q

Km is the substrate concentration at which …. (velocity is …)

A

half of the enzyme’s active sites are full; half-maximal

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95
Q

Km is … –> lower Km = … affinity of enzyme for its substrate –> … conc of substrate required for 50% enzyme saturation
Km cannot be altered by changing …/… …

A

Michaelis constant; higher; lower; enzyme/substrate concentration

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96
Q

when [S] < Km –> rxn rate … when substrate is added

A

increases a lot

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97
Q

when [S] > Km and approaches Vmax –> rxn rate … and is … by addition of substrate

A

slows; not really affected so much

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98
Q

Vmax = …

A

[E]*kcat

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99
Q

kcat is … –> measures number of substate molecules converted to product, per enzyme molecule per second
… –> catalytic efficiency of an enzyme

A

turnover number

Kcat/Km

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100
Q
... = double reciprocal of michaelis-menten; allows for easier graphical analysis of enzyme kinetics 
X-int = ... 
Y-int = ...
A

lineweaver-burk
-1/Km
1/Vmax

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101
Q

…. michaelis-menten plot indicates cooperativity among substrate binding sites (like Hgb)

A

sigmoidal

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102
Q

enzymes have … state and … state
in …, binding of substrate to one subunit promotes … transition of the other subunits, thus increasing their … for the substrate

A

low-affinity tense; high-affinity relaxed

cooperativity; T–> R; affinity

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103
Q

enzymes showing cooperative kinetics tend to be … enzymes in pathways
cooperative enzymes subject to … and …, competitively and allosterically

A

regulatory; activation; inhibition

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104
Q

…: indicates degree of cooperativity

A

Hill’s coefficient

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105
Q

Hill’s coefficient
> 1 –> … –> affinity … in other subunits when substrate binds to one subunit
< 1 –> … –> affinity … in other subunits when substrate binds to one subunit
= 1 —> …

A

positively cooperative; affinity
negatively cooperative; decreases
no cooperativity

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106
Q

enzyme activity = enzyme … = enzyme …

A

velocity; rate

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107
Q

enzyme catalyzed rxns occur at an …
rates tend to double for every … increase until optimal is reached
optimal for human body is …

A

optimal temp
10 degree C
37 degrees C

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108
Q

optimal pH for enzymes that circulate and function in human blood is … –> …

A

physiological pH; 7.4

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109
Q

pH < 7.35 –> …

A

acidemia

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110
Q

in vitro, altering … can disrupt hydrogen and ionic bonds, changing the … of the enzyme, or … it

A

salinity; conformation; denaturing

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111
Q

…: enzyme regulation facilitated by products further down a pathway
…: more rare scenario in which intermediates that precede the enzyme regulate it
…/… –> once there is enough of a given product, we turn off the pathway that creates the product

A

feedback regulation
feed-forward regulation
feedback inhibition/negative feedback

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112
Q

…: competitive, noncompetitive, mixed, uncompetitive

A

reversible inhibition

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113
Q

… inhibition: occupancy of the active site by a competitor of the substrate
overcome by …
… is not altered, bc if enough substrate is added, it will outcompete the inhibitor and be able to run at the same one
… –> substrate conc has to be higher to reach half max velocity

A

competitive; adding more substrate
Vmax
increases apparent Km

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114
Q

…: inhibitor binds to allosteric site, inducing change in enzyme conformation
cannot be overcome by adding more substrate
bind equally well to … and …
… decreases bc there is less enzyme available to react
… stays the same bc active forms of enzyme retain same affinity for the substrate

A

noncompetitive inhibition
enzyme; enzyme-substrate complex
Vmax
Km

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115
Q

… inhibition: can bind to either enzyme/enzyme-substrate complex –> has a different affinity for each
if it were to have the same affinity, it would be a … inhibitor
bind at an …

A

mixed;
noncompetitive
allosteric site

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116
Q

mixed inhibition:
alter value of Km
if preferentially binds to enzyme-substrate complex, Km would … bc it would cause the enzyme to bind more … to the substrate
if preferentially binds the enzyme without the substrate, Km would …

A

decrease; tightly

increase

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117
Q

mixed inhibition:
Vmax is …, again bc there is less enzyme available to react
on lineweaver-burk, intersection occurs at …

A

decreased; point that is not on either axis

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118
Q
... inhibition: bind only to enzyme-substrate complex 
Km ... 
bind to ... site 
... Vmax 
shows as ... on lineweaver-burk
A
uncompetitive 
decreased
allosteric 
decreases 
parallel lines
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119
Q

…: active site made unavailable for prolonged period of time/ enzyme is permanently altered

A

irreversible inhibition

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120
Q

regulated enzymes
…: allosteric inhibitors/allosteric activators can bind to enzyme
…: can be activated/deactivated by …/…
…: covalent attachment of sugar molecules

A

allosteric enzymes
covalently modified enzymes; phosphorylation; dephosphorylation
glycosylation

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121
Q

regulated enzymes:
…: enzymes that are secreted in an inactive form; these must be activated
have .. domain and … domain
… domain must be removed/altered to expose the active site

A

zymogens; catalytic; regulatory

regulatory

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122
Q

active sites create … for the rxns that the enzyme catalyzes in that it essentially closes around the substrates, preventing interference from compounds outside of the enzyme

A

microenvironments

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123
Q

regulation of enzymes by phosphorylation is favorable for the following reasons:
creates … that can disrupt old interactions and form new ones. can modify active site to allow for better interactions with substrate

negative oxygen grants active site … properties that allows enzyme to interact with substrate in a more stabilizing way

A

net negative charge

hydrogen bonding

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124
Q

regulation of enzymes by phosphorylation is favorable for the following reasons:
the speed at which phosphorylation occurs is adjustable by the cell –> … is adjustable

… is abundant in the cell – regulation by phosphorylation occurs …, not really .. since there isn’t much ATP there

A

kinetics

ATP; intracellularly; extracellularly

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125
Q

regulation of enzymes by phosphorylation is favorable for the following reasons:
…: activated kinases can be used to regulate many rxn pathways, which can allow for amplification

A

amplification effects

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126
Q

regulation of enzymes by phosphorylation is favorable for the following reasons:
releases large amount of …
phosphorylation is reversible using …

A

free energy

phosphatases

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127
Q

catalytic efficiency is limited by the rate at which the enzyme and substrate actually … to form the …

A

come together; enzyme-substrate complex

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128
Q

non competitive inhibition … the turnover number of the enzyme

A

reduces

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129
Q

structural proteins generally have … secondary structure and a … – a repetitive organization of secondary structural elements together sometimes referred to as a motif

A

highly repetitive; supersecondary structure

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130
Q

structural proteins:
… gives it a fibrous nature
…: trihelical fiber (three left-handed helices that form an overall right-handed helix) –> makes up most of the … of connective tissue and provides … and ..

