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Kaplan Bio Flashcards

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1
Q 
cell theory: 
all … are made of cells 
cell is the … of life 
cells can arise only from … 
cells carry … as …, which is passed from each parent cell to its subsequent daughter cell
A

living things
basic functional unit
other preexisting cells
genetic information; DNA

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2
Q

viruses, unlike cells, cannot … directly and can have … as their genetic material. thus, they are not living

A

reproduce; RNA

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3
Q

(nucleus) contains all of the genetic material necessary for …
surrounded by a … or …

A

replication; nuclear membrane; envelope

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4
Q

(nucleus) … in the membrane allow for exchange of molecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

A

nuclear pores

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5
Q

(nucleus) linear DNA has organizing proteins known as … and is further wound into … –> these package and order the DNA into … (beads on a string)

A

histones; chromosomes

nucleosomes

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6
Q

(nucleus) … is where rRNA is synthesized –> 25% of the nucleus’s volume

A

nucleolus

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7
Q

(mitochondria) has outer and inner membrane:
outer membrane is the barrier between the … and the …
inner membrane is highly … (…) and contains the molecules and enzymes for the …

A

inner enviro; cytosol

invaginated; cristae; electron transport chain

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8
Q

(mitochondria) function of the cristae is to … available for electron transport chain enzymes
space between membranes is … –> allows for … to build for e- transport chain

A

increase surface area

intermembrane space; proton gradient

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9
Q

(mitochondria) …: space inside the inner membrane –> gel-like substance
mito is … –> has its own genes and replicate independently of the nucleus via … –> supports theory that mitochondria arose from anaerobic prokaryotic cell that was invaginated

A

matrix

semi-autonomous; binary fission

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10
Q

(mitochondria) … –> transmission of genetic material independent of the nucleus

A

cytoplasmic/extranuclear inheritance

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11
Q

(mitochondria) mitochondria is the source of … –> process begins when the mitochondria releases enzymes from the e- transport chain

A

apoptosis

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12
Q

(lysosomes) contain … enzymes –> digestive organelle

lysosomes work with … –> transport, package, and sort cell material coming to and from the cell membrane

A

hydrolytic enzymes

endosomes

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13
Q

(lysosomes) endosomes: transport material to the …, …, or … pathway

A

trans-Golgi; cell membrane; llysosomal

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14
Q

(lysosomes) lysosomes are also involved in apoptosis. when they release their …, the cell dies

A

hydrolytic enzymes

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15
Q

(endoplasmic reticulum) contains a … membrane

smooth and rough –> rough has …

A

double

bound ribosomes

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16
Q

(endoplasmic reticulum) bound ribosomes … that are secreted into the lumen of the ER
smooth ER = … and … –> also transports to the … from the RER

A

translate proteins

lipid synthesis; detoxification; Golgi apparatus

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17
Q

(Golgi apparatus) materials are transported through … and … here –> modification can occur through intro of … which indicate where the product must go in the cell

A

vesicles; modified; signal sequences

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18
Q

(peroxisomes) contain .. which is used to break down …

A

H2O2; long chain fatty acids;

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19
Q

(peroxisomes) involved in … and has some of the enzymes used in the …

A

phospholipid synthesis; pentose phosphate pathway

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20
Q

(cytoskeleton) provides … and enables materials to be … in the cell
contains three components: …, …, …

A

structure; transported

microfilaments; microtubules; intermediate filaments

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21
Q

(cytoskeleton) … are made of rods of actin and are resistant to compression and fracture

A

microfilaments

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22
Q

(cytoskeleton) actin can act in conjunction with … to allow for movement –> involved in …,
… of mitosis is formed from these

A

myosin
cytokinesis
cleavage furrow

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23
Q

(cytoskeleton) microtubules are polymers of … –> provide primary pathways for motor proteins to …

A

tubulin; carry vesicles

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24
Q

(cytoskeleton) … and … are made of microtubules
…: movement of materials along surface of cell
…: movement of cell itself

A

cilia; flagella
cilia
flagella

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25
Q

(cytoskeleton) …: 9 microtubule pairs in a ring with 2 in the center –> structure of … and …

A

9 + 2 structure; cilia; flagella

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26
Q

(cytoskeleton) centrosome contains … –> organizing centers for microtubules
these have 9 … of microtubules with … center

A

centrioles; triplets; hollow

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27
Q

(cytoskeleton) intermediate filaments: …, …, …, …

A

keratin; desmin; vimentin; lamins

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28
Q

(cytoskeleton) intermediate filaments:
… and maintenance of the integrity of the …
makes cell structure more … and helps …
the type of intermediate filament proteins is dependent upon the … and … type

A

cell-cell adhesion; cytoskeleton
rigid; anchor organelles
cell; tissue

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29
Q

four tissue types: …, …, …, …

A

epithelial; connective; muscle; nervous

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30
Q

(epithelial tissue) covers … and lines …
protection against … and … (drying)
…, …, …

A

body; cavities
pathogens; desiccation
absorption; secretion; sensation

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31
Q

(epithelial tissue)
joined to one another and underlying connective tissue known as …
different functions depending on where it’s found
most organs use it for the … –> functional part of the organ

A

basement membrane; parenchyma

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32
Q

(epithelial tissue) tend to be …

A

polarized

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33
Q

(epithelial tissue) epithelia are classified according to their number of layers and cell shape:
…: 1 layer
…: multiple layers
…: appear to have multiple layers bc cell heights vary, but are only one layer
cells can be …, …, or …

A

simple
stratified
pseudostratified
cuboidal; columnar; squamous

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34
Q

(connective tissue) supports the body and provides a framework for …

A

epithelial cells to function

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35
Q

(connective tissue) contribute to the … (..) of the organ it’s a part of –> e.g. …, …, .., … tissue, …, etc

A 
stroma; support 
bone
cartilage
tendons
adipose tissue 
blood
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36
Q

(connective tissue) most cells produce and secrete materials like collagen to form the …

A

extracellular matrix

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37
Q

prokaryotes have DNA condensed into the … region

A

nucleoid

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38
Q

archaea are more similar to eukaryotes in terms of their … and … than to bacteria

A

genes; metabolic pathways

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39
Q

eukaryotes likely evolved from …

A

archaea

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40
Q

both archaea and eukaryotes have …, start translation with … and have similar …

A

histones; Met; polymerases

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41
Q

archaea can use multiple sources of energy –> …/…

A

photosynthetic; chemosynthetic

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42
Q

some bacteria have … or … (the latter is like cilia)

A

flagella; fimbriae

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43
Q

some antibacterial vaccines differentiate between bacterial and eukaryotic … and allow for targeting of …

A

flagella; bacterial flagellum

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44
Q

antibiotics can target the bacterial …, which is smaller than eukaryotic

A

ribosome

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45
Q

bacteria outnumber human cells in the body by …:…

A

10:1

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46
Q

bacteria can be classified according to their shapes:
…: spherical (e.g. strep)
…: rod-shaped (e. coli)
…: spiral-shaped (syphilis)

A

cocci
bacilli
spirilli

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47
Q

any bacteria that can survive without oxygen are … those that can use oxygen are …

A

anaerobes; facultative anaerobes

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48
Q

…: cannot use oxygen for metabolism but are unharmed by it

A

aerotolerant; anaerobes

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49
Q

prokaryotes contain cell walls:
cell wall + cell membrane = …
cell wall provides … and controls movement of .. into and out of the bacteria

