Kaplan Bio Contd. Flashcards

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1
Q

circulatory system:


A

heart
blood vessels
blood

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2
Q

vasculature


A

arteries
capillaries
veins

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3
Q

heart has four chambers made predominantly of .. muscle –> …, …, .., …

A
cardiac
right atria
left atria
right ventricle 
left ventricle
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4
Q

… deliver deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart. … bring that blood from right ventricle to the lungs where they are reoxygenated

A

vena cava; pulmonary arteries

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5
Q

… brings reoxygenated blood from lungs to the left ventricle and then out through the aorta to the rest of the body

A

pulmonary veins

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6
Q

heart can be through of as two pumps supporting two different circulations:
… + … = … circulation
… + … = .. circulation

A

right side; pulmonary arteries; pulmonary

left side; pulmonary veins; systemic

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7
Q

… are thin walled structures that contract to move blood into the ventricles

A

atria

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8
Q

… contract to send blood through rest of circulatory system

A

ventricles

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9
Q

atria are separated from ventricles by …:
valve between right atrium and right ventricle –> … (…) valve
valve between left atrium and left ventricle –> … (..) valve

A

atrioventricular valves
tricuspid; three leaflet
mitral; bicuspid

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10
Q

ventricles are separated from vasculature by … valves:
valve between right ventricle and pulmonary circulation –> … valve
valve between left ventricle and aorta –> … valve
these types of valves have ..

A

semilunar
pulmonary
aortic
three leaflets

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11
Q

left heart is more muscular than right heart because it must …, since blood coming from left ventricle has to circulate through entire body

A

contract more forcibly

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12
Q

electrical impulses in the heart originate at the … at a rate of ..-… signals per min (which dictates normal adult heartrate), then to … to … and its branches, to …

A

sinoatrial node; 60-100; atrioventricular node; bundle of His; Purkinje fibers

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13
Q

… from SA node causes atria to contract at the same time
atrial … (contraction) increases … to force . more blood than would passively travel into the ventricles –> … (about ..-…% of cardiac output)
signal at AV node is delayed to allow ventricles to … when signal travels down His to fibers, ventricles can …

A

depolarization wave
systole; atrial pressure; atrial kick; 5-30%
fill up; contract

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14
Q

bundle of His and branches is imbedded in the … –> the wall between the ventricles

A

interventricular septum

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15
Q

muscle cells of heart are connected by …, whose cells are connected by … to allow for coordinated ventricular contraction

A

intercalated discs; gap junctions

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16
Q

circulatory system under … control
sympathetic increases … and …
parasympathetic, by way of …, slows it down

A

autonomic
rate; contractility
vagus nerve

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17
Q

…: ventricular contraction, closure of AV valves

A

systole

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18
Q

…: heart is relaxed, semilunar valves are closed, blood from atria fills ventricles

A

diastole

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19
Q

… of the walls of the large arteries allows for blood pressure to be maintained during diastole. during diastole, these arteries now have a smaller volume (bc they are no longer stretched by blood flowing rapidly through it), and thus pressure …

A

elasticity; increases

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20
Q

…: total blood volume pumped by a ventricle in a minute –> product of … (…) and … (…)

A

cardiac output; heart rate (beats per min); stroke volume (volume of blood pumped per beat)

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21
Q

for humans, cardiac output tends to be about … L per min
… increases cardiac output
… decreases cardiac output

A

5
sympathetic
parasympathetic

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22
Q

major arteries (e.g. coronary, carotid, subclavian, renal) divide bloodflow from .. toward different …

A

aorta; peripheral tissues

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23
Q

arteries branch into …, then …, which goes into …, then …

A

arterioles; capillaries; venules; veins

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24
Q

blood vessels are all lined with … cells, which have 3 functions:
…/…
allow … to travel to tissue when a pathogen is present/during inflammatory response
release …

A

endothelial
vasodilation; vasoconstriction
WBCs
clotting factors

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25
Q

arteries have more .. than veins, capillaries have …

A

smooth muscle; no smooth muscle

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26
Q

arteries are very muscular and elastic –> much … to blood flow
this is partly why left heart has to generate much higher pressures –> …

A

resistance; overcome resistance

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27
Q

capillaries allow for … from circulatory system to tissues and vice versa. also allow for exchange of …

A

exchange of materials; endocrines ignals

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28
Q

veins can … to accommodate larger quantities of blood, and at any given moment may hold … volume of blood. despite this, … between veins and arteries is the same

A

stretch; 3/4; cardiac output

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29
Q

since blood flow in veins tends to go against gravity, there must be a way to push blood forward
… to prevent back flow –>
back flow can cause … (… veins)
… pushes blood forward as well –> must be mobile for this. being immobile over extended periods of time leads to …

A

valves; varicose veins; distended

skeletal muscle contraction; blood clots

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30
Q

mostly, blood only travels through … before it returns to the heart. there are three …, though, in which it travels through two:

A

one capillary bed; portal systems

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31
Q

hepatic portal system: capillary beds in … –> capillary beds in .. –> …

A

walls of gut; liver; heart

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32
Q

hypophyseal portal system:

capillary beds in … –> beds in … to allow for paracrine secretion –> ..

A

hypothalamus; anterior pituitary; heart

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33
Q

renal portal system: blood leaves … through … –> capillary network in … –> …

A

glomerulus; efferent arteriole; vasa recta; heart

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34
Q

plasma: liquid portion of blood, contains …, …, …, …, …

A

nutrients; salts; respiratory gases; hormones; blood proteins

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35
Q

cellular portion of blood;

…, …, and …

A

erythrocytes; leukocytes; platelets

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36
Q

…: red blood cell, specialized for oxygen transport, contains about 250 molecules of hemoglobin

A

erythrocyte

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37
Q

hemoglobin can bind … molecules of oxygen
each RBC can cary about … molecules of oxygen
RBCs are … –> allows them to travel through tiny capillaries and increase surface area for more gas exchange

A

four; 1 billion; biconcave

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38
Q

mature RBCs lack ..

lack of … in RBCs prevents use of oxygen for …

A

organelles; mitochondria; oxidative phosphorylation

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39
Q

RBCs rely on … for ATP and produce … –> undergo …

A

glycolysis; lactic acid; anaerobic fermentation

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40
Q

… measure amount of hemoglobin as grams/deciliter
… - … for males
… - … for females

A

hemoglobin count

  1. 5; 17.5
  2. 0; 16.0
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41
Q

…measures percent of RBCs in a blood sample
…-…% for males
…-…% for females

A

hematocrit
41; 53
36; 46

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42
Q

…: WBCs, comprise less than 1% of blood volume

A

leukocytes

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43
Q

(leukocytes) …: the “phils”

…, …, …

A

granulocytes;

neutrophils; eosinophils; basophils

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44
Q

(leukocytes) granulocytes contain … in their cytoplasm that has chemicals that are toxic to invaders
involved in … rxns, …, … formation, and destruction of … and …

A

granules

inflammatory; allergies; pus formation; bacteria; parasites

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45
Q

(leukocytes) …: the “cytes”

… and …

A

agranulocytes

lymphocytes; monocytes

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46
Q

(leukocytes) agranulocytes:
lymphocytes conduct … immune response –> targeted fight against particular pathogens
mature in bone marrow = … cells
mature in thymus = … cells

A

specific;
B
T

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47
Q

(leukocytes) agranulocytes:
monocytes: …
in organs: known as …

A

phagocytize foreign matter

macrophages

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48
Q

…/…: cell fragments/shards released from cells in bone marrow known as .. –> assist in blood clotting

A

thrombocytes; platelets

megakaryocytes

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49
Q

…: production of blood cells and platelets
…: secreted by kidney, stimulates mainly RBC development
…: secreted by liver and kidney and stimulates mainly platelet development

A

hetaopoiesis
erythropoietin
thrombopoietin

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50
Q

RBCs have surface antigens –> … antigens and ..