A

regularity

collagen; extracellular matrix; strength; flexibility

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131
Q

structural proteins:
…: part of extracellular matrix of connective tissue; provides stretch and recoil
…: intermediate filament in epithelial cells; contribute to mechanical integrity and function as regulatory proteins

A

elastin

keratin

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132
Q

structural proteins:
…: makes up microfilaments and thin filaments in myofibrils –> most abundant protein in eukaryotic cells
… and … side allows motor proteins to travel … along actin filament

A

actin
positive; negative
unidirectionally

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133
Q

structural proteins:
…: makes up microtubules which provide structure, chromosome separation in mitosis and meiosis, and intracellular transport with kinesin and dynein
has …: negative end of a microtubule is located adjacent to the …, positive end in … of a cell

A

tubulin

polarity; nucleus; periphery

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134
Q

… proteins: display enzymatic activity, acting as ATPases to power … change necessary for motility
interact with …/…

A

motor; conformational

actin; microtubules

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135
Q

(motor proteins) …: motor protein that interacts with actin; thick filament in myofibril; involved in cellular transport
has head and neck; neck movement contributes to …

A

myosin; sarcomere contraction

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136
Q

(motor proteins) .. and …: motor proteins associated with microtubules; have 2 heads, one of which is always attached to tubulin

A

kinesins; dyneins

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137
Q

(motor proteins) …: align chromosomes during metaphase and depolymerize microtubules during anaphase
bring vesicles toward … end of microtubule
in neurons, kinesins bring neurotransmitters toward … end –> towards …

A

kinesins
positive
positive
synaptic terminal

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138
Q

(motor proteins) …: involved in sliding movement of cilia and flagella
bring vesicles toward … end of microtubules
in neurons, bring neurotransmitters towards … end –> back toward …

A

dyneins
negative
negative
soma

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139
Q

…: transport or sequester molecules by binding to them

Hgb, calcium-binding proteins, DNA-binding proteins (transcription factors), etc

A

binding proteins

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140
Q

binding proteins contd

when sequestration of a molecule is goal, binding protein has … across a …

A

high affinity; variety of concentrations

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141
Q

binding proteins contd:
transport proteins tend to have varying affinity depending on … –> whether it needs to ../… its target to maintain a steady-state

A

environment

bind; unbind

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142
Q

…: proteins on most cell surfaces that assist in binding the cell to the extracellular matrix/other cells

A

cell adhesion molecules

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143
Q

cell adhesion molecules contd:
all … proteins
…: glycoproteins that mediate calcium-dependent cell adhesion –> different cells have …

A

integral membrane proteins
cadherins
type-specific cadherins

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144
Q

cell adhesion molecules contd:
…: group of proteins that all have two membrane-spanning chains, alpha and beta, involved in binding to and communicating with the extracellular matrix
important for …
can promote .., …, etc

A

integrins
cellular signaling
cell division; apoptosis

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145
Q

cell adhesion molecules contd:
…: bind to carbs that project from other cell surfaces –> form the weakest bonds of the cell adhesion molecules (that is, this one compared to cadherins and integrins)
important in ….

A

selectins; host defense

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146
Q

immunoglobulins:

… and … interactions hold heavy and light chains together

A

disulfide linkages; noncovalent interactions

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147
Q

…: cells receive and act on signals; take advantage of either existing gradients or second messenger cascades
proteins participate by acting as .., … for facilitated diffusion, …, and …

A
biosignaling 
extracellular ligands
transporters 
receptors 
second messengers
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148
Q

….: proteins that create specific pathways for charged molecules
allow for …

A

ion channels

facilitated diffusion

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149
Q

ion channels:
…: unregulated –> based solely on conc gradient
…: gate is regulated by the membrane potential change near the channel (e.g. nonspecific sodium-potassium channels work in sinoatrial node of heart to bring cell back to threshold when voltage drops)
..: requires the binding of a ligand to open/close the channel

A

ungated channels
voltage-gated channels
ligand-gated channels

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150
Q

ion channels contd:
kinetics of transport can be derived from …–> Km here would refer to … at which transporter is functioning at half of its maximum velocity

A

michaelis-menten

solute conc

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151
Q

…: membrane receptors that have catalytic activity when ligands bind

A

enzyme-linked receptors

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152
Q

enzyme-linked receptors:
…: anchors receptor to cell membrane
…: stimulated by ligand to induce a conformational change that activates catalytic domain

A

membrane-spanning domain

ligand-binding domain

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153
Q

enzyme-linked receptors:
binding of ligand initiates a …
…: contains monomer and when ligand binds, they dimerize and this dimer can phosphorylate other enzymes

A

second messenger cascade

receptor tyrosine kinases

154
Q

…: integral membrane proteins involved in signal transduction

A

G-protein coupled receptors

155
Q

G-protein coupled receptors:
have … membrane spanning alpha helices
use a … protein – intracellularly linked to guanine nucleotides
ligand binding … of receptor for G protein, activating the protein

A

Yeah 7
heterotrimeric G protein
increases affinity

156
Q

G-protein coupled receptors:
Gs –> stimulates …, … [cAMP]
Gi –> inhibits …., … [cAMP]

A

adenylate cyclase; increasing

adenylate cyclase; decreasing

157
Q

G-protein coupled receptors:

Gq –> activates …, which cleaves … from the membrane to form PIP2 which is cleaved into … and …

A

phospholipase C; phospholipid; DAG; IP3

158
Q

G-protein coupled receptors:

IP3 can open .. –> increases … in the cell

A

calcium channels

[Ca2+]

159
Q

G-protein coupled receptors:
G proteins have …, …, and … subunits
… subunit binds GDP in its inactive form and is complexed with the other two subunits
when a ligand binds, GDP is replaced with … and the … subunit dissociates –> this subunit …/… …

A

alpha; beta; gamma
alpha
GTP; alpha
activates/inhibits adenylate cyclase

160
Q

…: crushing, grinding, or blending tissue of interest into an evenly mixed solution

A

homogenization

161
Q

… can isolate proteins from smaller molecules before other isolation techniques are used