A

envelope

structure; solutes

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50
Q

gram + and gram - (… is more dangerous):

determined by staining the bacteria with .. and using a counterstain. if crystal violet stain was absorbed –> …

A

gram -;
crystal violet;
gram +

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51
Q

gram + has … and …

A

peptidoglycan; lipoteichoic acid

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52
Q

gram - has cell walls that are much … and have less … these cell walls are separated from the cell membrane by the …

A

thinner; peptidoglycan; periplasmic space

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53
Q

gram - bacteria have an … that has … and … that is outside the cell wall

A

outer membrane; phospholipids; lipopolysaccharides

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54
Q

flagella are used for … and can move the cell towards … or away from …

A

movement; food; toxins

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55
Q

ability for the cell to recognize chemical stimuli and move towards/away form it is …

A

chemotaxis

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56
Q

flagella has:
…: helical structure of flagellin
…: anchors the flagellum to the cytoplasmic membrane and acts as its motor
…: connects filament and basal body, allowing filament to spin when basal body rotates such that the bacterium moves

A

filament
basal body
hook

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57
Q

bacteria DNA is coiled around … proteins. archaea have ..

A

histone-like; true histones

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58
Q

…: circular structures containing DNA from external sources –> unnecessary for prokaryote’s survival but can confer a selective advantage
NOT part of …

A

plasmids; bacterial genome

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59
Q

electron transport chain of prokaryotes is located in the … itself

A

cell membrane

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60
Q

prokaryotic ribosomes have … and … subunits, eukaryotic ribosomes have … and … –> prokaryotic is smaller

A

30S; 50S; 40S; 60S

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61
Q

prokaryotes reproduce by ….:
circular chromosome attaches to … and replicates
plasma membrane and cell wall compress along middle of cell such that it separates into two daughter cells

A

binary fission; cell wall

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62
Q

plasmids can carry … –> makes bacteria more pathogenic

A

virulence factors

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63
Q

…: plasmids that can integrate into bacterial genome

A

episomes

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64
Q

bacterial genetic recombination diversifies bacteria:
…: integration of foreign material into genome –> tends to be from other …
…: sex for bacteria
…: requires a viral vector to carry genetic material from one bacteria to another

A

transformation
conjugation
transduction

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65
Q

(bacterial conjugation) two cells form a … that allows for genetic material to transfer –> goes from donor .. (..) to recipient .. (..) –> … process

A

conjugation bridge; male; +; female; -; unidirectional

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66
Q

(bacterial conjugation) conjugation bridge is made from … from donor –> necessitates presence of …
… (…) factor is a sex factor of e. coli. donor cell replicates and donates a copy of this to the recipient, converting it into an … cell
facilitates rapid spread of … and virulence

A 
sex pili 
sex factors 
F; fertility 
F+ cell 
antibacterial resistance
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67
Q

(bacterial conjugation) sex factor is … but can be incorporated in genome via …

A

plasmid; transformation

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68
Q

(bacterial conjugation) when sex factor is in genome, the entire DNA sequence will copy and the cell will try to transfer its whole genome to recipient, but conjugation bridge typically breaks before full sequence is transferred –> …

A

high frequency of recombination (hfr)

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69
Q

bacterial transduction:
bacteriophages can trap host DNA as it assembles and can transfer it to a new host cell when it infects it. this DNA can be incorporated in the …

A

new host’s genome

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70
Q

…: genetic elements that can insert/remove themselves from the genome (present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes)

A

transposons

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71
Q

bacteria grow in phases:
… phase: bacteria adapts to new environmental conditions
… phase: growth increases, exponential increase in number of bacteria in colony
… phase: when limits on resources slows reproduction
…. phase: bacteria exceeded environmental ability to support them (…)

A

lag
exponential/log
stationary
death

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72
Q

viruses are much smaller than prokaryotes and eukaryotic cells are …x larger than prokaryotes

A

10

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73
Q

viruses composed of …, …, … containing …

A

genetic material; protein coat; envelope; lipids

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74
Q

(viruses) protein coat = …
if envelope is present, it will surround … –> composed of … and …
enveloped viruses are easier to kill bc envelopes are sensitive to …, …, and …

A

capsid;
capsid; phospholipids; virus-specific proteins
heat; detergents; desiccation

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75
Q

(viruses) viruses don’t have … for protein synthesis

…: viral progeny

A

ribosomes

virions

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76
Q

(viruses) bacteriophages have a … and …
…: injects genetic material
…: help phage recognize and connect to correct host

A

tail sheath; tail fibers
tail sheath
tail fibers

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77
Q

(viruses) single stranded RNA viruses can be + sense or - sense
…: genome can be directly translated to functional proteins by host cell’s ribosomes
…: require synthesis of a complementary RNA strand that is then used for protein synthesis

A

+; -

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78
Q

(viruses) …: enveloped, single-stranded RNA viruses that contain … to synthesize DNA
DNA is incorporated into host genome and is replicated and translated –> allows for …
e.g HIV

A

retroviruses; reverse transcriptase

indefinite infection

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79
Q

(viruses) viral life stages
…: virus binds to receptors and cell and inserts viral material –> … enter cell intact, …. just insert genome
…: viral genome is translated and virions are formed

A

infected; enveloped virus; bacteriophages

translation and progeny assembly

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80
Q

(viruses) viral life stages contd:
…: cells can die, allowing for release of progeny; cells can lyse from being overfilled with virions; cells can leave by fusing with the host’s cell membrane (…), which allows for the infect cell to be continually used by the virus –> … cycle

A

progeny release; extrusion; productive

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81
Q

(viruses) lytic and lysogenic cycles:
… cycle: bacteriophage maximally uses host cell, which then lyses to release progeny –> bacteria in this phase are …

A

lyric; virulent

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82
Q

(viruses) lytic and lysogenic cycles:
if the bacterium doesn’t lyse, the virus can integrate into … –> …/… –> begins … cycle
virus is replicated when bacterium reproduces

A

host genome; provirus; prophage; lysogenic;

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83
Q

(viruses) lytic and lysogenic cycles:
lysogenic cycle:
certain environmental factors can trigger the … from the … and enables the lytic cycle to start
lysogenic cycle can be advantageous because it prevents bacteria from being infected with … (prevents …) and since ejection of provirus isn’t guaranteed, there may be some advantage here

A

release of the provirus; genome; other phages; superinfection;

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84
Q

(viruses) …: infectious proteins
can trigger … of other proteins, typically by converting … structures to …
these aggregate and prevent proper cell function

A

prions

misfolding; alpha; beta sheets

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85
Q

(viruses) …: have very short circular single-stranded RNA and infects plants
silences genes in plant genome
there are some that infect humans

A

viroids

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86
Q

lysosymes are surrounded by a … membrane

ribosomes are …

A

single; not surrounded by a membrane

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87
Q

connective tissue often secretes substances to form the … such as … and …

A

extracellular matrix; collagen; elastin

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88
Q

.. tissue is considered a different tissue type of it sown (i.e. neither connective nor epithelial)

A

muscle

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89
Q

… (…): mammals that encase developing embryos in hard-shelled amniotic eggs and lay them to be hatched