A

ABO; Rh factor

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51
Q

ABO antigens:
A and B are … –> if expressed together yields AB genotype
whole blood is never given in a transfusion –> …, without plasma, so … don’t need to be considered

A

codominant

packed RBCs; plasma antigens

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52
Q

ABO antigens:
if wrong blood type is given, … may occur
antibodies to other blood types may be developed bc … may have proteins that match A and B alleles –> acts as source of exposure that allows for development of appropriate antibodies

A

hemolysis

E. coli

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53
Q

Rh-positive or Rh-negative refers to presence or absence of an allele …
… is dominant

A

D

Rh-positive

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54
Q

for mothers that are Rh-negative and have babies that are Rh+, during birth, … against Rh+ will develop. this isn’t an issue for the first baby, but if second baby is also Rh+, and antibodies against Rh+ travel through the placenta, there may be … of fetal cells –> …

A

antibodies; hemolysis; erythroblastosis fetalis

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55
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis issue doesn’t really happen with ABO blood types, bc these antibodies are of class …, which don’t really cross the placenta

A

IgM

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56
Q

… is a measure of force per unit area exerted on the wall of the blood vessels

A

blood pressure

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57
Q

much like an electromotive force (voltage) drives a current through a given electrical resistance, the pressure gradient across the circulatory system drives … through a given …

A

cardiac output; vascular resistance

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58
Q

pressure differential across circulation = … * total …

A

cardiac output; vascular resistance

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59
Q

the … a blood vessel, the more resistance it offers. the larger the … of a blood vessel, the less resistance it offers

A

longer; cross-sectional area

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60
Q

blood pressure is regulated using … in the walls of the vasculature

A

baroreceptors

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61
Q

BP increased by stimulation of …, by release of … when blood osmolarity is high, or release of … if there is low perfusion to juxtaglomerular cells (which would indicate that blood isn’t pumping sufficiently to further parts of the body)

A

sympathetic nervous system; ADH; aldosterone

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62
Q

BP can be decreased by decreasing … impulses, permitting … can also be by release of … by the heart

A

sympathetic; relaxation of vasculature; atrial natriuretic peptide

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63
Q

oxygen is carried by hemoglobin. hemoglobin has 4 …, each of which has a prosthetic … group that binds to an oxygen molecule

A

cooperative subunit; heme

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64
Q

some oxygen diffuses into the blood and dissolves into the …, but this amount is negligible compared to the amount bound to hemoglobin

A

plasma

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65
Q

…: percent of hemoglobin molecules carrying oxygen

A

oxygen saturation

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66
Q

when oxygen binds to one subunit of hemoglobin, hgb goes from … to … state and induces this change in the other subunits to increase their affinity to oxygen –> … binding
… regulation that results in classic … oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

tense; relaxed; cooperative

allosteric; sigmoidal

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67
Q

most of CO2 exists in blood as the …, not really dissolved in plasma or transported by hemoglobin

A

bicarbonate ion

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68
Q

when CO2 enters a RBC, … catalyzes the formation of …, which then dissociates

A

carbonic anhydrase; carbonic acid

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69
Q

pH can have allosteric effects on oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve –> lower pH means … hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

A

lower

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70
Q

lower hemoglobin affinity shows … in oxyhemoglobin curve –> … effect

A

shift to right; Bohr

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71
Q

causes of a right shift of the oxyhemoglobin curve: exercise is the right thing to do (mnemonic). the following occurs during exercise:
increased …
increased … concentration
increased …
also increased .., side product of glycolysis

A

partial pressure of CO2
proton
temperature
2,3-BPG

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72
Q

carbs and amino acids are absorbed into the capillaries of the small intestine and enter systemic circulation via the

A

hepatic portal system

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73
Q

fats are absorbed into … in the small intestine and enter systemic circulation via the …

A

lacteals; thoracic duct

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74
Q

wastes travel to … and are filtered or secreted for elimination

A

kidney

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75
Q

…: cells surrounding the blood vessels

A

interstitium

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76
Q

…: force per unit area that the blood exerts against the vessel walls (blood pressure)
pushes fluid … and …

A

hydrostatic pressure

out of the bloodstream; into the interstitium

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77
Q

…/…: pressure generated by solutes as they attempt to draw water into the bloodstream
most of it is attributable to …
pulls fluid …

A

osmotic/oncotic pressure
plasma proteins
into vessels

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78
Q

at arteriole end of capillary bed, … pressure is greater than …
at venule end, … pressure is greater than …

A

hydrostatic; oncotic

oncotic; hydrostatic

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79
Q

hydrostatic pressure pushes fluid … of vessels and is dependent on … driven by the heart and the elastic arteries. osmotic pressure pulls fluid … and is dependent on the …

A

out; blood pressure; back into the vessels; number of particles dissolved in the plasma

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80
Q

…: hydrostatic and oncotic pressure

A

starling forces

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81
Q

…: accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitial fluid

A

edema

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82
Q

…: lymphatic fluid

returned to central circulatory system by the …

A

lymph; thoracic duct

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83
Q

movement of solutes and fluid at the capillary level is governed by …, just like movement of CO2 and O2 in the lungs

A

pressure differentials

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84
Q

…: coagulation factors and platelets; prevent/minimize blood loss

A

clots

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85
Q

damaged endothelium exposes underlying … tissue, which contains … and … –> when platelets come into contact with .. they begin to aggregate

A

connective; collagen; tissue factor; collagen

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86
Q

coagulation factors sense … and initiate an …

A

tissue factor; activation cascade

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87
Q

coagulation:
… is activated to form … by … this converts … to … which forms small fibers that aggregate and cross slink into a woven structure that captures … and … to form a clot

A

prothrombin; thrombin; thromboplastin; fibrinogen; fibrin; red blood cells; platelets

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88
Q

a clot is broken down by …, which derives from …

A

plasmin; plasminogen

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89
Q

… immunity: defenses that are always active against infection –> … immunity

A

innate; nonspecific

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90
Q

innate immunity includes … molecules and … which can activate an … response, secreting … that trigger an influx of immune cells from the blood. some of these recruits are more …

A

antimicrobial; phagocytes; inflammatory; cytokines; phagocytes

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91
Q

… immunity/… immunity –> target a specific pathogen, … to act, but maintains … of an infection to mount faster attack upon subsequent exposure

A

adaptive; specific

slower; memory

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92
Q

adaptive immunity:
… and … cells. activated B-cells secrete … that bind to … T-cells recognize .. and can help activate … cells and other … cells or can directly …

A

B; T; antibodies; antigens; antigens; B cells; T cells; attack infected cells

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93
Q

… produces all of the leukocytes

A

bone marrow

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94
Q

… is location of B-cell storage and activation. B-cells turn into … to produce antibodies. when they leave spleen, they are … but …, since they haven’t been exposed to antigen yet –> .. immunity

A

spleen; plasma cells; mature; naive; humoral

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95
Q

T-cells mature in … and are agents of … immunity –> coordinate immune system and directly kill infected cells

A

thymus; cell-mediated

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96
Q

…: place for immune cells to communicate and mount an attack –> B-cells can be activated here too

A

lymph nodes

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97
Q

… tissue: immune tissue close to digestive system

… and … in the head, … in the small intestine, lymphoid aggregates in the …

A

gut-associated lymphoid

tonsils; adenoids; Peyer’s patches; appendix

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98
Q

granulocytes and agranulocytes both derive from …

A

hematopoietic stem cells

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99
Q

first line of defense is the .. (…)
acts as a physical barrier
also contains … –> antibacterial enzymes
… has antimicrobial properties

A

skin; integument
defensins
sweat

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100
Q

… involved in nonspecific/innate immunity:
stomach produces … that kills most pathogens
beneficial bacteria in the gut act as … of other pathogenic bacteria

A

GI tract;

acid; competitive excluders

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101
Q

… system: nonspecific defense against bacteria:
… pathway –> binding of an antibody to a pathogen
… pathway –> does not require antibodies

A

complement
classical
alternative

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102
Q

complements … in … of bacteria so that they are …

A

punch holes; cell wall; osmotically unstable

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103
Q

…: prevent viral replication and dispersion –> decrease production of viral and cellular proteins in nearby cells and decrease … of these cells

A

interferons; permeability

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104
Q

interferons also upregulate … and …
they are produced by …
… system that a cell has been infected –> interferes with ability of virus to …

A

MHC I; MHC II; infected cells; warning; further infect

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105
Q

…: derive from monocytes and become a permanent, resident population in a tissue
… invaders, … invader, presents …of the invader using …
release …: stimulate inflammation and recruit additional immune cells

A

macrophages
phagocytizes; enzymatically digests; peptide antigens; MHC II
cytokines

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106
Q

…: binds to a pathogenic peptide and presents it on the cell surface

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

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107
Q

MHC class I: presented by all … cells
any protein produced within a cell can be loaded onto these and presented on the cell surface for immune system to be able to monitor cellular health
… pathway –> binds antigens from inside the cell
invaded cells can be killed by …

A

nucleated;
endogenous
cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

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108
Q

MHC class II: presented by … cells such as …, … cells in the skin, some … cells and some activated … cells