A

centrifugation

162
Q

both …. and … can be used for native/denatured proteins

A

electrophoresis; chromatography

163
Q

electrophoresis subjects compounds to an electric field to move them according to … and …

A

net charge; size

164
Q

…: directly proportional to electric field strength (E) and net charge on the molecule (z) and is inversely proportional to a frictional coefficient (f), that depends on mass and shape of migrating molecules

A

migration velocity

165
Q

migration velocity: v =

A

Ez/f

166
Q

…: porous gel that allows for separation based on size and charge
molecules will move fastest if they are …, … charged, or placed in a …
molecules will move slower/not at all if they are … and .., electrically …, or in a …

A

polyacrylamide gel;
small; highly; large electric field
bigger; convoluted; neutral; small electric field

167
Q

…: used for analyzing proteins in native states
limited by the fact that there are varying … and … ratios of proteins that may cause multiple proteins to experience same level of migration

A

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

mass-to-charge; mass-to-size

168
Q

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

most useful in comparing size/charge of proteins known to be …

A

similar in size

169
Q

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
SDS-PAGE:
sodium dodecyl sulfate is used to make charge for all proteins …, such that … is the differentiating factor
it disrupts … interactions

A

uniform; molecular mass

noncovalent interactions

170
Q

polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
…: separation of proteins based on isoelectric point
mix of proteins is placed in a gel with a … (acidic at …, and basic at …, … in the middle)
when proteins reach part of gel, where the pH = pI, the protein becomes …, and thus stops moving

A

isoelectric focusing
pH gradient; anode; cathode; neutral
electrostatically neutral

171
Q

… allows for isolated proteins to be immediately available for identification and quantification

A

chromatography

172
Q

chromatography:
the more similar the compound is to its surroundings, the more it will … and move … through its surroundings
preferred over electrophoresis when … are beings separated

A

stick to; slowly; large amounts of protein

173
Q

chromatography:
sample is placed on … (aka …). a … phase is run through, allowing the sample to run through (…) the stationary phase

A

solid stationary phase; adsorbent; elute

174
Q

chromatography:
if sample has high affinity for stationary phase, it …
if it has high affinity for mobile phase, it …

A

won’t move much

will move quickly

175
Q

chromatography:
… amount of time a compound spends in the stationary phase
…: separation of compounds within the stationary phase that results from varying retention times

A

retention time

partitioning

176
Q

chromatography:

common properties used for separation: …, …, …

A

charge
pore size
specific affinities

177
Q

(column chromatography) column filled with … as adsorbent

… and … determine migration velocity

A

silica/alumina beads

size; polarity

178
Q

(column chromatography) less polar the compound the … it elutes through the column
solvent drips out at the end of the column and different fractions that leave the column can be collected. these fractions contain … that differentiate them

A

faster

bands

179
Q

(column chromatography) … + … is kept and the solvent is …
can be used to separate and collect … besides proteins (e.g. nucleic acids)

A

solvent; compound of interest

macromolecules

180
Q

(ion-exchange chromatography) beads in column coated with …
after all other compounds have moved through the column, a … is used to elute the charged molecules that have stuck to the column

A

charged substance;

salt gradient

181
Q

(size-exclusion chromatography) … of various sizes are used
… get stuck in these and thus move more slowly
size of pores can be varied so that molecules of … can be fractionated
common approach in protein purification is to use an … followed by a …

A

porous beads
small compounds
different molecular weights
ion-exchange column; size-exclusion column

182
Q

(affinity chromatography)
coating beads with … that binds protein/specific antibody to the protein, such that protein is … in column
common stationary phase molecules include … (used in separation of genetically engineered proteins with histidine tags), …, …, …

A
receptor 
retained 
nickel 
antibodies
antigens 
enzyme substrate analogs
183
Q

(affinity chromatography) once protein is retained, it can be eluted by washing column with …
eluents can also have specific … or … that disrupts bonds between ligand and protein of interest
drawback: recovered substance can be …

A

free receptor
pH; salinity level
bound to the eluent

184
Q

protein structure can be determined through … and …
… more common and reliable –> measures e- density on a high resolution scale; can also be used for nucleic acid – generates … that can be used to determine structure

A

X-ray crystallography; nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy
diffraction pattern

185
Q

… can be used to determine the primary sequence of small proteins:
for sequences of up to …-… aas
selectively and sequentially removes … of the protein, which is subsequently analyzed using …

A

Edman degradation
50-70
N-terminal aa
mass spec

186
Q

… (…, …, …) can also selectively cleave proteins, creating smaller fragments that can be analyzed via Edman or electrophoresis
positions of … and .. cannot be determined by these methods since they reduce protein to primary structure

A

proteases; chymotrypsin; trypsin; cyanogen bromide

disulfide links; salt bridges

187
Q

…are determined by following the process of a known rxn, often accompanied by a …

A

activity levels for enzymatic samples; color change

188
Q

… can be used for proteins, since they have aromatic side chains
drawback: sensitive to contaminants

A

UV spec

189
Q

proteins cause … changes with certain rxns
… (BVA) assay
… reagent assay
… protein assay –> more reliable and simpler

A

colorimetric;
bicinchoninic acid
Lowry reagent
Bradford

190
Q

bradford protein assay:
mixes protein with … dye, which turns blue in presence of protein
higher protein conc = larger conc of …
samples of known protein concs are reacted with the bradford reagent to create a … that is then used to determine unknown protein concs
not very accurate when more than one proteins present

A

coomassie brilliant blue
blue dye
standard absorbance curve

191
Q

…: basic structural units of carbs

simplest monosaccharides are trioses - 3-C sugars

A

monosaccharides

192
Q

…: carbs with an aldehyde as their most oxidized functional group
…: carbs that have ketones as their most oxidized functional group

A

aldoses

ketoses

193
Q

carbonyl C in carbs is always … ( if aldehyde) or … (if ketone), because it is the most oxidized

A

C-1; C-2

194
Q

aldehyde C/ketone C can participate in … –> sugars in these linkages are …

A

glycosidic linkages; glycosyl residues

195
Q

simplest ketose: …

A

dihydroxyacetone

196
Q

…: determined by the three dimensional arrangement of the groups attached to the chiral C
enantiomers have … absolute configs

A

absolute configuration

opposite

197
Q

number of stereoisomers = …, where n is the number of chiral Cs

A

2^n

198
Q

not all carbs labeled as D have … optical rotation and not all that have L are … this is just for …
optical activity is determined …

A

+; -
glyceraldehyde
optical activity

199
Q

Fischer projections:
horizontal lines are …, vertical lines are …
in this projection, D-C have their highest numbered OH group on the … and L-carbs have their highest numbered OH group on the …

A

wedges; dashes

right; left

200
Q

…: same sugars, in different optical families –> configuration at every chiral center is switched

A

enantiomers

201
Q

…: two sugars that are in the same family, but are not identical and are not mirror images of each other –> only configurations at some chiral Cs are switched

A

diastereomers

202
Q

…: diastereomers that differ only in the configuration of one chiral C

A

epimers

203
Q

a compound can have only one …, but can have multiple ..