A

prototherians; monotremes

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90
Q

… (…): mammals whose fetuses undergo development in the uterus and then climb out of the birth canal into the marsupium (pouch)

A

metatherians; marsupials

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91
Q

…: specific series of phases during which a cell grows, synthesizes DNA, and divides

A

cell cycle

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92
Q

(cell cycle) … is the longest part of the cell cycle

consists of the .., …, and … phases

A

interphase; G1; S; G2

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93
Q

(cell cycle) cells that don’t divide are in the … phase

A

G0

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94
Q

(cell cycle) during interphase, chromosomes are in a less condensed form –> …

A

chromatin

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95
Q

(cell cycle) G1 stage, …: … are synthesized and the cell grows in size
to proceed to S stage, certain criteria must be met –> restriction point

A

presynthetic gap; organelles

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96
Q

(cell cycle) S stage, ….: DNA is replicated such that chromosomes now consist of two … bound by a …

A

synthesis of DNA; chromatids; centromere

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97
Q

(cell cycle) G2 stage, … gap: more cell growth, … synthesis. cell is preparing for …; proper … is assessed here. cell ensures that there is enough … and … to divide and that replication occurred without erro

A

postsynthetic; protein; mitosis; chromosome duplication; cytoplasm; organelles

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98
Q

(cell cycle) M stage, … + …

A

mitosis; cytokinesis

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99
Q

(cell cycle) G1/S checkpoint: main protein here is … –> cell checks that DNA is in good condition for synthesis

A

p53

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100
Q

(cell cycle) G2/M checkpoint: ensures that cell has achieved adequate … and … have been properly replicated. p53 also involved here

A

size; organelles

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101
Q

(cell cycle) molecules responsible for cell cycle: … and … (CDK)
… activate …, forming … complexes
concentrations of cyclins vary throughout the cell cycle

A

cyclins; cyclin-dependent kinases

cyclins; CDKs; CDK-cyclin complexes

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102
Q

(cell cycle) CDK-cyclin complexes … which promote transcription of genes required for the next stage of the cell cycle

A

phosphorylate transcription factors

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103
Q

(cell cycle) cancer can be caused by mutation of …, the gene that produces … this prevents the cell cycle from stopping to repair damaged DNA. Mutations then accumulate, resulting in a cancerous cell that continues to divide

A

TP53; p53

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104
Q

(cell cycle) …: spread of cancerous cells that occurs when the cells produce factors that allow it to become involved in local invasion or spread through the bloodstream/lymphatic system

A

metastasis

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105
Q

(mitosis) for non-germ-line cells only:

…: condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

A

prophase

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106
Q

(mitosis) prophase:

… separate and move to opposite poles –> … are responsible for the correct division of DNA

A

centriole pairs; centrioles

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107
Q

(mitosis) prophase:
centrioles form …, made of microtubules
… is one of the two microtubule organizing centers of the cell. the other is …/…
some of the microtubules form … that anchor centrioles to cell membrane, and others extend toward the cell’s center

A

fibers;
centrosome; flagella/cilia
asters

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108
Q

(mitosis) prophase:
… dissolves, such that spindle fibers can contact chromosomes
…. appear at the centromere –> points of attachment for fibers of the spindle apparatus (… fibers)

A

nuclear membrane;

kinetochores; kinetochore

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109
Q

(mitosis) …: kinetochore fibers interact with fibers of spindle apparatus to align chromosomes at the metaphase plate (… plate –> center of cell)

A

metaphase; equatorial

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110
Q

(mitosis) …: … separate and are pulled to opposite poles by shortening of kinetochore fibers

A

anaphase; sister chromatids

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111
Q

(mitosis) … acts as reverse of prophase –> … disappears,… reforms, … reappear, chromosomes …

A 
telophase; 
spindle apparatus;
nuclear membrane 
nucleoli 
uncoil
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112
Q

(mitosis) …: division of cytoplasm and organelles

as part of regulation, each cell goes through a finite number of divisions and then undergoes …

A

cytokinesis

programmed death

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113
Q

(meiosis) only occurs in …, results in up to … gametes:
one round of replication + rounds of division
Meiosis I: … are separated to form … daughter cells –> … division
Meiosis II: separation of .. –> … division

A

gametocytes; 4;
homologous chromosomes; haploid; reductional
sister chromatids; equational

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114
Q

(meiosis) Meiosis I:
prophase I: chromatin condenses into chromosomes, spindle apparatus forms, nucleoli and nuclear membrane disappear
difference between mitosis: homologous chromosomes come together and intertwine –> …

A

synapsis

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115
Q

(meiosis) prophase I:
each synaptic pair contains 4 chromatids –> …
homologous chromosomes are held together by a synaptonemal complex
chromatids of homologous chromosomes can break at point of contact (…) to exchange genetic material –> …

A

tetrad
chiasma
crossing over

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116
Q

(meiosis) prophase I:
…: occurs when only one segment of DNA is exchanged between the homologous chromosomes
…: occurs when there are two points of contact between homologous chromosomes and two segments of DNA are exchanged simultaneously

A

single crossovers

double crossovers

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117
Q

(meiosis) Prophase I:
crossing over is a form of genetic recombination –> can …
…: tendency for genes to be inherited together

A

unlink linked genes

linkage

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118
Q

(meiosis) prophase I
crossing over explains Mendel’s … –> inheritance of one allele has no effect on likelihood of inheriting certain alleles for other genes

A

second law of independent assortment

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119
Q

(meiosis) metaphase I: … align at the metaphase plate and each pair attaches to a spindle fiber by its …

A

tetrads; kinetochore

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120
Q

(meiosis) anaphase I: … separate and are pulled to opposite poles –> …, accounts for Mendel’s …

A

homologous pairs; disjunction; first law of segregation

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121
Q

(meiosis) anaphase I:
each chromosome of paternal origin disjoins from its homologue of maternal origin –> distribution of homologous chromosomes to the daughter cells is .. with respect to paternal origin
separating of two homologous chromosomes–> …

A

random; segregation

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122
Q

(meiosis) telophase I: nuclear membrane forms around each new nucleus –> cells now …
cell divides by cytokinesis
…: short rest period between cell divisions during which chromosomes partially uncoil

A

haploid

interkinesis

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123
Q

(meiosis) Meiosis II:
…: nuclear envelope dissolves, nucleoli disappear, centrioles migrate to opposite poles, spindle apparatus begins to form
…: chromosomes align on metaphase plate
…: centromeres divide, separating …, which are pulled to opposite poles by spindle fibers
…: nuclear membrane forms, cytokinesis follows

A

prophase II
metaphase II
anaphase II
telophase II

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124
Q

(meiosis) meiosis II:
at this point there are up to … haploid daughter cells
… may result in fewer than four cells if an egg is unfertilized after ovulation

A

4; oogenesis

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125
Q

(meiosis) males are … with respect to many of the genes on the X chromosome since they only have one copy –> must express that allele
females are homo or heterozygous since they have 2 X chromosomes

A

hemizygous

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126
Q

Y chromosome contains very little … –> one gene is SRY (sex-determining region Y) –> initiates … and, thus, formation of …

A

genetic information; testis differentiation; male gonads

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127
Q

in males, gonads develop into testes which have two functional components: “
…: sperm are produced here and are nourished by … cells
…: secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones

A

seminiferous tubules; Sertoli cells

interstitial cells of Leydig

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128
Q

testes located in the

A

scrotum

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129
Q

sperm moves to the … where their flagella gain motility and are then stored until …, during which they travel through the … to the …, and then through the urethra to exit via the penis

A

epididymis; ejaculation; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct

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130
Q

sperm is mixed with … to form semen, produced by the …, …, and … g

A

seminal fluid; seminal vesicles; prostate gland; bulbourethral gland

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131
Q

seminal vesicles nourish sperm with …
seminal vesicles + prostate gland give fluid mildly … properties so it can survive in more acidic enviro of the female reproductive tract
… (…) glands produce clear viscous fluid that cleans remnants of urine and lubricates urethra during sexual arousal

A

fructose
alkaline
bulbourethal; cowper’s

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132
Q

(spermatogenesis)
diploid stem cells that act as sperm precursor: …
when these replicate their genetic material, they are …

A

spermatogonia

diploid primary spermatocytes

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133
Q

(spermatogenesis) first meiotic division of diploid primary spermatocytes results in …, which undergo meiosis II to generate … that mature into …

A

haploid secondary spermatocytes; haploid spermatids; spermatozoa

134
Q

(spermatogenesis) spermatozoa forms … for each spermatogonium

A

4 functional sperm

135
Q

sperm have a head containing the …, a midpiece that generates … from fructose, and the … for motility
midpiece has high concentration of …

A

genetic material
ATP
flagellum
mitochondria

136
Q

sperm head covered by an .. –> necessary to penetrate ovum

this is a modified …

A

acrosome

golgi apparatus

137
Q

female gonads–ovaries-=- produce … and …

A

estrogen; progesterone

138
Q

ovaries consist of …, which contain, nourish, and protect immature ova

A

follicles

139
Q

one egg monthly is ovulated into the .. and is drawn into the … (…), which contains cilia to propel egg forward

A

peritoneal sac; fallopian tube; oviduct

140
Q

fallopian tubes are connected to the uterus. lower end of uterus, the …, is connected to the vaginal canal, where sperm is deposited

A

cervix

141
Q

external female anatomy –> …

A

vulva

142
Q

(oogenesis) unlike men, women don’t have an unending supply of stem cells to form their gamete. all of the … a woman will have are formed during …

A

oogonia; fetal development

143
Q

(oogenesis) by a woman’s birth, all of the oogonia have already undergone … to become … which are…
arrested in … until a woman reaches …

A

DNA replication; primary oocytes; diploid

prophase I; menarche

144
Q

(oogenesis) when a woman reaches menarche, one oocyte per month will undergo … to form a … and a…
unequal division of cytoplasm in cytokinesis leaves polar body with pretty much no … this doesn’t divide further and doesn’t produce functional gametes

A

meiosis I; secondary oocyte; polar body;

cytoplasm

145
Q

(oogenesis) secondary oocyte remains arrested in … until fertilization occurs

A

metaphase II

146
Q

(oogenesis) oocytes surrounded by … and …
…: surrounds oocyte, mixture of glycoproteins that proteins oocyte and allows for sperm cell binding
..: outside zona pellucida, adhered to oocyte during ovulation
Meiosis II begins when the sperm penetrates both of these layers using acrosomal enzymes

A

zona pellucida; corona radiata
zona pellucida
corona radiata

147
Q

(oogenesis) secondary oocyte, when entering meiosis II, then divides to a mature … and a …
… pronuclei of the sperm and ovum join to create a …

A

ovum; second polar body

haploid; diploid zygote

148
Q

ability to reproduce is under hormonal control –> before puberty hypothalamus restricts production of … (…)

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

149
Q

GnRH triggers anterior pituitary gland to synthesize and release … and … which trigger production of other sex hormones

A

follicle-stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone

150
Q

(male sexual development) during fetal period, there is some androgen production to allow for …
prior to puberty androgen production is …

A

male differentiation

low

151
Q

(male sexual development) … levels skyrocket during puberty and … begins
FSH stimulates … to trigger …

A

testosterone; sperm production

Sertoli cells; sperm maturation

152
Q

(male sexual development) LH causes … cells to produce testosterone, which allows for development of …

A

interstitial; secondary sexual characteristics

153
Q

(female sexual development) estrogens secreted in response to … –> development and maintenance of female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics

A

FSH

154
Q

(female sexual development) in embryo, estrogens stimulate development of ..
in adults, leads to thickening of .. (lining of uterus) in preparation for the implantation of a zygote

A

reproductive tract; endometrium

155
Q

(female sexual development) progesterone is secreted by … (remnant follicle that remains after ovulation), stimulated by …
involved in development and maintenance of the … (NOT its thickening!)
after first trimester of pregnancy, placenta produces … and … no longer functions

A

corpus luteum; LH
endometrium;
progesterone; corpus luteum

156
Q

(menstrual cycle) cycle during which … grows and shed

A

endometrial lining

157
Q

(menstrual cycle) … phase: begins when menstrual flow that sheds uterine lining of previous cycle begins

A

follicular

158
Q

(menstrual cycle) follicular phase
… secretion from hypothalamus is increased, increasing secretions of … and …, which develop … that produce estrogen

A

GnRH; FSH; LH; ovarian follicles

159
Q

(menstrual cycle) follicular phase:
estrogen works by negative feedback to reduce GnRH, LH, and FSH concs. It regrows …, and stimulates … and … of the … (mucosal lining of the uterus that forms in preparation for pregnancy)

A

endometrial lining; vascularization; glandularization; decidua

160
Q

(menstrual cycle) ovulation: late in follicular phase, rising estrogen concs reach a threshold that results in … of GnRH, LH, and FSH
LH then results in … –> release of ovum from ovary into the …

A

positive feedback; ovulation; abdominal cavity

161
Q

(menstrual cycle) … phase:
LH causes ruptured follicle to form … –> … levels rise, resulting in negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH –> prevents ovulation of multiple eggs

A

luteal

corpus luteum; progesterone;

162
Q

(menstrual cycle) menstruation: if implantation doesn’t occur, corpus luteum loses its stimulation, … levels decline, … is sloughed off

A

progesterone; uterine lining

163
Q

(pregnancy) if fertilization occurs, the zygote will develop into a … that will implant in the uterine lining and secrete … (…)

A

blastocyst; human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

164
Q

(pregnancy) hCG: analog of LH and maintains … important for first trimester bc the estrogen and progesterone secreted by corpus luteum keep … in place
by second trimester, hCG levels … since the placenta has grown to sufficient size to secrete .. and … by itself

A

corpus luteum
uterine lining
decline;
progesterone; estrogen

165
Q

(menopause) with age, ovaries become less sensitive to FSH and LH, leading to …
… also atrophies and menstruation stops
blood levels of FSH and LH rise since … on them is removed

A

ovarian atrophy
endometrium
negative feedback

166
Q

all embryos begin … –> for a male to develop, it must undergo masculinization via the gene product of …, and … –> occurs/doesn’t occur around …-… weeks after fertilization
takes about 16-17 weeks to know the sex of the baby

A

female
SRY; defeminization
6-8

167
Q

(fertilization) fertilization can occur up to … after ovulation, when the secondary oocyte is deposited in the fallopian tubes
usually occurs in the widest part of the fallopian tube –> …