A

antigen-presenting; macrophages; dendritic; B; epithelial

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109
Q
MHC class II: 
... pathway --> antigens originated outside the cell
A

exogenous

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110
Q

marophages and dendritic cells have … receptors –> can recognize category of invader to elicit production of the correct … to recruit the right type of immune cells
best described of these is the … receptor

A

pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

toll-like

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111
Q

… cells: nonspecific lymphocyte that recognizes downregulation of MHC caused by a virus and induces … in infected cells
can also protect against …, since these cells may downregulate MHC

A

natural killer; apoptosis; cancer

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112
Q

…: most abundant leukocyte and short-lived
phagocytes that can track bacteria via … and can detect … bacteria – bacteria that have been marked with an … from a B-cell
stalk and kill

A

neutrophils

chemotaxis; opsonized; antibody

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113
Q

dead neutrophil collections = …

A

pus

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114
Q

…: bright orange granules, involved in allergic rxns and parasitic infections
release large amount of … –> increased … and … of blood vessels, allowing additional immune cells to move into tissue

A

eosinophils; histamine; vasodilation; leakiness

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115
Q

eosinophils:

inflammation is effective against extracellular pathogens such as .., …, and …

A

bacteria; fungi; parasites

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116
Q

… and … cells are involved in allergic reaction and release large amounts of histamines in response to allergens, leading to …

A

basophils; mast; inflammation

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117
Q

antibodies =

A

immunoglobulins

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118
Q

… = lymphatic fluid

A

chyle

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119
Q

antibodies can be present on the … or …

A

cell surface; secreted into body fluids

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120
Q

for antibodies secreted into body fluids, there are three main responses:
can attract leukocytes to phagocytize the antigens –> …
can cause pathogens to clump together such that the clump can be phagocytized –> …
can … the pathogen

A

opsonization
agglutination
neutralize

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121
Q

for cell-surface antibodies, a B-cell will … and …, … and forming … and … cells

A

bind; activate; proliferating; plasma; memory

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122
Q

…: exocytosis of granule contents that occurs when an antigen binds to antibodies on the surface of a mast cell

A

degranulation

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123
Q

antibodies are Y-shaped and have two identical … domains and two identical … domains. they have … sites on the tips of the Y, at the end of the .. region

A

light; heavy; antigen-binding; variable

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124
Q

B-cells undergo … of the antigen-binding region to match the antigen –> the ones that have the highest affinity for the antigen survive –> …

A

hypermutation; clonal selection

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125
Q

… region of the antibody is what immune cells have receptors for, and consequently initiate … when recognized

A

constant; complement cascades

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126
Q

antibodies have five different isotopes: .., …, …, …, … –> …: cells change which isotope of an antibody they produce when stimulated by specific cytokines

A

IgM; IgD; IgG: IgE; IgA; isotope switching

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127
Q

plasma cells produce large amounts of … but memory B-cells remain in the … until reexposure
initial activation = … response, takes about …-… days
upon reexposure, when memory cells are activated –> … response
immune memory is basis for vaccinations

A

antibodies; lymph node
primary; 7-10
secondary

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128
Q

T-cells mature in thymus and undergo … and …. selection
…: maturing only cells that can respond to presentation of antigen on MHC
…: apoptosis in cells that are self-reactive (activated by proteins produced by organism itself)
maturation induced by …

A

positive; negative
positive
negative
thymosin

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129
Q

T-cells also undergo …, such that those with highest affinity for antigen proliferate

A

clonal selection

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130
Q

(three types of T-cells)
helper-T cells –> … T cells
secrete … to recruit other immune cells and increase their activity
respond to antigens presented on … molecules, bc these are attached to immune cells that are antigen-presenting –> allows for amplification of immune response

A

CD4+
lymphokines
MHC II

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131
Q

(three types of T-cells) cytotoxic T-cells –> … T-cells
directly kill virally infected cells by inducing …
respond to antigens presented on …, bc these are attached to infected cells

A

CD8+;
apoptosis
MHC I

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132
Q

(three types of T-cells) …/… T-cells –> also CD4
different from helper, because they have …
… once infection has been contained
turn off … to prevent autoimmune disease –> …

A

suppressor; regulatory
Foxp3
suppress immune response
self-reactive lymphocytes; self-tolerance

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133
Q

… are also generated during an immune response

A

memory T-cells

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134
Q
five types of infectious pathogens: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... (no immune defense for this one)
A
bacteria
virus
fungi
parasites
prions
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135
Q

bacterial (extracellular pathogen) infections:
macrophages engulf bacteria and release … also present antigens via .. –> attract more inflammatory cells
… cells are activated and released histamine, resulting in increased leakiness of capillaries which augments immune cells’ ability to …

A

inflammatory mediators; MHC II

mast cells; travel to affected tissue

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136
Q

bacterial (extracellular pathogen) infections:
dendritic cells leave affected tissue and present antigens to … and … to initiate their responses
mainly … response is activated for T-cells –> … and …
… is helper cell that releases interferon gamma to activate macrophages and increase their ability to kill bacteria
… is helper cell that activates B-cells –> more common in parasitic infections

A

B-cells; T-cells
CD4+; Th1; Th2
Th1
Th2

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137
Q

viral (intracellular pathogen) infections:
infected cell produces … and present antigens via …
… T-cells will induce apoptosis in infected cells, or, if MHC has been downregulated, … will induce apoptosis

A

interferons; MHC-I

CD8+; natural killer cells

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138
Q

…: proteins and carbs present on the cell surface that indicate to the immune system that the cell is non-threatening and shouldn’t be attacked
…: cases where self is recognized as foreign

A

self-antigens

autoimmunity

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139
Q

… reactions: immune system recognizes foreign antigen as dangerous when it isn’t (allergies) as well as autoimmune rxns
negative selection for T-cells kills T-cells that respond to self-antigens

A

hypersensitivity

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140
Q

B-cells that respond to self-antigens are also eliminated before they can

A

leave bone marrow

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141
Q

… can have immunosuppressive qualities and can be used to treat autoimmune diseases

A

glucocorticoids

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142
Q

… immunity: immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific pathogen
natural/artificial
artificial = …

A

active

vaccines

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143
Q

… immunity: transfer of antibodies to an individual
temporary, bc the … that produce the antibodies are not being transferred
this occurs during pregnancy as antibodies are transferred across the placenta
can be done artificially too

A

passive; plasma cells

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144
Q

lymphatic system is a type of … system –> made of one way vessels that grow larger as they move toward … of the body
vessels contain … and most join to comprise the … which delivers lymph into the …

A
circulatory 
center 
lymph 
thoracic duct 
left subclavian vein
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145
Q

lymph nodes contain a …, an …, and a …
function as space for cells of immune system to be exposed to possible pathogens
act like a .. for immune cells

A

lymphatic channel; artery; vein

classroom

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146
Q

at arterial end of capillary beds, hydrostatic pressure is higher than oncotic, so some fluid remains in tissues. … drain these tissues and return the fluid to the bloodstream. these vessels function for …

A

lymphatic vessels; equalization of fluid distribution

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147
Q

…: key plasma protein

A

albumin

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148
Q

lymphatic system transports … from digestive system into the bloodstream
…: small lymphatic vessels located in the center of each villus in the small intestine. fats enter these for transport as …

A

fats
lacteals
chylomicrons

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149
Q

lymphatic fluid carrying chylomicrons is …

A

chyle

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150
Q

lymph nodes act as a location for antigen presenting cells and … to interact
…: collections of mature B-cells in the lymph nodes

A

lymphocytes

germinal centers

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151
Q

…: oxidation of glucose and fatty acids for energy

A

intracellular digestion

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152
Q

…: process by which nutrients are obtained from food

A

extracellular digestion

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153
Q

…: runs from the mouth to the anus and is sectioned off by sphincters

A

alimentary canal

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154
Q

…: circular smooth muscles around the canal that can contract to allow compartmentalization of function

A

sphincters

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155
Q

…: breakdown of food into its substituent components
…: physical breakdown of larger food particles into smaller food particles –> no breaking of chemical bonds
…: enzymatic cleavage of chemical bonds

A

digestion
mechanical digestion
chemical digestion

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156
Q

…: transport of products of digestion into the circulatory system for distribution to cells and tissues

A

absorption

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157
Q

digestive tract begins with …, to .., to .., to .., to …, to …, to …

A
oral cavity 
pharynx 
esophagus 
stomach 
small intestine 
large intestine 
rectum
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158
Q

…, …, …, and … help provide enzymes and lubrication to assist digestion

A

salivary glands
pancreas
live
gallbladder

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159
Q

… nervous system: 100 million neurons that govern function of GI system
present in walls of digestive tract and trigger …
can function independently of … and …
regulated by …
… stimulates digestive activities