A

enantiomer; diastereomers

204
Q

carbs can undergo intramolecular rxns to form cyclic … and …
carbonyl C becomes chiral –> … C
…: OH on C1 is trans relative to CH2OH group
…: OH on C1 is cis relative to CH2OH group

A

hemiacetals; hemiketals
anomeric
alpha-anomer
beta-anomer

205
Q

… rings: six-membered rings

… rings: five-membered rings

A

pyranose

furanose

206
Q

…: useful for describing 3D conformation of cyclic structures
groups on the right in a Fischer projection will point … on a Haworth projection

A

Haworth projection

down

207
Q

in water, hemiacetals will cycle between the … and … forms (bc of hydrolysis of the hemiacetal and then reformation of the ring) –> this allows it to spontaneously change its conformation as … or … –> …

A

open; closed
alpha; beta;
mutarotaiton

208
Q

mutarotation can be catalyzed by …/… and leads to mixture of alpha and beta anomers at …
… anomer of glucose is more stable, so equilibrium is …% alpha and …% beta –> hydroxyl is … in eta

A
acid; base 
equilibrium concs
beta 
36; 64
equatorial
209
Q

in the open-chain forms, carbs can be …
aldehyde oxidation yields …
aldehydes are considered … bc they can be oxidized

A

oxidized
aldonic acids
reducing agents

210
Q

any monosaccharide with a hemiacetal ring is a … sugar

oxidation of aldose in ring form yields … –> cyclic ester with carbonyl group on the anomeric C – … is a lactone

A

reducing
lactone
vitamin C

211
Q

reagents that detect presence of reducing sugar –> … and …
…: silver nitrate is mixed with NaOH to produce …, which is dissolved in ammonia to produce [Ag(NH3)2]+ –> produces .. when aldehydes are present, indicating that sugar is reducing sugar
…: aldehyde group is oxidized, yielding a red precipitate of …

A
Tollen's; Benedict's 
Tollen's 
silver oxide 
silvery mirror
Benedict's
Cu2O
212
Q

… can be used to test for glucose, because it doesn’t react with other reducing sugars

A

glucose oxidase

213
Q

more reactive oxidizing agents (e.g. dilute nitric acid) will oxidize the aldehyde and the primary alcohol to ..

A

carboxylic acids

214
Q

… are also reducing agents –> can be … to form … and subsequently oxidized

A

ketose sugars; tautomerized; aldoses

215
Q

…: rearrangement of bonds in a compound, usually by moving a hydrogen and forming a double bond
…: compound with a double bond and an alcohol group

A

tautomerization

enol

216
Q

…: when aldehyde group is reduced to an alcohol

A

alditol

217
Q

…: contains a hydrogen that replaces a hydroxyl group on that sugar (e.g. deoxyribose)

A

deoxy sugar

218
Q

carbs can react with carboxylic acids and their derivates to form …

A

estes

219
Q

esterification is similar to … of carbs, wherein a phosphate ester is formed

A

phosphorylation

220
Q

hemiacetals react with alcohols to form …
the subsequent C-O bonds are … bonds and the acetals are …
This rxn is essentially how we make larger saccharides
same happens with hemiketals to form …

A

acetals
glycosidic bonds
glycosides
ketals

221
Q

glycoside formation is a … rxn, and breaking a glycosidic bond therefore requires …

A

dehydration rxn

hydrolysis

222
Q

glycosides derived from furanose rings = …

glycosides derived from pyranose rings= …

A

furanoses

pyranosides

223
Q

formation of an alpha or beta glycosidic linkage is nonspecific in that the anomeric C on one monosaccharide can react with … –> glycosidic linkages are thus described by the … of the Cs between which the bond is formed along with the … of the anomeric C

if a glycosidic bond is formed between two anomeric Cs, the … of both anomeric Cs must be in the name (e.g. alpha, alpha-1,1 linkage)

A

any of the alcohols on another monosaccharide
numbers
configuration

configuration

224
Q

important disaccharides: …, …, …

A

sucrose; lactose; maltose

225
Q

sucrose: ….
lactose: …
maltose: …

A

glucose-alpha-1,2-fructose
galactose-beta-1,4-glucose
maltose: glucose-alpha-1,4-glucose

226
Q

…: long chains of monosaccharides linked by glycosidic bonds
…: polymer of just one type of monosaccharide
…: made up of more than one type of monosaccharide

A

polysaccharides
homopolysaccharide
heteropolysaccharide

227
Q

polysaccharides:
polymer formation can be …/… since glycosidic bonding can occur at multiple OH groups
…: when an internal monosaccharide in a polymer forms at least 2 glycosidic bonds

A

linear; branched

branching

228
Q

important polysaccharides:

…: main structural component of plants, present in their cell walls

A

cellulose

229
Q

cellulose:
… –> beta-1,4 polymer of D-glucose
humans can’t digest it because we don’t have …
acts as a source of … for humans –> draws water into gut

A

homopolysaccharide
cellulase
fiber

230
Q

…: linked alpha-D-glucose monomers

A

starches

231
Q

plants store starch mostly as .. –> … linkages

A

amylose; alpha-1,4

232
Q

…: type of starch that is branched via alpha-1,6 linkages (Still has alpha-1,4 on the “main’ chain)

A

amylopectin

233
Q

starches:
… is used to test for presence of starch
enzymatically broken down to be used as ..
… cleaves amylose at nonreducing end to produce maltose
… cleaves randomly along the chain to yield shorter polysaccharide chains, maltose, glucose
… help degrade amylopectin

A
iodine 
energy source
beta-amylase
alpha-amylase 
debranching enzymes
234
Q

…: carb storage unit in animals; highly branched

A

glycogen

235
Q

glycogen:
like starch, but has more …
branching optimizes …, makes it more … as well and allows more …