A

24 hours; ampulla

168
Q

(fertilization) when sperm comes into direct contact with secondary oocyte’s cell membrane, it forms a tubelike structure called the … –> extends to and penetrates the cell membrane
… can then enter the oocyte once it completes meiosis II

A

acrosomal apparatus

pronucleus

169
Q

(fertilization) when the oocyte is penetrated, the .., which releases … ions, occurs
this depolarizes the ovum’s membrane to prevent fertilization by multiple sperm and increases the …. of the newly formed zygote
the depolarized and impenetrable membrane is the …

A

cortical reaction; Ca2+
metabolic rate
fertilization membrane

170
Q

… twins: two different eggs released during one ovulatory cycle, fertilized by two different sperm –> separate …, …, and …

A

dizygotic; placenta; chorion; amnion

171
Q

… twins: single zygote splits into two –> … occur when division is incomplete

A

monozygotic; conjoined twins

172
Q

…/… twins: same amnion and chorion
…/… twins: same chorion, different amnions
…/… twins: separate chorions and amnions

A

monochorionic/monoamniotic
monochorionic/diamniotic
dichorionic/diamniotic

173
Q

more shared structures btwn twins - more … during growth and development

A

risks

174
Q

zygote travels to uterus for … during this movement, zygote undergoes … –> rapid mitotic cell divisions

A

implantation; cleavage

175
Q

first cleavage of zygote creates an …, which is no longer unicellular
this divides into smaller cells to increase the … ratio and the … ratio –> allows for more gas and nutrient exchange

A

embryo

nuclear: cytoplasmic; surface area: volume

176
Q

… cleavage: cells that can still develop into complete organisms
monozygotic twins originate from this type of cleavage

A

indeterminate

177
Q

…. cleavage: results in cells with predetermined fates –> cells that are committed to differentiating into a certain kind of cell

A

determinate

178
Q

the embryo becomes a … after some divisions. then undergoes …, which forms the … –> hollow ball of cells with fluid-filled inner cavity (…)

A

morula; blastulation; blastula; blastocoel

179
Q

mammalian blastula = …
contains … and …:
…: surround blastocoel and give rise to the chorion and the placenta
….: protrudes into blastocoel and gives rise to organism itself

A

blastocyst;
trophoblast; inner cell mass
trophoblast cells
inner cell mass

180
Q

blastula implants onto uterus by burrowing into endometrium. … allows for an interface between maternal blood supply and embryo
… eventually develops into placenta

A

trophoblast;

chorion

181
Q

trophoblasts form … –> microscopic fingerlike projections that penetrate the endomembrane –> these are what develop into the … and support maternal-fetal …

A

chorionic villi; placenta; gas exchange

182
Q

embryo connected to placenta by the … –> 2 arteries + 1 vein
the vein carries … blood rich w/ nutrients from placenta to embryo
umbilical arteries carry … blood and waste to placenta for exchange

A

umbilical cord
oxygenated
deoxygenated

183
Q

embryo supported by … until placenta is function –> site of early … development

A

yolk sac; blood cell

184
Q

…: early fluid exchange between embryo and yolk sac –> this plus yolk sac remnants forms umbilical cord

A

allantois

185
Q

…: surrounds allantois, thin membrane filled with amniotic fluid
amniotic fluid acts as …, lessening impact of mom’s motion on the baby
… forms outer membrane around the amnion

A

amnion; shock absorber; chorion

186
Q

…: occurs after implantation, generation of three distinct cell layers

A

gastrulation

187
Q

(gastrulation) …: result of the process in which cells move toward a small invagination in the blastula, resulting in elimination of the blastocoel

A

gastrula

188
Q

(gastrulation) membrane invagination into the blastocoel: … –> develops into the gut
opening of this membrane invagination: …

A

archenteron; blastopore

189
Q

(gastrulation) in deuterostomes (such as people), blastopore develops into …
in protosomes, blastopore develops into the …

A

anus

mouth

190
Q

(gastrulation) some cells will migrate into what remains of the blastocoel –> establishes 3 layers of cells –> primary germ layers:
…: gives rise to integument (epidermis, hair, nails, epithelia of the nose, mouth, lower anal canal, lens of the eye, nervous system, and inner ear)

…: middle layer, develops into several systems (musculoskeletal, circulatory, excretory systems, gonads, muscular and connective tissue, layers of digestive and respiratory systems and adrenal cortex derive from here)

…: forms the epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts (pancreas, thyroid, bladder, distal urinary tracts, and parts of liver are derived from this)

A

ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm

191
Q

cells differentiate primarily by …
related to …: ability of one group of cells to influence fate of nearby cells –> mediated by …, which diffuse from organizing cells to responsive cells
inducers are responsible for processes like guidance of neuronal axons

A

selective transcription; induction; inducers

192
Q

…: occurs after three germ layers are formed –> development of nervous system

A

neurulation

193
Q

(neurulation) … forms along the long axis of the organism like a primitive spine –> rod of … cells

A

notochord; mesodermal

194
Q

(neurulation) notochord formation induces ectodermal cells to slide inward to form …, surrounding a …

A

neural folds; neural groove

195
Q

(neurulation) neural folds grow toward one another to fuse into a neural tube –> precursor of …
at the tip of each neural fold are … cells –> migrate outward to form …

A

central nervous system
neural crest;
peripheral nervous system

196
Q

(neurulation) … cells migrate over neural tube and crests to cover the nervous system

A

ectodermal

197
Q

…: interfere with development
its impact depends on genetics of embryo, route of exposure, length of exposure, rate of placental transmission, and identity of the harmful agent
ex: alcohol, drugs, viruses, bacteria, enviro chemicals

A

teratogens

198
Q

development is influenced by …

e.g. mothers with hyperglycemia may have very large children that suffer from hypoglycemia soon after birth

A

maternal health

199
Q

cells undergo …, in which they are reversibly set on the path to become a certain type of cell. this designation is not permanent until … occurs

A

specification; determination

200
Q

… is when a cell is decidedly on the path to becoming a specific type of cell. however, none of the products necessary for its function as that cell type occurs here

A

determination

201
Q

determination can occur during .. due to a disproportionate amount of mRNA and protein being split between two daughter cells. it can occur via … which cause nearby cells to follow a particular developmental pathway

A

cleavage; morphogens

202
Q

cells that haven’t differentiated are … cells. their ability to differentiate into different cell types is measured by …

A

stem; potency

203
Q

…: embryonic stem cells that can give rise to any other type of cell
…: after 16-cell stage, no longer any totipotent stem cells. these, instead, can give rise to any other type of cell besides those found in placental structures
…: have some level of specificity, can give rise to multiple types of cell within a specific grouping (e.g. hematopoietic stem cells can give rise to any type of cell in blood)

A

totipotent
pluripotent
multipotent

204
Q 
endoderm gives rise to: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
...
A 
pancreas 
liver 
thyroid 
lung 
bladder
urethra
205
Q 
mesoderm gives rise to: 
... 
..., ..., and ... 
... and ... 
...
A

bone marrow
skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle
heart and blood vessels
kidney tubules

206
Q 
ectoderm gives rise to: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
...
A 
skin 
neurons 
pituitary gland 
eyes 
ears
207
Q

determination and differentiation of cell can be influenced by … nearby –> these may also be the cell secreting the signal