A
enteric 
peristalsis 
spinal cord; brain 
autonomic NS 
parasympathetic NS
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160
Q

all of the glands of the body except the sweat glands are innervated by the …

A

parasympathetic NS

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161
Q

ADH and aldosterone trigger sensation of …, leading to …

A

thirst; fluid consumption

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162
Q

… and … (secreted by stomach and pancreas) trigger sensation of hunger

A

glucagon; ghrelin

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163
Q

… and … stimulate feelings of satiety

A

leptin; cholecystokinin

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164
Q

…: breaking up of large food particles by using the teeth, tongue, and lips
increases .. ratio, creating more .. for enzymatic digestion
also ensures that there won’t be any … risk from large food particles by breaking these down
mechanical

A

mastication;
surface area: volume; surface area
obstructive

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165
Q

… produce saliva:
aid mechanical digestion by … and … food
presence of food in oral cavity increases … stimulation of these glands such that salivation occurs. can also be triggered by … and … of food

A

salivary glands
moistening; lubricating
parasympathetic
sight; scent

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166
Q

salivary glands contain … (…) and …
… hydrolyzes starch
… hydrolyzes lipids

A

salivary amylase; ptyalin; lipase
salivary amylase
lipase

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167
Q

muscular tongue in mouth forms food into a … that is forced back into the pharynx and is swallowed

A

bolus

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168
Q

pharynx can be divided into three parts:
…: behind nasal cavity
…: at the back of the mouth
…: above the vocal cords
… prevents food from entering larynx during swallowing
no mechanical/chemical digestion in pharynx

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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169
Q

top third of esophagus is composed of …, bottom third is composed of …, middle third is mix –> top of esophagus is under … control (…), the bottom is under …. control (…)

A

skeletal muscle; smooth muscle; somatic motor; voluntary; autonomic; involuntary

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170
Q

… (…) occurs when peristalsis occurs in the reverse direction

A

emesis; vomiting

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171
Q

upper esophageal sphincter between … and …

A

pharynx; esophagus

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172
Q

lower esophageal sphincter/ … sphincter: between … and …

A

cardiac; esophagus; stomach

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173
Q

3 main energy sources: …, …, …

A

carbs; fats; proteins

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174
Q

no mechanical/chemical digestion in esophagus besides continued … initiated in mouth by salivary enzymes

A

enzymatic activity

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175
Q

stomach has a capacity of about …

A

2 L

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176
Q

stomach has thick … to prevent autodigestion from acids/enzymes in the stomach

A

mucous layer

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177
Q

stomach has four main anatomical divisions
… and … –> contain gastric glands
… and … –> contain pyloric glands

A

fundus; body

antrum; pylorus

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178
Q

internal curvature of the stomach is the … external curvature is the …

A

lesser curvature; greater curvature

179
Q

…: folds in lining of stomach

A

rugae

180
Q

gastric glands regulated by parasympathetic NS via the … –> activated by sight, taste, and smell of food

A

vagus nerve

181
Q

gastric glands secretes … cells, … cells and … cells

A

mucous; chief; parietal

182
Q

… cells: produce bicarbonate-rich mucous that protects muscular wall of stomach

A

mucous

183
Q

…: secretions from chief and parietal cells

A

gastric juice

184
Q

chief cells produce …, which is activated by … to become .., which cleaves peptide bonds near … amino acids to break down proteins

A

pepsinogen; hydrochloric acid; pepsin; aromatic

185
Q

pepsin most active at … ph, which is unique bc most human enzymes are most active at physiological pH

A

low;

186
Q

parietal cells secrete … and … –glycoprotein involved in absorption of vitamin B-12

A

HCl; intrinsic factor

187
Q

pyloric glands in stomach have an … function –> contain … cells that secrete …, which stimulates parietal cells such that more … is released

A

endocrine; G; gastrin; HCl

188
Q

gastrin also signals stomach to … such that its contents are …

A

contract; mixed

189
Q

…: semifluid, acidic mixture resulting from digestion in the stomach

A

chyme

190
Q

some nutrients are … directly from stomach (e.g. alcohol, aspirin), but stomach is mainly for digestion

A

absorbed

191
Q

3 segments of small intestine: …, …, …
… is the site of most of chemical digestion, minor involvement in absorption
absorption primarily occurs in … and …

A

duodenum; jejunum; ileum;
duodenum
jejunum; ileum

192
Q

…: between stomach and duodenum

A

pyloric sphincter

193
Q

chyme in the duodenum causes release of .. –> … and …, etc
… are present on cell surfaces lining the duodenum and break down dimers and trimers of biomolecules

A

brush-border enzymes; disaccharidases; peptidases

brush border enzymes

194
Q
disaccharidases digest disaccharides: 
... - ... 
... - ... 
... - ... 
... - ...
A

o Maltase – maltose
o Isomaltase – isomaltose
o Lactase – lactose
o Sucrase – sucrose

195
Q

lack of a disaccharidase = inability to digest corresponding disaccharide
… then hydrolyze disaccharide, releasing …
undigested disaccharides pull … into stool due to an … effect, causing diarrhea

A

bacteria; methane; water; osmotic

196
Q

… break down proteins:
…: secreted by glands in duodenum, removes N-terminal amino acid from a peptide
…: cleave peptide bonds of dipeptides, freeing individual amino acids
unlike carbs, di- and tripeptides can be absorbed across small intestine wall

A

peptidases
aminopeptidase
dipeptidases

197
Q

… is released by duodenum and activates other enzymes:
activates … to …
activates … and …

A

enteropeptidase
trypsinogen; trypsin
procarboxypeptidases A and B

198
Q

…: allows for release of pancreatic enzymes in the duodenum and opposes … in that it reduces HCl secretion from parietal cells and increases .. secretion from the pancreas

A

secretin; gastrin; bicarbonate

199
Q

secretin is an … –> slows motility through digestive tract to increase time for digestive enzymes to act on chyme

A

enterogastrone

200
Q

… stimulates release of bile and pancreatic juices and also promotes satiety

A

cholecystokinin

201
Q

..: consists of bile salts, pigments, and cholesterol –> is itself derived from …

not an …

A

bile; cholesterol; enzyme

202
Q

bile plays a role in mechanical digestion of … and facilitate chemical digestion of …
… fats and cholesterol into …, otherwise fats would separate from aqueous layer and would not be able to be acted upon by the water soluble enzyme …

A

fats; lipids
emulsify; micelles
pancreatic lipase

203
Q

bile
micelles increase … of fats, increasing speed of lipase’s action
bile brings fats into solution and increases surface area and lipase subsequently … holding lipids together

A

surface area;

hydrolyzes ester bonds

204
Q

… : mixture of several enzymes in a bicarbonate-rich alkaline solution
bicarbonate … and brings pH to optimum for digestive enzyme (around …

A

pancreatic juices
neutralizes acidic chyme
8.5

205
Q

accessory organs of digestion: …, …, …

A

pancreas; liver; gallbladder

206
Q

… cells: cells that produce pancreatic juices to execute endocrine function of pancreas

A

acinar

207
Q

pancreatic enzymes:

… : breaks down polysaccharides for carb digestion

A

pancreatic amylase

208
Q
pancreatic enzymes: 
..., ..., and ... 
produced in zymogen form but activated 
... activates ..., which activates the rest 
these are peptidases
A

trypsinogen; chymotrypsinogen; carboxypeptidases A and B

enteropeptidase; trypsin

209
Q

pancreatic enzymes:

…: breaks down fats into free fatty acids and glycerol

A

pancreatic lipase

210
Q

like all exocrine cells, acinar cells secrete their products into …, which empty into the duodenum through the major and minor …

A

ducts; duodenal papillae

211
Q

bile ducts connect … with the … and …

A

liver; gallbladder; small intestine

212
Q

… produces bile that is stored and concentrated in the …

A

liver; gallbladder

213
Q

liver receives blood draining from abdominal portion of the digestive tract via … –> blood is processed by liver and then enters … to make its way back to the heart

A

hepatic portal vein

inferior vena cava

214
Q

liver can take up excess sugar by producing … and can store fats as …
can also undo these via … and … and mobilizing fats in …

A

glycogen; triacylglycerols

glycogenolysis; gluconeogenesis; lipoprotiens

215
Q

liver detoxifies … and … compounds

A

endogenous; exogenous

216
Q

…: major pigment in bile –> byproduct of .. breakdown

A

bilirubin; hemoglobin

217
Q

bilirubin is … (attached to a protein_ and secreted into bile for excretion

A

conjugated

218
Q

… occurs when bilirubin can’t be excreted by the liver –> indicative of liver damage/ too much …/ blockage of …