A

alpha-1,6 glycosidic bonds
energy efficiency; soluble
glucose storage

236
Q

glycogen:
enzymes can work on many sites within the molecule at the same time since it’s so …
…: cleaves glucose from nonreducing end and phosphorylates it to form glucose-1-phosphate

A

highly branched

glycogen phosphorylase

237
Q

highly branched structure of amylopectin (same for glycogen) decreases … between polysaccharide polymers and increases interaction with the …, which makes it more soluble

A

intermolecular bonding; surrounding solution

238
Q

membrane lipids are … –> both hydrophobic and hydrophilic

A

amphipathic

239
Q

…: have phosphate and alcohol that comprise polar head group, joined to hydrophobic fatty acid tail by phosphodiester linkages

A

phospholipids

240
Q

phospholipids:
fatty acids are attached to a backbone to form … region
classified according to the ….
glycerol forms …/…
sphingolipids have a … backbone (not all sphingolipids are phospholipids)

A

hydrophobic tail
backbone
phosphoglycerides; glycerophospholipids
sphingosine

241
Q

fatty acid tails of phospholipids vary in degree of … and … –> these behaviors determine behavior

A

saturation; length

242
Q

…: no pi bonds, greater van der Waals forces, more stable structure –> solids
…: contains double bonds, which kink the fatty acid chain –> . liquids
… make up more fluid portions of the phospholipid bilayer

A

saturated fatty acids
unsaturated fatty acids
unsaturated phospholipids

243
Q

glycerophospholipids contain …. backbone and are bonded to a polar head group and to two fatty acid tails
named according to their … (e.g. phosphatidylcholine has a choline head group)
important to …, …, and …

A

glycerol
head group
cell recognition; signaling; binding

244
Q

the cell surface antigens on RBCs that dictate blood type are …

A

sphingolipids

245
Q

sphingolipids are involved in biological recognition at the

A

cell surface

246
Q

sphingolipids have …/… backbone

many sphingolipids are phospholipids bc they contain a … linkage, but some contain … linkages to …

A

sphingosine/sphingoid
phosphodiester
glycosidic
sugars

247
Q

…: any lipid linked to a sugar

A

glycolipid

248
Q

…: simplest sphingolipid, has single H as head group

A

ceramide

249
Q

..: major class of sphingolipids that are also phospholipids
have either phosphatidylcholine or phosphatidylethanolamine head group
head groups have … net charge
major components in plasma membranes of cells producing … –> … and … cells

A

sphingomyelins
no
myelin; oligodendrocytes; Schwann

250
Q

…: sphingolipids with glycosidic linkages to sugars
NOT phospholipids
found on the outer surface of …

A

glycosphingolipids

plasma membrane

251
Q

glycosphingolipids:
…: glycosphingolipids with a single sugar
…: glycosphingolipids with two or more sugars
…: no net charge at physiological pH

A

cerebrosides
globosides
neutral glycolipids

252
Q

…: most complex sphingolipids
have polar head groups composed of oligosaccharides with one or more … (… acid)
have a … charge

A

gangliosides
N-acetylneuraminic acid; sialic
negative

253
Q

gangliosides are … as well

important for …, …, and …

A

glycolipids

cell interaction, recognition, and signal transduction

254
Q

…: esters of long-chain fatty acids with long-chain alcohols
function as protection:
for plants, prevent excessive … and protect against …
for animals, prevent … and act as a …

A

waxes
evaporation; parasites
dehydration; lubricant

255
Q

lipids serve as coenzymes in the … and in … rxns

A

electron transport chain; glycosylation

256
Q

lipids function as …. and …

A

hormones; intracellular messengers

257
Q

…: lipids built from isoprene moieties (C5H8), and have carbons grouped in multiples of …
strongly scented
one terpene unit contains …

A

terpenes
five
2 isoprenes

258
Q

… = two isoprene units (1 terpene unit)
… = 3 isoprene units (1.5 terpene units)
… = 4 isoprene units (2 terpene units)
… = 6 isoprene units (3 terpene units)
carotenoids are … (have 8 isoprenes, 4 terpenes)

A
monoterpenes 
sesquiterpenes
diterpenes
triterpenes
tetraterpenes
259
Q

triterpenes – can be converted to … and other …

A

cholesterol; steroids

260
Q

…: derivatives of terpenes that have been oxidized/rearranged
also strongly ..
named in the same way as terpenes, according to number of isoprene units

A

terpenoids

scented

261
Q

… and … are precursors that feed into various biosynthetic pathways that produce important products

A

terpenes; terpenoids

262
Q

…: metabolic derivatives of terpenes, have 4 cycloalkane rings fused together

A

steroids

263
Q

steroids have … and …

functionality is determined by … status and … present

A

3 cyclohexane; 1 cyclopentane

oxidation; functional groups

264
Q

…: steroids that act as hormones (e.g. testosterone)

A

steroid hormones

265
Q

…: steroid that mediates membrane fluidity

at low temps, … membrane fluidity
at high temps, … membrane fluidity, preventing it from becoming too permeable

A

cholesterol
amphipathic
increases
decreases

266
Q

cholesterol is precursor to some …, …, and …

A

steroid hormones; bile acids; vitaminD

267
Q

…: 20-C molecules that are unsaturated carboxylic acids derived from arachidonic acid
contain one … C ring

A

prostaglandins

5C

268
Q

prostaglandins:
…/… molecules
regulate the synthesis of …
can have effects on … function, … cycle, and … associated with fever and pain

A

paracrine/autocrine signaling
cAMP
smooth muscle; sleep-wake; elevation of body temps

269
Q

…: essential nutrient that is not adequately synthesized by the body and thus, must be obtained in a dietary manner

A

vitamin

270
Q

lipid-soluble vitamins are stored in …
excess water-soluble vitamins are …
fat soluble vitamins are: …, …, …, and …

A

fat
excreted
A; D; E; K

271
Q

vitamin A (carotene): unsaturated hydrocarbon plays a role in .., … and …, and … function

A

vision; growth; development; immune

272
Q

vitamin A:
aldehyde form is … – component of light-sensing molecular system in the human eye
…: storage form of vitamin A, oxidized to retinoic acid – hormone that regulates gene expression during epithelial development

A

retinal

retinol

273
Q

vitamin D (…): consumed/formed in … driven rxn

A

cholecalciferol; UV

274
Q

vitamin D:
converted to … in liver and kidneys –> increases … and … uptake in intestines and thus promotes … production
lack of vitamin D is cause of is cause of … – impeded growth, underdeveloped bones in children