A

inducers

208
Q

induced cell is …, must be … –> able to respond to signal

A

responder; competent

209
Q

cell-cell communication methods:
…: acts on the same cell that secreted the signal
…: acts on cell in local area
…: no diffusion, cell directly stimulates receptors of an adjacent cell
…: involves use of hormones

A

autocrine
paracrine
juxtacrine
endocrine

210
Q

inducers are commonly …, which tend to act on specific types of cells
…; peptides that promote differentiation and mitosis

A

growth factors

growth factors

211
Q

…/…: 2 tissues induce further differentiation of each other

A

reciprocal induction/reciprocal development

212
Q

signaling occurs through gradients:
…: molecules that cause cell determination (e.g. transforming growth factor beta, sonic hedgehog, epidermal growth factor)

A

morphogens

213
Q

morphogens move from their origins (region of high morphogen conc.) to areas of …
multiple morphogens can be secreted at the same time, resulting in unique combinations of morphogens that lead to … of specific cell types

A

lower morphogen concs

differentiation

214
Q

where cells initially differentiate isn’t necessarily its final anatomic location. must … to the proper area of the body

A

migrate

215
Q

cells that die via apoptosis can be “eaten” by other cells such that its materials can be used
during apoptosis, cell divides into … that are broken apart into … –> these are what are digested by other cells

A

apoptotic blebs; apoptotic bodies

216
Q

membranous apoptotic bodies are also a protective measure, ensuring that … won’t be released into extracellular enviro

A

harmful cellular materials

217
Q

…: part of apoptosis where nucleus condenses

A

pyknosis

218
Q

…: part of apoptosis where nucleus fragments

A

karyorrhexis

219
Q

…: ability of an organism to regrow certain body parts; likely related to stem cell concs and potency
…: lost or damaged tissue are replaced with identical tissues
…: new tissues are not identical to the old ones –> tend to be inferior; this is the type of regeneration mostly seen in humans

A

regenerative capacity
complete regeneration
incomplete regeneration

220
Q

…: biological aging, changes in molecular and cellular structure that lead to death accumulate

A

senescence

221
Q

…: limits to division –> failure of cells to divide, leads to apoptosis
may be because of …,which are difficult to replicate
… allows for extension of telomeres –> reverse transcriptase that prevents senescence

A

cellular senescence; shorted telomeres; telomerase

222
Q

…: injury to cell that can result in leaking of cellular material which may be dangerous and can lead to inflammation

A

necrosis

223
Q

maternal and fetal blood can’t mix because …

A

they might be different blood types

224
Q

some nutrients are delivered to the baby via … –> water, glucose, amino acids, inorganic salts, oxygen

A

diffusion

225
Q

the fact that oxygen is diffused across placenta indicates that maternal blood has … of oxygen than fetal blood

A

higher partial pressure

226
Q

fetal hemoglobin has … for oxygen to ensure retention of oxygen in fetal circulation

A

greater affinity

227
Q

… protects fetus, since it can’t develop antibodies yet since it has yet to be exposed to pathogens. antibodies may be delivered from mother, though, if a pathogen crosses placental membrane

A

placental barrier

228
Q

placenta is … organ for mother, as it produces progesterone, estrogen, and human chorionic gonadotropin

A

endocrine

229
Q

umbilical arteries move blood away from … to …

umbilical vein moves blood towards … from …

A

fetus; placenta; fetus; placenta

230
Q

…and … have pretty much no function prior to birth because gas exchange occurs through placenta and detoxification and metabolism is controlled by mom’s liver. blood is shunted away from these organs

A

lungs; liver

231
Q

…: blood overpasses lungs and goes from right atrium to left atrium (overpasses right atrium–> right ventricle –> pulmonary arteries –> lungs thing)
….: shunts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta instead of lungs
…: shunts blood from placenta directly to inferior vena cava, overpassing liver –> liver still receives small blood supply from smaller … in the liver’s systemic circulation

A

foramen ovale
ductus arteriosis
ductus venosus; hepatic arteries

232
Q

larger animal: … gestation, … offspring

A

longer; fewer

233
Q

first trimester: .. develop, along with …, …, …, etc. skeleton begins to … –> embryo becomes known as ..

A

organs; eyes; gonads; limbs; harden; fetus

234
Q

second trimester: stage of …, fetus begins to …

A

major growth; move in amniotic fluid

235
Q

third trimester: … are transferred to fetus at highest rate during all of the pregnancy, preparing fetus for life outside; growth rate slows and fetus becomes … since there’s less room

A

antibodies; less active

236
Q

…: vaginal birth, accomplished by contractions of uterine smooth muscle
contractions coordinated by … and …
cervix thins and … ruptures (water breaking)
contractions allow for birth of fetus
placenta and umbilical cord are delivered –> …

A

parturition
prostaglandins; oxytocin
amniotic sac
afterbirth

237
Q

failure of determination/differentiation can lead to absence of relevant structures altogether, whereas lack of … can lead to improper formation of those structures

A

apoptosis

238
Q

… organs that secrete hormones

A

glands

239
Q

…: signaling molecules that travel through the bloodstream to reach a target tissue. they bind to receptors on that tissue to initiate a response

A

hormones

240
Q

categories of hormones:
…
…
….

A

peptide hormones
steroids
amino acid derivatives

241
Q

peptide hormones:
all are derived from larger precursor polypeptides that are cleaved during …
…, so they cannot move through the cell membrane. instead, they bind to receptors on target cells, initiating a signaling cascade
peptide hormone itself is the …, and its binding triggers transmission of a …

A

posttranslational modification
charged;
first messenger
second messenger

242
Q

common second messengers: … and …

A

cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP); inositol triphosphate (IP3)

243
Q

signaling cascades allow for …, increasing the intensity of the signal

A

amplification of signals

244
Q

G protein-coupled receptors can either activate/inhibit …, which adjusts levels of …

A

adenylate; cAMP

245
Q

(G receptors)
cAMP can bind to intracellular targets (targets within the cell), such as .., which phosphorylates transcription factors to bring about the hormone’s overall result
example of a transcription factor: cAMP response element-binding protein (CREB)

A

protein kinase A

246
Q

(G receptors)

protein kinase A can modify enzymes as well as …, and can consequently have either a … or … effect on the cell

A

transcription factors; rapid; slow

247
Q

peptide hormones have …, but … impacts

A

fast; short-lived

248
Q

peptide hormones, since they are water-soluble, can travel freely in the bloodstream, without … unlike steroids

A

carriers

249
Q

steroid hormones are mostly produced by the … and the … (androgens)

A

adrenal cortex; gonads

250
Q

receptors for steroid hormones can be …, since they easily diffuse through the plasma membrane:
hormone-receptor complexes change … –> these can bind to DNA to cause changes to levels of transcription of a target gene
…: common form of conformational change in which two receptor-hormone complexes pair together

A

intracellular; conformation; dimerization

251
Q

steroid hormone are …, but have … effects since they alter amounts of mRNA and protein

A

slower; longer

252
Q

steroid hormones require … to move through bloodstream – these tend to be … while bound to their carrier and they have to … to regain function
levels of carriers can change levels of …