A

jaundice; RBC destruction; bile ducts

219
Q

liver synthesizes certain proteins:
…: maintains plasma oncotic pressure and acts as a carrier for some drugs and hormones
…: important for blood coagulation

A

albumin; clotting factors

220
Q

…: contracts and pushes bile out into biliary tree and empties into duodenum
bile duct system merges with …

A

gallbladder; pancreatic duct

221
Q

… or … can form in gallbladder and can potentially block the … and … (latter would lead to pancreatitis)

A

cholesterol; bilirubin; biliary tree; pancreatic duct

222
Q

accessory organs of digestion originate from the

A

embryonic endoderm

223
Q

large intestine largely

A

absorbs water

224
Q

small intestine lined with … –> small, fingerlike projections from epithelial lining

A

villi

225
Q

each villus has … that increases SA for absorption
at the middle of each villus is a … for absorption of water soluble nutrients and a …, which takes up fats for transport into the lymphatic system

A

microvilli

capillary bed; lacteal

226
Q

simple sugars and amino acids are absorbed by … and … into the epithelial cells lining the small intestine
they move into … and are picked up the bloodstream, travelling down their concentration gradient
the absorbed molecules are brought to the liver via the …

A

secondary active transport; facilitated diffusion; intestinal capillaries; hepatic portal circulation

227
Q

small fatty acids diffuse directly into … –> … so can pass through cell membranes

A

intestinal capillaries; nonpolar

228
Q

larger fats, glycerol, and cholesterol move into … and reform … these are packaged into … and enter lymphatic system via lacteals. lacteals converge and enter … through thoracic duct, and this is emptied into …

A

intestinal cells; triglycerides
chylomicrons
venous circulation; left subclavian vein

229
Q

… are absorbed in the small intestine –> fat and water soluble

A

vitamins

230
Q

fat soluble vitamins dissolve into … to enter the body

water-soluble vitamins pass directly into …

A

chylomicrons

plasma

231
Q

avg person may consume up to 2 L of fluid per day, but secretions into the upper GI tract my total up to … L of fluid per day. to maintain proper fluid levels, much of this fluid must be …

A

7 L; reabsorbed by osmosis

232
Q

water passes … (across cell membrane) and … (squeezing between cells) to reach blood

A

transcellularly; paracellulary

233
Q

large intestine consists of the …, …, and …

larger … but .. than small intestine

A

cecum; colon; rectum

diameter; shorter

234
Q

cecum accepts fluid exiting small intestine through the … valve and is site of attachment of the …

A

ileococcal; appendix

235
Q

appendix used to be thought of as vestigial. may be useful against some … and repopulating large intestine with … after ..

A

bacterial infections; flora; diarrhea

236
Q

colon is divided into …, …, …, and … colons

A

ascending; transverse; descending; sigmoid

237
Q

colon absorbs … and … from undigested material left over from small intestine
small intestine absorbs more water than colon
colon primarily concentrates ..

A

water; salts;

remaining material to feces

238
Q

rectum … which consists of indigestible material, water, bacteria, digestive secretions that are not reabsorbed, and some bile

A

stores feces

239
Q

anus is opening through which … –> two sphincters: … and .. sphincters
… is under involuntary control
… is under voluntary control

A

feces is excreted
internal and external anal sphincters;
internal
external

240
Q

bacteria in intestine have … relationships

some produce …, …, etc

A

symbiotic

vitamin K; biotin

241
Q
excretory system: 
... 
... 
... 
...
A

kidneys
ureters
bladder
urethra

242
Q

functional unit of kidney = …

A

nephron

243
Q

nephrons empty into …, which narrows to form …

A

renal pelvis; ureter

244
Q

urine travels through ureter to …and exits the body through the ..

A

bladder; urethra

245
Q

kidney is subdivided into a .. and a …
…: outermost layer
…: within the cortex

A

cortex; medulla
cortex
medulla

246
Q

kidney has a … –> deep slit in center of medial surface
widest part of the ureter (…) spans almost the entire width of this
…, …, and ureter enter and exit through this slit

A

renal hilium
renal pelvis
renal artery; renal vein

247
Q

kidney has a portal system:
renal artery branches into cortex as …
..: capillary tufts derived from these

A

afferent arterioles

glomeruli

248
Q

kidney has a portal system contd:

after blood passes through a glomerulus, the … form a second capillary bed that surrounds .. –> …

A

efferent arterioles; loop of Henle; vasa recta

249
Q

glomerulus is surrounded by a … which leads to .., then … and … of the …, …, and …

A

Bowman’s capsule; proximal convoluted tubule; descending and ascending limbs of the Loop of Henle; distal convoluted tubule; collecting duct

250
Q

…: muscular lining of the bladder

contracts via … activity

A

detrusor muscle; parasympathetic

251
Q

to leave body urine must pass both the … and …

A

internal urethral; external urethral sphincters

252
Q

internal urethral sphincter is under … control is and is typically … –> made of …
external urethral sphincter is … and is made of … muscle

A

autonomic; contracted; smooth muscle

voluntary; skeletal

253
Q

…: when bladder is full, .. receptors communicate to NS that it needs emptying, detrusor muscle contracts and … relax
individual’s choice at this point to pee or not

A

micturition reflex; stretch; internal sphincter

254
Q

if blood volume is low and blood osmolarity is high, … would be most beneficial, resulting in … volume, … urine

A

retention of water; low; highly concentrated

255
Q

if someone has sufficient quantities of fluid, they will have .. volume, … urine

A

larger; less concentrated

256
Q

primary job of kidneys is to regulate … and …

A

blood volume; osmolarity

257
Q

kidney function divided into three processes: …, …, …

A

filtration; secretion; reabsorption

258
Q

filtration occurs at level of .. and …. The latter collects filtrate. this is governed by ..

A

glomerulus; Bowman’s capsule; Starling forces

259
Q

… pressure in glomerulus is higher than in Bowman’s space such that fluid moves …
small molecules dissolved in blood will pass through tiny pores of glomerulus, whereas large molecules such as … and … will not. if these larger molecule are found in urine, indicates a health problem at level of …

A

hydrostatic; into nephron

proteins; blood cells; glomerulus

260
Q

filtrate is … to blood so that neither capsule nor capillaries swell

A

isotonic

261
Q

nephrons secrete …, …, …, and … into tubule via active and passive transport mechanisms

A

salts; acids; bases; urea

262
Q

… is byproduct of metabolism of nitrogen containing compounds –> basic, can disturb pH of blood and cells
… neutralizes it by converting it to …, which is secreted into the nephron for excretion

A

ammonia; liver; urea

263
Q

kidneys can eliminate ions/other substances present in excess –> … cations, … ions, metabolites of …, etc

A

K+; H+; medication

264
Q

secretion is also for excreting wastes that are … to pass through glomerular pores

A

too large

265
Q

..: some filtered/secreted compounds are taken back up, namely …, …, …

A

reabsorption; glucose; amino acids; vitamins

266
Q

kidney’s two main goals: … and … and … to ..

A

keep what the body needs and lose what it doesn’t and concentrate the urine to conserve water

267
Q

bowman’s capsule, PCT, and DCT are focused on the … in urine. Loop of Henle and collecting duct are focused on … and … of urine

A

identity of particles; volume; concentration

268
Q

filtrate goes from Bowman’s capsule to proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) –> …, …, …, and … are reabsorbed along with water
filtrate still …
solutes that enter the interstitium reenter the bloodstream via the …
secretion of waste products –> …, …, …, …

A

amino acids
glucose
water-soluble vitamins
salts

H+
K+
ammonia
urea

269
Q

waste products excreted in urine mnemonic:

A
dump the HUNK 
H: H+ 
U: Urea 
N: NH3 
K: K+
270
Q

descending limb of loop of Henle: permeable to … only, deep in …, medulla has …, so water is … here

A

water; medulla; higher osmolarity; reabsorbed

271
Q

deeper in medulla, osmolarity in interstitium can range from isotonic to blood (when trying to …) to … (when trying to …)

A

excrete water; four times as concentrated; conserve water

272
Q

… system created by vasa recta –> two run in opposite directions
flow of … is in opposite direction as …, such that filtrate is constantly being exposed to … blood to allow maximal reabsorption of water

A

countercurrent multiplier; filtrate through Loop of Henle; flow of blood; hypertonic

273
Q

ascending limb is permeable only to … –> as filtrate moves up ascending loop, … will be reabsorbed