A

calcitrol; Ca2+; phosphate
bone
rickets

275
Q

vitamin E: characterizes group of closely related lipids called … and … –> have a substituted aromatic ring with long isoprenoid side chain and are hydrophobic

A

tocopherols; tocotrienols

276
Q

vitamin E:

…: biological antioxidants –> destroy free radicals to prevent oxidative damage

A

tocopherols

277
Q

…: a group of compounds including phylloquinone and menaquinone
vital to posttranslational modifications required to form … - clotting factor in the blood

A

vitamin K

prothrombin

278
Q

aromatic ring of vitamin K undergoes cycle of … and … during the formation of prothrombin
vit K is required to introduce … on some calcium dependent proteins

A

oxidation; reduction

calcium binding sites

279
Q

…: lipids specifically used for energy storage

A

triacylglycerols

280
Q

lipids are better than carbs for energy storage:
fatty acids are more … than sugars –> C in fatty acids have more …, and oxidation allows electrons to move from … to more … atom, which is stabilizing and releases energy

A

reduced
electron density
less electronegative
electronegative

281
Q

oxidation of triacylglycerols yields … the energy per gram as carbs

A

twice

282
Q

lipids:
triacylglycerols are … –> don’t require water for stability, which decreases their weight
dual benefit as … and …

A

hydrophobic

energy storage; insulation

283
Q

… (…): three fatty acids bonded by ester linkages to glycerol
rare for all three fatty acids to …
… and … –> polar hydroxyl groups of the glycerol component and polar carboxylates of fatty acids are bonded together, …

A

triacylglycerols; triglycerides;
be the same
nonpolar; hydrophobic
decreasing their hydrophilicity

284
Q

triacylglyerols:
deposits are seen in cells as … in cytosol – can be recruited when the cell needs additional energy to divide/survive
…: cells that store large amounts of fat, found primarily under the skin, around mammary glands, and int he abdominal cavity

A

oily droplets

adipocytes

285
Q

triacylglycerols:
in plants, are present in seeds as ..
travel bidirectionally between … and … in the bloodstream
physical characteristics primarily determined by … of fatty acid chains

A

oils
liver; adipose tissue
degree of saturation

286
Q

free fatty acids: unesterified fatty acids with a free …

circulate in the blood bonded noncovalently to ….

A

carboxylate group

serum albumin

287
Q

…; ester hydrolysis of triacylglycerols using a strong base (such as lye-sodium or potassium hydroxide)
cleaves the fatty acid, leaving the … of the fatty acid and glycerol
fatty acid salt = …

A

saponification
sodium salt
soap

288
Q

soaps act as … –> lowers surface tension at surface of a liquid, serving as detergent/…

A

surfactants

emulsifier

289
Q

soaps act as surfactants:
with solutions that are in two separate phases, addition of soap would “combine” them into one phase, forming a … –> this is due to formation of …

A

colloid; micelles

290
Q

…: tiny aggregates of soap with the hydrophobic tails turned inward and the hydrophilic heads turned outward, which allows for overall solvation

A

micelles

291
Q

nonpolar compounds can dissolve in the … of the water-soluble micelle

A

hydrophobic interior

292
Q

micelles are biologically important –> absorption of fat-soluble … and complex … like …
… and … secreted by gallbladder form micelles that increase SA available for lipolytic enzymes

A

vitamins
lipids; lecithins
fatty acids; bile salts

293
Q

DNA is a … made of … –> polymer

A

polydeoxyribonucleotide; monodeoxyribonucleotides

294
Q

nucleosides: a … bonded to a … and formed by covalently linking C-1’ of the sugar to the base
C atoms in the … are labeled with ‘ to distinguish from C atoms in …

A

pentose sugar; nitrogenous base

sugar; base

295
Q

…: when one or more phosphate groups are attached to C-5’ of a nucleoside

A

nucleotides

296
Q

molecules like ATP are high-energy compounds bc of the energy associated with the … between closely associated negative charges on the phosphate groups

A

repulsion

297
Q

nucleic acids classified according to the … they contain –> ribose = …, deoxyribose (ribose with … OH replaced with H) = …

A

pentose
RNA
2’ OH
DNA

298
Q

backbone of DNA is composed of alternating …. and … groups which determines its directionality –> always read from 5’ to 3’
nucleotides are joined by … bonds

A

sugar; phosphate; 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds

299
Q

phosphate group links … C of one sugar to the … phosphate group of the next incoming sugar in the chain
phosphates carry …, and thus so does DNA and RNA

A

3’; 5’

negative charge

300
Q

distinct 5’ and 3’ ends gives DNA backbone …

5’ end of DNA will have an …/… group bound to C’5’ of the sugar, while 3’ end has a … on C-3’ of the sugar

A

polarity
OH/phosphate
free OH

301
Q

purines: have … rings in their structure
two purines in nucleic acids are …and …
PURe As Gold

A

2

adenine; guanine

302
Q

pyrimidines: have only … ring in their structure
…, …, and …
CUT the PYe

A

one

cytosine; thymine; uracil

303
Q

purines and pyrimidines are … heterocycles

A

aromatic

304
Q

aromaticity qualifications:
compound is …, …, and…
compound has … pi electrons –> … rule
stable due to delocalization of electrons, and thus, are pretty unreactive

A

cyclic; planar; conjugated

4n+2; Huckel’s

305
Q

Bc of …, nucleic acids are very stable –> why they are ideal for storing genetic information

A

aromatic nature

306
Q

Watson-Crick model: presented 3D structure of DNA and indicated that DNA is a …
…: two linear polynucleotide chains of DNA are wound together in a spiral orientation along a common axis
two strands of DNA are …

A

double helix
double helix
antiparallel

307
Q

…. is on the outside of the helix with the … on the inside

A

sugar-phosphate backbone; nitrogenous bases

308
Q

…: A always with T and G always with C

G and C have … H bonds, which makes the G-C interaction stronger than A-T which only has … H bonds

A

complementary base pairing

3; 2

309
Q

The … and the … between bases provide stability to the double helix structure

A

H bonds; hydrophobic interactions

310
Q

…: total purines will be equal to total pyrimidines overall, since %A = %T and %G = %C

A

Chargaff’s rule

311
Q

most DNA is a … helix –> ….-DNA
makes a turn every 3.4 nm and has … bases within that span
has … and … between the interlocking strands that are often the site of protein binding