A

protein carriers;
inactivated; dissociate
active hormone

253
Q

most peptide and amino acid-derivative hormones have endings of … or …

most steroid hormones have endings of …, …, or …

A
  • in; -ine

- one; -ol; -oid

254
Q 
amino acid-derivative hormones include: 
... (... and ...) --> bind to G protein coupled receptors 
... bind intracellularly 
... 
...
A

catecholamines; epi and nor;
thyroid hormones
triiodothyronine (thyroid)
thyroxine (thyroid)

255
Q

… hormones: act directly on target tissue –> do the job themselves –> like workers
… hormones: call other hormones into action –> like boss

A

direct; tropic

256
Q

examples of tropic hormones:
gonadotropin-releasing hormone; luteinizing hormone
tropic hormones originate in … and … gland, because these structures are involved in coordination of many bodily processes

A

brain; anterior pituitary

257
Q

… organs: organs whose primary function is to secrete hormones

A

endocrine

258
Q 
endocrine organs include: 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
... 
collection of cells in kidney, GI glands, heart, and thymus also serve endocrine roles, but these aren't endocrine organs
A 
hypothalamus 
pituitary 
thyroid 
parathyroid 
gonads
pineal 
adrenal 
pancreas
259
Q

…: endocrine organ that acts as bridge between nervous and endocrine systems –> located below thalamus and above pituitary gland

A

hypothalamus

260
Q

hypothalamus releases … hormones that are sent to the pituitary

A

tropic

261
Q

release of hormones by hypothalamus is regulated by …

A

negative feedback

262
Q

…: blood vessel system that connects the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary

A

hypophyseal portal system

263
Q

…: another name for the pituitary

A

hypophysis

264
Q 
tropic hormones sent to anterior pituitary and their direct hormones: 
... - ... and ... 
... - ... 
... - ... 
... - ... 
... - inhibits release of ...
A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone - FSH and LH

growth hormone-releasing hormone- growth hormone

thyroid-releasing hormone - thyroid stimulating hormone

corticotropin-releasing factor - adrenocorticotropic hormone

prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF/dopamin)- prolactin

265
Q

…: three organ systems of interaction

A

axes

266
Q

neurons are directly sent to the posterior pituitary through the .. by the axons of the …

A

pituitary stalk; hypothalamus

267
Q

posterior pituitary releases … (hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and milk letdown for lactation) and … (stimulates reabsorption of water in collecting ducts of kidneys when plasma osmolarity is high)

A

oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

268
Q

anterior pituitary has 7 products - 4 tropic, 3 direct:

… - … = tropic, … - direct

A

FLATPEG; FLAT; PEG

269
Q 
anterior pituitary products 
F: ... --> acts on gonads
L: ... --> acts on gonads 
A: ... --> acts on adrenal cortex 
T: .. --> acts on thyroid

P: … –> stimulates milk production (… decreases its secretion)
E: … –> reduce pain perception
G: … –> promotes growth of bone and muscle, requires use of a lot of glucose and limits glucose uptake in tissues that are not growing -> excess of GH in children before closure of … can cause gigantism, deficit results in dwarfism; excess of GH in adulthood causes …

A 
FSH
LH 
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) 
thyroid-stimulating hormone 
prolactin; dopamine 
endorphins 
growth hormone; epiphyseal plates; acromegaly
270
Q

unlike anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary does not …, it merely stores ADH and oxytocin provided by the hypothalamus and releases it at the proper times

A

produce hormones

271
Q

posterior pituitary contains the … of neurons that have cell bodies in the ..

A

nerve terminals; hypothalamus

272
Q

thyroid controlled by …

A

thyroid-stimulating hormone

273
Q

thyroid has 2 major functions:
setting basal … –> by releasing … and …
… homeostasis –> controlled by …

A

metabolic rate; triiodothyronine; thyroxine

calcium; calcitonin

274
Q

… cells of the thyroid release triiodothyronine (…) and thyroxine (…), both are modified … that have attached …

A

follicular; T3: T4; tyrosines; iodines

275
Q

T3 and T4 regulate metabolism –>

increased amounts of these hormones … metabolism –> increased … and … and … turnover

A

increase; cellular respiration; protein; fatty acid

276
Q 
deficiency in T3 and T4 --> ... 
... 
decreased ... 
slowed ... and slowed ... 
... intolerance 
...
A 
hypothyroidism
lethargy 
body temps 
respiration; heart rate 
cold 
weight gain
277
Q

…: mental retardation and developmental delay caused by deficiency in thyroid hormones at birth

A

cretinism

278
Q 
...: excess of thyroid hormone 
heightened ... 
increased ... 
increased ... and ... 
... intolerance
 ...
A 
hyperthyroidism 
activity level 
body temps 
respiratory; heart rates 
heat 
weight loss
279
Q

calcitonin is released by … cells of the thyroid and it … calcium concs by promoting its …, decreasing its …, and increasing …

A

parafollicular; decreases; excretion; absorption from the gut; storage in the bone

280
Q

… hormone is released by the …, posterior to the thyroid. this acts in opposition to calcitonin by …

A

parathyroid; parathyroid; increasing calcium concentrations

281
Q

parathyroid hormone:

decreases excretion of calcium by …, increases …, increases …

A

kidneys; absorption in the gut; bone resorption

282
Q

parathyroid hormone:
resorbs … from bone and promotes its excretion in urine –> these two effects cancel each other
activates …, which is necessary for absorption of calcium and phosphate in the gut
overall impact: significant increase in … levels and little effect on … levels

A

phosphate
vitamin D
calcium; phosphate

283
Q

adrenal gland consists of … and …

A

cortex; medulla

284
Q

adrenal cortex releases
…: these are cortisol and cortisone, which increase … levels by increasing … and decreasing … –> release of these are controlled by …, as released by the anterior pituitary

A

glucocorticoids; blood glucose; gluconeogenesis; protein synthesis; ACTH

285
Q

adrenal cortex releases:
…: regulate salt and water homeostasis
… is one of these –> promotes sodium reabsorption in the nephron –> increasing sodium concs in the blood drives water out of the nephron as well, causing blood to increase in … and …

A

mineralocorticoids; aldosterone; volume; pressure

286
Q

adrenal cortex releases:
aldosterone contd:
… increases with this hormone, but … remains the same, unlike with ADH

A

blood pressure

plasma osmolarity;

287
Q

adrenal cortex releases:
aldosterone contd:
aldosterone regulated by … system. when blood pressure is low, … cells in kidney secrete … which convert … to …, which is converted to … by … enzyme. This then secretes aldosterone until blood pressure is restored

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

juxtaglomerular cells; renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I; angiotensin II; angiotensin-converting enzyme

288
Q

adrenal cortex releases:
… hormones: adrenal gland releases androgens and estrogens
males not as impacted since … release most of the androgens
females with overproduction of these can have …

A

cortical sex hormones
testes
masculinized genitalia

289
Q

functions of corticosteroids: 3 S’s
… (…)
… (…)
.. (…)

A

salt; mineralocorticoids
sugar; glucocorticoids
sex; cortical sex hormones

290
Q

adrenal medulla releases the … … and …, which regulate …
increase …
dilate …
alter .. to supply systems used in … response

A

catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine; fight-or-flight
heart rate
bronchi
blood flow; sympathetic

291
Q

… is for long term (slower) stress response, … are for short term (faster) stress responses