A

salt; salt

274
Q

as we go from inner to outer medulla, loop of Henle becomes … –> … segment
cells lining tube are larger here, bc they have a lot of … to allow for reabsorption of … and … by active transport
only portion of nephron that can produce urine that is more … than blood –> important in cases of overhydration

A

thicker; diluting; mitochondria; sodium; chloride; dilute

275
Q

compared to beginning of loop of Henle, there is a net … in the volume of filtrate, net … of a lot of water

A

decrease; reabsorption

276
Q

in the DCT (distal convoluted tubule), … is reabsorbed along with … and waste products are also secreted

A

sodium; water

277
Q

at the collecting duct, more … may be reabsorbed depending on its permeability
collecting ducts response to … and …
everything that stays in collecting duct is …

A

water
ADH; aldosterone
excreted

278
Q

kidney can influence …, …, and … balance

A

blood pressure; blood osmolarity; acid-base balance

279
Q

kidney:
blood pressure –> through … and …
… prompts reabsorption of isotonic fluid that increases blood … and …
… makes collecting duct more leaky
constriction of … will lead to lower pressure of blood reaching glomeruli, which will lead to … release, helping to raise BP

A

ADH; aldosterone
aldosterone; volume; pressure
ADH
afferent arterioles; lenin

280
Q

kidneys & osmoregulation:
osmotic pressure = sucking pressure that draws water into vasculature by …
oncotic pressure = osmotic pressure attributable to …

A

all dissolved particles

dissolved proteins

281
Q

kidneys and osmoregulation:
normal blood osmolarity is about … milliosomoles
low blood osmolarity = excretion of …, reabsorption of …
high blood osmolarity = … reabsorption, … excretion

A

290
excess water; solutes
water; solute

282
Q

kidneys & pH:

kidneys can selectively excrete either … or …

A

H+; bicarbonate

283
Q

layers of the skin (from deepest to most superficial):
… (..)

..

A

hypodermis; subcutaneous
dermis
epidermis

284
Q

skin is derived from … in embryo

A

ectoderm

285
Q

epidermis subdivided into …

A

strata

286
Q

strata (deepest to most superficial):
…: contains stem cells, proliferation of keratinocytes, which produce keratin
…: become connected to each other –> site of Langerhans cells
…: keratinocytes die and lose nuclei
…: only present in thick, hairless skin, nearly transparent
…: contains up to several dozen layers of flattened keratinocytes, protective barrier, contains hair and openings for sweat and sebaceous glands

A
stratum basale 
stratum spinosum 
stratum granulosum 
stratum lucidum 
stratum corneum
287
Q

…: resistant to damage and protects against injury, water, pathogens

A

keratin

288
Q

…: excessive keratin deposition to prevent future damage in areas of repeated strain
.. and … are formed from keratin

A

calluses

fingernails; hair

289
Q

…: derived from neutral crest cells in the stratum basale, produce melanin

A

melanocytes

290
Q

…: pigment that protects against UV

A

melanin

291
Q

melanin passed to …

more active melanocytes = …

A

keratinocytes

darker skin tones

292
Q

… cells: special macrophages within the stratum spinosum, antigen-presenting cells

A

Langerhans

293
Q

dermis consists of multiple layers:
… layer –> upper layer, loos connective tissue
… layer –> denser, below papillary

A

papillary

reticular

294
Q

…, …, and … originate in dermis, as do most sensory receptors

A

sweat glands; blood vessels; hair follicles

295
Q

… cells (..): sensory receptors present at epidermal-dermal junction –> deep pressure and texture sensation

A

merkel; discs

296
Q
dermis:
.. respond to pain 
... --> light touch 
... --> stretch 
... --> deep pressure and vibration
A

free nerve endings
Meissner’s corpuscles
Ruffini endings
Pacinian corpuscles

297
Q

…: connective tissue that connects skin to rest of body; contains fat and fibrous tissue

A

hyperdermis

298
Q

thermoregulation achieved by …, …, …, …

A

sweating; piloerection; vasodilation; vasoconstriction

299
Q

sweating –> … neurons use … and promote secretion of water with certain ions – evaporates, along with heat
… also occurs to maximize heat loss

A

postganglionic sympathetic; acetylcholine; arteriolar vasodilation

300
Q

… muscles contract to cause piloerection –> traps heated air near skin
arterioles …, limiting blood supply reaching skin
shivering – uses …, converted to thermal energy

A

arrector pili; constrict; ATP

301
Q

… insulates body:

… – much less efficient electron transport chain, more heat energy subsequently released

A

fat
white fat
brown fat

302
Q

skin maintains … of the body –> impermeable to … –> none enters or leaves the skin

A

osmolarity; water

303
Q

contraction relies on …

A

calcium ions

304
Q

skeletal muscle is … –> innervated by … NS

A

voluntary; somatic

305
Q

skeletal muscle is striated due to arrangement of … –> repeating units of … and …
… because individual muscle cells fuse in …

A

sarcomeres; actin; myosin

multinucleated; long rods

306
Q

skeletal muscle has … and … fibers

A

red; white

307
Q

red fibers –> … fibers

high … content

A

slow-twitch; myoglobin

308
Q

myoglobin carries … and uses … in a heme group to bind it, the latter thing gives it its red color

A

oxygen; iron

309
Q

red fibers contd:
aerobic metabolism –> …
seen more in muscles that … and …. (muscles that support posture)

A

oxidative phosphorylation

contract slowly; fatigue slowly

310
Q

white fibers in skeletal muscle –> … fibers
… myoglobin content
seen more in muscles that …, but … as well

A

fast-twitch;
low
contract rapidly; fatigue rapidly

311
Q

smooth muscle is …, innervated by …

A

involuntary; autonomic NS

312
Q
smooth muscle found in: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
etc
A
respiratory tree
digestive tract 
bladder
uterus
blood vessel walls
313
Q

smooth muscle:
single … in center
contain … and … as well but not in a striated pattern
capable of more sustained …

A

nucleus
actin; myosin;
contractions

314
Q

smooth muscle contd:

…: constant state of low-level contraction –> seen in blood vessels

A

tonus

315
Q

(smooth muscle) …: ability to contract without nervous system input
for smooth muscle, contraction is response to … or other stimuli

A

myogenic activity; stretch

316
Q

cardiac muscle is identified separately, but has characteristics of both skeletal and smooth muscle:
mostly …, but some cells have … nuclei
…, innervated by … nervous system
appears …

A

uninucleated; 2
involuntary; autonomic
striated

317
Q

cardiac myocytes are connected by … that contain … –> allow for direct flow of ions between cells, for quick and coordinated … and …

A

intercalated discs; gap junctions; depolarization; contraction

318
Q

cardiac muscle displays … activity as well –> … initiating electrical impulse for contraction

A

myogenic; sinoatrial node

319
Q

epinephrine allows for greater contractility of cardiac muscle by increasing …

A

intracellular calcium levels

320
Q

…: basic contractile unit of skeletal muscle

A

sarcomere

321
Q

sarcomere:
… filaments: bundles of myosin
… filaments: actin + troponin and tropomyosin

A

thick

thin

322
Q

sarcomere:

.. and … help regulate interaction between actin and myosin

A

troponin; tropomyosin

323
Q

(sarcomere)

…: anchors actin and myosin filaments, prevents excessive stretching of muscle

A

titin

324
Q

(sarcomere) … defines boundaries of each sarcomere
…: runs down center of sarcomere, through the middle of myosin filaments
…: contains exclusively thin filaments
…: contains exclusively thick filaments
…: all of the thick filaments, including its overlap with thin filaments

A
Z-line
M-line
I-band
H-zone
A-band
325
Q

(sarcomere) during contraction, .. remains constant in size, while everything else becomes …

A

A-band; smaller

326
Q

sarcomeres are attached end-to-end to form …, which are covered by …, a modified ER that has a large concentration of…

A

myofibirils; sarcoplasmic reticulum; calcium

327
Q

..: modified cytoplasm outside of SR

A

sarcoplasm

328
Q

…: cell membrane of a myocyte

can propagate an action potential and distribute it to all sarcomeres using … which are perpendicular to myofibrils

A

sarcolemma; transverse tubules

329
Q

…: muscle cell/muscle fiber

A

myocyte

330
Q

myocyte: contains many … in parallel (this is for skeletal muscle)
nuclei are usually found at … of cell

A

myofibrils; periphery

331
Q

any myocytes in parallel = …

A

muscle

332
Q

contraction is initiated at the … –> where NS and muscle communicates via … (…) neurons

A

neuromuscular junction; motor; efferent

333
Q

for muscle contraction:
signal travels to …, which for neuromuscular junctions, can also be called the …
… is released into the synapse and binds to the adjacent sarcolemma to cause …