A

right-handed helix; B
10
major and minor grooves

312
Q

…-DNA –> zig-zag appearance, left-landed helix

4.6 nm and contains … bases within that span

A

Z-DNA; 12

313
Q

Z-DNA:
high … conc or high … conc can contribute to the formation of this form of DNA
No … contributed to it yet bc its unstable and hard to research

A

G-C; salt

biological activity

314
Q

Double helix of DNA can be denatured by conditions that disrupt …. and …
none of the … links between nucleotides in the backbone of the DNA break during this process
achieved via …, …, and chemicals like … and …

A

H bonding; base-pairing
covalent
heat; alkaline pH; formaldehyde; urea

315
Q

denatured single stranded DNA can be … if denaturing condition is slowly removed
important for … and detection of specific DNA sequences

A

reannealed

PCR

316
Q

…: DNA with known sequence
can be added to mix of target DNA sequences, and when it binds to target, may provide evidence of gene of interest –> …

A

probe DNA; hybridization

317
Q

DNA of chromosomes is wrapped around a group of small basic proteins called … to form chromatin

A

histones

318
Q

two copies each of the histone proteins …, …, …, and … form a histone core and about 200 bp of DNA are wrapped around the protein complex to form a …
the last histone, …, seals off the DNA as it enters and leaves the nucleosome, stabilizing the structure further

A

H2A; H2B; H3; H4
nucleosome
H1

319
Q

… create more organized and compacted DNA

A

nucleosomes

320
Q

histones are an example of … –> proteins that associate with DNA
most others are .. soluble and tend to stimulate processes like transcription

A

nucleoproteins

acid

321
Q

during interphase, DNA is … such that replication is more efficient
small percent of chromatin remains compacted and is therefore transcriptionally silent –> …: tends to have … sequences
…: dispersed chromatin that contains genetically active DNA

A

uncondensed
heterochromatin; highly repetitive
euchromatin

322
Q

DNA replication cannot extend to the …, or else sequences and info will be lost with each round of replication
solved by a …: simple repeating unit (TTAGGG) at end of DNA

A

end of a chromosome; telomere

323
Q

telomeres are progressively shortened but can be replaced with …, which is more expressed in rapidly dividing cells
telomeres have second function: high … content creates strong strand attractions at end of chromosomes to prevent …

A

telomerase
GC
unraveling

324
Q

…: region of DNA found in center of chromosomes and act as sites of constriction
composed of … and is made up of repeat sequences that have a high GC content
during cell division, sister chromatids can remain connected at the … until separated during anaphase

A

centromeres
heterochromatin
centromere

325
Q

…/…: set of specialized proteins that assist DNA polymerases

A

replisome; replication complex

326
Q

DNA replication:

DNA unwinds at … and generation of new DNA proceeds in …, creating …. on both sides of the origin

A

origins of replication; both directions; replication forks

327
Q

… origins of replication in eukaryotes

A

multiple

328
Q

as replication forks move toward each other and sister chromatids are created, the chromatids remain

A

connected at the centromere

329
Q

… unwinds DNA in replication

A

helicase

330
Q

… bind to unraveled DNA 🧬, preventing reassociation of the DNA strands of degradation by nucleases

A

single-stranded DNA-binding proteins

331
Q

helicase unwinding causes … – wrapping of DNA on itself as the helical structure is pushed further toward telomeres during replication
… relive this torsional strain and prevent strand breakage by working ahead of helicase and making small cuts in one/both of the strands and later reseal the cut strands

A

positive supercoiling; DNA topoisomerases

332
Q

parental strands serve as templates for the generation of new daughter strands –> … process bc one parental strand is retained and bonded to a new daughter strand

A

semiconservative

333
Q

DNA polymerase reads the DNA template from … to … and synthesizes from … and …

A

3’; 5’; 5’; 3’

334
Q

leading strand is the parental … strand and is the strand that is copied in a … fashion

A

3’; 5’; continuous

335
Q

lagging strand: copied in a direction …; the parental … strand
must be copied in small strands called … DNA polymerase must go back and fill in gaps

A

opposite the direction of the replication fork; 5’ to 3;

Okazaki fragments

336
Q

dna polymerase cannot make new strands so a … synthesizes a short …
these short sequences are constantly being added to the lagging strand bc each Okazaki fragment must start with a new primer
leading strand only requires one in theory (in reality, there are a few)

A

primase; RNA primer

337
Q

as new phosphodiester bonds are made in dNA, a free … is released

A

pyrophosphate (PPi)

338
Q

DNA polymerase …/…, …, and … synthesizes daughter strands and RNA primers are then removed by DNA polymerase …/… and replaced by DNA polymerase …/DNA polymerase …

A

III; alpha, delta, and epsilon
I/RNAse H
I; delta

339
Q

… seals the ends of the DNA molecules together to create one continuous strand of DNA

A

DNA ligase

340
Q

bacterial chromosome is closed, double-stranded circular DNA with a … origin of replication. There are … replication forks that move away from one another and then eventually meet, resulting in production of two identical …

A

single; circular DNA molecules

341
Q

Five “classic” DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells:
DNA polymerases …, …, and… work together to synthesize both the leading and lagging strands: DNA polymerase … also fills in the gaps left behind when RNA primers are removed

A

alpha; delta; epsilon

delta

342
Q

Five “classic” DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells:

DNA polymerase … replicates mitochondrial DNA

A

gamma

343
Q

Five “classic” DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells:

DNA polymerases … and …. are important to the process of DNA repair

A

beta; epsilon

344
Q

Five “classic” DNA polymerases in eukaryotic cells:
DNA polymerases … and … are assisted by the … protein, which assembles into a trimer to form the … – strengthens the interaction between DNA polymerases and the template strand

A

delta; epsilon; PCNA; sliding clamp

345
Q

DNA polymerase cannot complete synthesis of 5’ end and so chromosome becomes shorter –> fixed by …

A

telomeres

346
Q

cancer cells proliferate excessively bc they divide without … and aren’t subject to normal controls on proliferation
can migrate by … or … – migration to distant tissues via bloodstream/lymphatic system

A

stimulation

local invasion; metastasis

347
Q

…: mutated genes that cause cancer

mostly …-related proteins

A

oncogenes

cell cycle

348
Q

oncogens:
…: named after sarcoma; abnormal alleles encode proteins that are more active than normal proteins and promote rapid cell cycle advancement –> mutation in 1 copy is enough to promote tumor growth –> …