A

cortisol; catecholamines

292
Q

… tissues secrete substances directly into ducts

pancrease acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes into pancreatic ducts

A

exocrine

293
Q

… have alpha, beta, and delta cells that secrete …, …, and … respectively
…: catabolism of protein and fat, conversion of glycogen to glucose, and gluconeogenesis
…: anabolism of protein and fat, storage of glucose as glycogen

A

islets of Langerhans; glucagon; insulin; somatostatin
glucagon
insulin

294
Q

excess insulin can lead to

A

hypoglycemia

295
Q

… is a diagnosing factor diabetes:
symptoms include .. (caused by excretion of glucose, and thus of water as well) and … (extreme thirst due to excess urination)

A

hyperglycemia

polyuria; polydipsia

296
Q

…: destruction of beta cells of pancreas leads to pretty much no insulin production
…: receptors become resistant to insulin

A

Type I diabetes

Type II diabetes

297
Q

…: inhibits insulin and glucagon and is stimulated by high blood glucose and amino acid concentrations

A

somatostatin

298
Q

gonads:
… secrete testosterone in response to LH and FSH
… secrete estrogen and progesterone

A

testes

ovaries

299
Q

pineal gland is in the brain and releases … which may have some effect on the … –> hypothesized that the pineal gland responds to decreases in light intensity by releasing …

A

melatonin; circadian rhythm; melatonin

300
Q

GI peptide hormones: …, …, and ..

responses are different for each, but they are stimulated by presence of specific nutrients

A

secretin; gastrin; cholecystokinin

301
Q

kidneys produce …, which is secreted in response to low ox levels in the blood

A

erythropoietin

302
Q

… peptide is released by the heart. acts opposer ite to aldosterone by … via excretion of … and ..

A

atrial natriuretic peptide; lowering blood pressure; salt; water

303
Q

thymus releases …, which is involved in T-cell development and differentiation

A

thymosin

304
Q

lungs are in

A

thoracic cavity

305
Q

air enters through nares and is filtered by … (…)

A

nasal hairs; vibrissae

306
Q

air passes into the …, which is common pathway for air and food. then goes to …, which is only for air. opening of larynx is the …, and it is covered by the … to prevent food from entering …

A

pharynx; larynx; glottis; epiglottis; trachea

307
Q

from larynx, air goes into the … down to the …, which divide into .. and then to …

A

trachea; bronchi; bronchioles; alveoli

308
Q

trachea and bronchi have … to catch material that made it past mucous membranes in nose and mouth

A

ciliated epithelial cells

309
Q

alveoli are covered by … to lower surface tension and prevent them from collapsing on themselves

A

surfactant

310
Q

alveoli are small and branched, allowing for a large … for gas exchange
… surround each lung. … covers the lungs, … covers the thoracic cavity

A

surface area

pleurae; visceral pleura; parietal pleura

311
Q

left lung is slightly smaller and only contains … lobes. right lung contains … lobes

A

two; three

312
Q

lungs require … muscles to generate … for expansion

most important muscle for breathing is the … –> under … control, even though breathing is under … control

A

skeletal; negative pressure; diaphragm; somatic; autonomic

313
Q

space between parietal and visceral pleura is the … and contains a …

A

intrapleural space; lubricating fluid

314
Q

(inhalation) uses diaphragm and … (layers of muscles between ribs)
thorax expands, increasing the intrapleural volume, leading to a … in pressure in the intrapleural space. to equalize the volume, the … lungs expand, thus causing a … in pressure in the lungs, and consequently air moves from a region of higher pressure (…) into the … (the lower pressure enviro) –> negative pressure breathing

A 
external intercostal muscles 
decrease
higher pressure 
decrease
the external environment
lungs
315
Q

exhalation:
not necessarily an … process, unlike inhalation
relaxation of external intercostal muscles results in the opposite process of inhalation. thorax decreases in volume, pressure …, and to equalize pressure, air escapes
exhalation can be active through use of … and …

A

active
increases
intercostal muscles; abdominal muscles

316
Q

…: maximum volume of air in lungs when one inhales completely; tends to be 6-7 L
… (RV): minimum volume of air in the lungs when one exhales completely
… (VC): difference between the minimum and maximum volume of air in the lungs (TLC- RV)

A

total lung capacity
residual volume
vital capacity

317
Q

… (TV): volume of air inhaled/exhaled in a normal breath
… (ERV): volume of additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal exhalation
… (IRV): volume of additional air that an be forcibly inhaled after a normal inhalation

A

tidal volume
expiratory reserve volume
inspiratory reserve volume

318
Q

ventilation is regulated by a collection of neurons in the … called the …
neurons contain chemoreceptors that detect … concentrations –> More CO2 in blood (…/..) = … respiration

A

medulla oblongata; ventilation center

CO2; hypercarbia; hypercapnia; increased

319
Q

cells can respond to changes in O2 concs but this is really only significant during

A

severe hypoxemia

320
Q

lungs have capillaries that can be involved in …

A

thermoregulation

321
Q

lungs prevent invaders from gaining access to … and allow for control of … via control of CO2 concs

A

bloodstream; blood pH

322
Q

deoxygenated blood is brought to lungs via the… differences in partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood and alveoli allow for .. of the gases such that blood becomes oxygenated and CO2 is removed. this oxygenated blood is then delivered back to the heart through the…

A

pulmonary arteries; passive diffusion; pulmonary veins

323
Q

response of hemoglobin to decreased CO2 concs is to decrease

A

unloading of oxygen

324
Q

…: regulation of body temp

A

thermoregulation

325
Q

transfer of thermal energy is regulated through … and …
… allows for more blood to pass through the vessels, leading to increased dissipation of thermal energy. … has the opposite effect
capillaries of … and … are used for these purposes in the respiratory systems

A

vasodilation; vasoconstriction
vasodilation; vasoconstriction
nose; trachea

326
Q

respiratory system can transfer heat to the environment through … some animals take advantage of this through panting

A

evaporation of water in mucous secretions

327
Q

since lungs interact with outside environment, they must have some immune capacity:
… in nasal cavity traps potential infectious matter
… in the nasal cavity can kill gram positive bacteria by hydrolyzing their cell walls
… in the internal airways traps invaders. this mucus is then propelled by … to the oral cavity where it is either expelled or swallowed –> …
the lungs, esp alveoli, have an abundance of … and immune cells. … cells also populate the lungs, and these elicit an immune response when certain substances bind to the antibodies on their cell surfaces. they then induce an inflammatory response

A

vibrissae
lysozyme
mucus; cilia; mucociliary escalator
macrophages; mast cells;

328
Q

respiratory system helps regulate pH via the …

equation:

A

bicarbonate buffer system

CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3 ⇌ H+ + HCO3-

329
Q

bicarbonate buffer system:
when H+ concs are high (..), respiratory rate …
additionally, more … will be generated which further … respiratory rate. this blows more Co2 off, pushing equilibrium towards the left, which decreases H+ concs
when blood is too basic (…), respiratory rate is …, such that equilibrium is pushed towards the right

A

acidemia; increases
CO2; increases
alkalemia; slowed

330
Q

kidney modulation of pH by … and … of acid and base is more of a long-term pH control

A

secretion; reabsorption

MCAT (11 decks)

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