A

nerve terminals; motor end plate

acetylcholine; depolarization

334
Q

for muscle contraction:

each nerve terminal controls

A

a group of myocytes

335
Q

for muscle contraction:

nerve terminal + myocytes =

A

motor unit

336
Q

for muscle contraction: depolarization triggers action potential that spreads to the …., which allow the action potential to reach the sarcoplasmic reticulum. … is released at this point

A

t-tubules; Ca2+

337
Q

for muscle contraction:
calcium binds to subunit in .., changing the conformation of … (these two are bound to one another). this exposes … sites on …

A

troponin; tropomyosin; myosin binding; actin thin filament

338
Q

for muscle contraction:

myosin then binds to exposed sites, pulling the actin toward the …, and consequently … the sarcomere

A

M-line; shortening

339
Q

for muscle contraction:
myosin is activated by …
… to myosin head releases it from actin
… recocks myosin head so that it can initiate another cross-bridge cycle with an actin filament

A

ATP hydrolysis
ATP binding
ATP hydrolysis

340
Q

for muscle contraction:
…. model: repetitive binding and releasing of myosin heads on actin allows for thin filament to slide along thick filament, shortening sarcomere –> this is …

A

sliding filament; contraction

341
Q

for muscle contraction:
to allow for muscle relaxation, acetylcholine is degraded in synapse by … –> allows sarcolemma to ..
… is taken up by sarcoplasmic reticulum and ATP … to release it from actin

A

acetylcholinesterase; repolarize

calcium; binds to myosin

342
Q

like with neurons, stimuli for muscle must reach a … for a response to occur
…: when all fibers within a muscle contract at the same time

A

threshold

maximal response

343
Q

…: response of a single muscle fiber to a brief stimulus
…: time between reaching threshold and onset of contraction –> this is when action potential can spread and calcium can be released

A

simple twitch

latent period

344
Q

…: when muscle is exposed to frequent and prolonged stimulation, such as there is little time to relax –> contractions …, … and …

A

frequency summation

combine; strengthening; lasting longer

345
Q

…: when contractions are so frequent that muscle cannot relax at all –> can lead to muscle fatigue

A

tetanus

346
Q

two supplemental energy reserves in muscle besides normal oxidative phosphorylation:
… created by transferring phosphate group from ATP to … during times of rest. rxn can be reversed during muscle use to quickly generate ATP
… can be used to sustain aerobic metabolism

A

creatine phosphate; creatine

myoglobin

347
Q

two supplemental energy reserves in muscle besides normal oxidative phosphorylation:
white muscle fibers must use … and … to make ATP since they don’t have as much …

A

glycolysis; fermentation; mitochondria

348
Q

…: difference between amount of oxygen needed by muscles and actual amount present

A

oxygen debt

349
Q

…: internal, cannot protect soft tissues

A

endoskeleton

350
Q

…: external, must be shed and regrown to accomton modate growth

A

exoskeleton

351
Q

…: provides basic central framework for body



… (small bone in anterior neck used for swallowing)

A
axial skeleton 
skull 
vertebral column 
ribcage
hyoid bone
352
Q

… skeleton: bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle (… and …), pelvis

A

appendicular; scapula; clavicle

353
Q
bones of the limbs: 
upper limbs: 
... 
.. and ... 
... 
... 
... 
lower limbs: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
...
A
humerus 
radius and ulna 
carpals 
metacarpals
phalanges 
femur
tibia 
fibula
tarsals
metatarsals
phalanges
354
Q

…: connective tissue derived from embryonic …

A

bone; mesoderm

355
Q

bone strength comes from … –> dense and strong

A

compact bone

356
Q

…./… bone: lattice structure, consists of bony points known as trabeculae

A

spongy; cancellous

357
Q

cavities between trabeculae are filled with …
…: filled with hematopoietic stem cells
…: mainly fat, inactive

A

bone marrow
red bone marrow
yellow marrow

358
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton are usually …

A

long bones

359
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton are usually long bones:

long bones have cylindrical shafts –> …, swell at each end to form .., which terminate in…

A

diaphyses; metaphyses; epiphyses

360
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton are usually long bones:
outermost part of bone –> … bone
inner portion of bone –> … bone
diaphyses and metaphyses are full of …

A

compact
spongy
bone marrow

361
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton are usually long bones:
epiphyses uses spongy core for effective ….. at joints
… at internal edge –> site of … growth, these seal at puberty

A

force and pressure dispersion;

epiphyseal (growth) plate; longitudinal

362
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton are usually long bones:
…: fibrous sheath that surrounds long bone to protect it and act as site for muscle attachment
some of these cells can differentiate into … cells –> necessary for bone growth and repair

A

periosteum

bone-forming

363
Q

…: attach muscle to bone

…: hold bones together at joints

A

tendons

ligaments

364
Q

…: contributes to strength of compact bone, has both organic and inorganic components

A

bone matrix

365
Q

(bone matrix) organic:


other …

A

collagen
glycoproteins
peptides

366
Q
(bone matrix) inorganic: 
... 
.. 
... 
these harden to form ... crystals
A

calcium
phosphate
hydroxide
hydroxyapatite

367
Q

(bone matrix) … (e.g. sodium, magnesium, potassium) also stored in bone

A

minerals

368
Q

(bone matrix) structural units: …./…. systems

A

osteons; Haversian

369
Q

(bone matrix) osteons contain concentric circles of bony matrix called … surrounding central channel –>
longitudinal channels = …
transverse channels = …

A

lamellae;
Haversian canals
Volkmann’s canals

370
Q

(bone matrix) canals contain …, …, and …

A

blood vessels; nerve fibers; lymph vessels

371
Q

(bone matrix) …: spaces between lamellar rings that house mature bone cells known as …
interconnected by … –> allow for exchange of nutrients/waste between osteocytes and Haversian and Volkmann’s canals

A

lacunae; osteocytes

canaliculi

372
Q

… build bone

A

osteoblasts

373
Q

…: polynucleated bone macrophages; resorb bone

releases ingredients of bones such as … and …

A

osteoclasts; calcium; phosphate

374
Q

parathyroid hormone promotes … and thus increases … and … concs in the blood

A

bone resorption; calcium; phosphate

375
Q

… promotes bone resorption –> encourage growth of new, stronger bone

A

vitamin D

376
Q

…: promotes bone formation and consequently lowers calcium concs

A

calcitonin

377
Q

…: has elastic matrix called chondrin, secreted by …
present in adults in external ear, nose, walls of … and …, …, and joints
… ( no blood/lymphatic vessels) and is not …, unlike bone

A

cartilage; chrondrocytes
larynx; trachea; intervertebral discs;
avascular; innervated

378
Q

most bones are made by … into bone –> ..

A

hardening cartilage; endochondral ossification

379
Q

…: undifferentiated embryonic connective tissue (… tissue) is transformed into bone
occurs in skull

A

intramembranous ossification; mesenchymal

380
Q

joints: also made of … tissue

A

connective

381
Q

…: bones that are fused to form sutures/similar fibrous joints –> primary in head to anchor bones of skull together

A

immovable

382
Q

movable joints: … joints, … joints, etc

A

hinge; ball-and-socket

383
Q

movable jointes:
allow bones to shift relative to one another
strengthened by …
consist of a … that encloses the joint/articular cavity
synovium secretes … to lubricate movement
… coats articular surfaces so that impact is restricted to the lubricated joint cartilage instead of the bone

A

ligaments
synovial capsule
synovial fluid
articular cartilage

384
Q

contraction of muscle attached to two bones will cause one of the bones to move:

origin: end of muscle with …. to bone (tends to be the … connection)
insertion: end with … to bone (tends to be … connection)

A

larger attachment; proximal

smaller attachment; distal

385
Q

… pairs: one muscle relaxes while another contracts

occurs in arm –> biceps and triceps

A

antagonistic

386
Q

…: muscles work together to accomplish the same function

A

synergistic

387
Q

…: decreases angle across a joint

A

flexor muscle

388
Q

…: increases/straightens angle across joint

A

extensor

389
Q

…: moves a part of the body away from the midline

A

abductor

390
Q

…: moves body part towards the midline

A

adductor

391
Q

… and …: motions that occur in limbs
…: rotates the axis of the limb toward the midline
…: rotates the axis of the limb away from the midline

A

medial and lateral rotation
medial rotator
lateral rotator

392
Q

every human has two copies of each chromosome: …

exception: X gene in males

A

homologues

393
Q

…: when only 1 allele is present for a given gene –> as it is for X chromosomes in males