A

Src; dominant

349
Q

…: oncogenes before they are mutated

…: mutated genes that cause cancer that normally would function to stop tumor progression

A

proto-oncogenes

antioncogenes

350
Q

antioncogenes:
… or … are tumor suppressor genes that code for proteins that inhibit the cell cycle/participate in DNA repair
promote cancer by losing their … activity

A

P53; Rb
tumor suppression
recessive

351
Q

DNA polymerase proofreads DNA strands. mismatched nucleotides tend to be … and the polymerase can recognize this and fix the error

A

unstable

352
Q

to differentiate between template and parent strands such that the polymerase knows which nucleotide should actually be there:
parent strand existed longer and tends to be more heavily …

A

methylated

353
Q

…. lacks proofreading ability and this is what closes the gaps between Okazaki fragments, not polymerase, so mutations in the … strand are more likely than for the other strand

A

DNA ligase; lagging

354
Q

cells have machinery in the … phase of the cell cycle for mismatch repair (bc this is where the cell checks to ensure that DNA has been replicated properly)
enzymes encoded by genes … and … detect and remove errors in replication
… and … are the genes for prokaryotes

A

G2
MSH2; MLH1
MutS; MutL

355
Q

UV light induces formation of …, which interferes with normal gene expression and replication and distorts double helix
removed by … repair mechanism –> proteins scan DNA and recognize legion. … makes nicks in the phosphodiester backbone on both sides of the abnormality and removes it. …. fills in the gaps. nick is sealed using …

A
thymine dimers 
nucleotide excision 
excision endonuclease 
dna polymerase 
ligase
356
Q

thermal energy can be absorbed by DNA and can lead to …, which converts cytosine to …

A

deamination; uracil

357
Q

…: detection systems that exist for small, non-helix distorting mutations in bases
affected base is recognized and removed by a …, leaving an …/…, or .., site

A

base excision repair
glycosylase
apurinic/apyrimidinic; abasic

358
Q

base excision repair contd:
the apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) site is recognized by an … that removes the damaged sequence from the DNA and DNA polymerase and ligase fill in gap and seal the strand

A

AP endonuclease

359
Q

… allows a DNA fragment from any source to be multiplied either by cloning or PCR
means of analyzing and altering genes and proteins

… of genetic diseases

can provide a source of a specific protein

A

recombinant DNA tech
genetic testing
prenatal diagnosis
gene therapy

360
Q

DNA cloning:

Desired DNA is inserted into a …, forming a … This is usually a plasmid

A

vector; recombinant vector

361
Q

DNA cloning contd:
bacteria with recombinant DNA is then … and the non-recombinant bacteria are killed off with …
recombinant bacteria must be …
bacteria can then be left to express the gene or lysed to reisolate that gene depending on what is needed

A

grown in colonies; antibiotics

antibiotic resistant

362
Q

insertion of DNA into a plasmid can be facilitated by … –> enzymes that are bacterial in origin and cleave … DNA at specific sequences
…: the 5’ to 3’ sequence of one strand is identical to the 5’ to 3’ sequence of the antiparallel strand

A

restriction endonucleases; palindromic

palindromic

363
Q

some restriction endonucleases yield … which allow the fragment to be inserted directly into the vector when the vector is cut with the same restriction enzyme

A

sticky ends

364
Q

…: large collections of known DNA sequences

A

DNA libraries

365
Q

… contain large fragments of DNA, and include both coding (exon) and noncoding (intron) regions of the genome

A

genomic libraries

366
Q

… (…) libraries are constructed by reverse transcribing processed mRNA and thus lacks … –> aka … libraries

A

cDNA; complementary DNA; introns; expression

367
Q

only … can be used to reliably sequence specific genes and identify disease-causing mutations, produce recombinant proteins, or produce transgenic animals

A

cDNA libraries

368
Q

…: joining of complementary base pair sequence –> DNA-DNA recognition or DNA-RNA recognition
uses two single stranded sequences
part of PCR and southern blotting

A

hybridization

369
Q
PCR: ... DNA 
requires ..., ..., and ... 
requires ... to denature DNA 
uses ..., which doesn't denature under the high temp conditions
amount of DNA is ... each cycle
A
amplifies 
primers; nucleotides; DNA polymerase 
heat 
taq polymerase
doubled
370
Q

… can be used to separate DNA

… is used to separate DNA by size

A

gel electrophoresis

agarose gel

371
Q

gel electrophoresis:

often used while performing a … - used to detect the presence and quantity of various DNA strands in a sample

A

southern blot

372
Q

gel electro/southern blot
DNA cut by restriction enzymes and separated by gel electro
DNA fragments transferred to a membrane that is … with copies of a … sequence, which binds to its complementary sequence to form double-stranded DNA
probes are labeled with …/… proteins

A

probed; single-stranded DNA

radioisotopes; indicator

373
Q

…: contains a hydrogen at both C-3’ and 2’ –> once incorporated into a dNA strand, polymerase can no longer add to chain
… DNA strands –> useful for DNA sequencing

A

dideoxyribonucleotides

terminates

374
Q

…: offers potential cures for inherited diseases; involves transferring a normal copy of a mutated gene into the affected tissues
requires efficient … –> tend to be modified …
drawback: randomly integrated DNA poses risk of integrating near and activating a host …

A

gene therapy
gene delivery vectors
viruses
oncogene

375
Q

transgenic mice are altered at their … by introducing a cloned gene into ova or embryonic stem cells

A

germ line

376
Q

…: introduced cloned gene

A

transgene

377
Q

transgenic mice:
can be used to study … from early embryonic development
can be developed by microinjecting a .. into nucleus of newly fertilized ovum such that gene (hopefully, but rarely) incorporates into DNA. this is then implanted in a … offspring would have transgene and would pass it onto offspring. not as useful for studying … diseases bc number of copies of the gene that insert into genome cannot be controlled

A

disease processes
cloned gene
surrogate mother
recessive

378
Q

transgenic mice:
other method: using … lines –> cloned genes can be introduced in cultures
stem cells injected into … and implanted into surrogate mothers – blastocyst has stem cells containing the transgene and the original blastocyst cells that lack the transgene –> offspring will be …

A

embryonic stem cell
blastocysts
chimera

379
Q

transgenic mice:
other method contd:
chimeras can be bred to produce mice that are … for the transgene and … for the transgene

A

heterozygous; homozygous

380
Q

…: mice in which a gene has been intentionally deleted to study human diseases

A

knockout mice