A

hemizygous

394
Q

…: when there is more than one dominant allele for a given gene
AB blood type

A

codominance

395
Q

…: heterozygote has a phenotype that is an intermediate between the two homozygous genotypes

A

incomplete dominance

396
Q

…: proportion of the population with a given genotype who actually express the phenotype

A

penetrance

397
Q

penetrance:
…. penetrance: 100 % of individuals with an allele exhibit its phenotype
… penetrance: most, but not all, with the allele exhibit its phenotype
… penetrance, … penetrance, …

A
full 
high 
reduced
low
nonpenetrance
398
Q

…: different manifestations of the same genotype across the population
…: all individuals with a given genotype express the same phenotype
…: individuals with the same genotype may have different phenotypes

A

expressivity
constant
variable

399
Q

mendel’s first law of segregation:
genes exist in alternative forms as …
organism has 2 alleles for each gene
two alleles …, such that the haploid gametes only have one copy of each allele
if an organism has two different alleles, one will be dominant and the other will be recessive –> … and … are exceptions

A

alleles
segregate during meiosis
codominance; incomplete dominance

400
Q

Mendel’s second law of independent assortment:
inheritance of one gene is … of another gene
this is due to … during meiosis which pretty much randomizes what genes a future child would have
… are an exception

A

independent of inheritance;
recombination
linked genes

401
Q

Griffith’s experiment on mice revealed that there was some … that allowed nonvirulent strains to transform into the virulent strains that killed the mice

A

transforming principle

402
Q

avery, macleod, and mccarty confirmed the idea of the transforming principle by isolated subcellular components of the bacteria and seeing which would cause the transformation to occur –> transformation didn’t occur when … was used
conclusion: transforming factor = …

A

DNAse; DNA

403
Q

hershey and chase labeled bacteriophages with … (in proteins but not DNA) and another group with … (in DNA but not proteins)
bacteriophages inject their genetic material into bacteria and leave protein capsides
infected cells were labeled with .., indicating that … is the source of genetic material

A

radioactive sulfur; radioactive phosphorus
radioactive phosphorus
DNA

404
Q

…: all alleles that exist within a species

A

gene pool

405
Q

..: elements that can insert and remove themselves from the genome
if inserted into coding mutation, will be a mutation that will disrupt the gene

A

transposon

406
Q

…: when one nucleotide in DNA is swapped for another
…: change in nucleotide has no effect on final protein synthesized –> most common when mutation is in the third nucleotide in a codon because there is … in the genetic code
…: mutation results in substitution of one amino acid for another in final protein
…: when the change in nucleotide results in early termination of a protein by substituting an amino acid with a stop codon

A

point mutations
silent; degeneracy
missense
nonsense

407
Q

.. mutations: insertions/deletions
shift the reading frame
can lead to changes in amino acid sequence/early termination

A

frameshift

408
Q

… mutations: larger scale mutations in which large segments of DNA are affected

A

chromosomal

409
Q

chromosomal mutations:
…: large segment of DNA is lost from a chromosome
…: segment of DNA is copied multiple times in the genome
…: segment of DNA is reversed in the chromosome
…: segment of DNA is moved from one chromosome to another
…: segment of DNA from one chromosome is swapped with segment of DNA from another

A
deletion 
duplication 
inversion 
insertion 
translocation
410
Q

…: defects in genes required for metabolism

can lead to buildup of metabolites in various pathways

A

inborn errors of metabolism

411
Q

…: flow of genes between species
… offspring
can result in net flow of genes from one species to the other if offspring is viable and fertile

A

genetic leakage

hybrid

412
Q

…: changes in composition of gene pool due to change

… effect in small populations

A

genetic drift

greater

413
Q

genetic drift:
…: small population is in reproductive isolation from the rest of the population
…: drastically and suddenly reduce size of population available for breeding –> chances of … increases
… genetic diversity

A

founder effect
bottlenecks
inbreeding
reduces

414
Q

…: loss of genetic variation that reduces population fitness

A

inbreeding depression

415
Q

…/…: introduction of unrelated individuals into a breeding group
can increase variation and fitness

A

outbreeding; outcrossing

416
Q

…: cross in which one trait is being studied

A

monohybrid

417
Q

…/…: individuals being crossed

…/…: offspring of P generation

A

parent/P generation

filial/F generation

418
Q

…: used to determine an unknown genotype by crossing the organism with an unknown genotype with an organism known to be homozygous recessive
also called …

A

test cross

back crosses

419
Q

…: accounts for inheritance of two different genes

A

dihybrid cross

420
Q

… (…) traits:
females can be homozygous/heterozygous
males are hemizygous
e.g. hemophilia

A

sex-linked; X-linked

421
Q

genes that are very close together on a chromosome are less likely to be … during …

A

separated from each other; crossing over

422
Q

…: likelihood that two alleles are separated from each other during crossing over

A

recombination frequency

423
Q
recombination frequency (theta) is approximately proportional to ... on a chromosome 
tightly linked genes have recomb frequencies close to ...% and weakly linked genes have recomb frequencies approaching ...
A

distance between genes

0; 50%

424
Q

…: represents relative distance between genes on a chromosome
…/…: 1% chance of recombination occurring between two genes

A

genetic map

map unit; centimorgan

425
Q

…: how often allele appears in a population

A

allele frequency

426
Q

five tenets of hardy-weinberg equilibrium:
population is very … –> no …
no …
… –> no …
no …
no … –> all the genes are equally successful at reproducing

A
large; genetic drift 
mutation 
random mating; sexual selection 
migration 
differential success
427
Q

P + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1
… is dominant, … is recessive
first equation is for … frequencies
second equation is for … frequencies

A

p; q
allelic
genotypic

428
Q

tenets of natural selection:
organisms produce offspring, few of which survive to …
chance variations within population may be … if they confer advantage, they are favorable
those with more favorable variations are more likely to survive and reproduce –> have …
fitness directly related to relative … of the individual to the next generation

A

reproductive maturity
heritable
increased fitness
genetic contribution

429
Q

…/..: integrates genetic inheritance and changes to gene pool with Darwin’s original theory

A

modern-synthesis model; neo-Darwinism

430
Q

modern-synthesis model:
when mutations/recombination results in favorable change, they are more likely to be passed on to next generation –> …
…: measure of an organism’s success in a population –> … of offspring, …, and ability of the offspring to then …

A

differential reproduction

inclusive fitness; number; success in supporting offspring; support others

431
Q

modern-synthesis model:

inclusive fitness promotes idea that … can improve fitness and success of species as a whole

A

altruistic behavior

432
Q

modern-synthesis model:

…: changes in some species occur in rapid bursts rather than evenly over time

A

punctuated equilibrium

433
Q

… selection keeps phenotypes within a specific range by selecting against extremes

A

stabilizing

434
Q

…. selection: adaptive pressure leads to emergence and dominance of an initially extreme phenotype

A

directional

435
Q

… selection: two extremes selected over the norm

facilitated by existence of …: naturally occurring differences in form between members of the same population

A

disruptive

polymorphisms

436
Q

…: describes the rapid rise of different species from a common ancestor
allows for various species to occupy different niches

A

adaptive radiation

437
Q

…: specific environment, including habitat, available resources, and predators, for which a species can be specifically adapted

A

niche

438
Q

adaptive radiation

favored by …./… of … groups of the ancestral species

A

environmental changes; isolation of small groups

439
Q

geographic isolation can lead to … in that it can lead to … as genetic differences begin to accumulate between the separated populations

A

speciation; reproductive isolation

440
Q
... mechanisms of isolation prevent formation of the zygote completely: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
...
A
prezygotic
temporal 
ecological 
behavioral 
reproductive 
gametic
441
Q

… mechanisms allow for gamete fusion but yield either nonviable or sterile offspring

A

postzygotic

442
Q

postzygotic mecahnisms:
hybrid …: zygote that can’t develop to term
hybrid …: hybrid that can’t reproduce
hybrid …: first generation is viable and fertile, but second generation is inviable or infertile

A

inviability
sterility
breakdown

443
Q

three patterns of evolution:
…: independent development of dissimilar characteristics in two+ lineages sharing a common ancestor
… evolution: related species evolve in similar ways in response to analogous environmental selection pressures –> share a common ancestor
… evolution: independent development of similar characteristics in two or more lineages not sharing a recent common ancestor

A

divergent
parallel
convergent

444
Q

… model: evolutionists correlate degree of genomic similarity with amount of time since two species split off from the same common ancestor –> more similar the genomes, the more recently the two species …

A

molecular clock; separated from each other