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3P > Kahoot > Flashcards

Kahoot Flashcards

1
Q

Which ABX is least likely to affect INR if a pt is on warfarin?

A

Cefalexin
(PCN least likely to interact with warfarin)

***ANTIFUNGALS WILL GREATLY impact INR

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2
Q

Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in patients who have?

A

A sensitivity to sulfonamides

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3
Q

Potassium wasting diuretics

A

Loop

Thiazide

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4
Q

What is the longest recommended time interval between cervical screens for patients who are 30-64 yrs old

A

five years

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5
Q

pt taking ACE inhibitors should avoid….

A

Potassium rich supplements

ACE/ARBS can cause elevated K.

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6
Q

Who needs to avoid protein rich meals

A

Renal failure pts

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7
Q

Decreasing hepatic glucose production and absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity is the MOa of which drug?

A

Metformin

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8
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors MOA

A

pee out extra glucose
causes osmotic diuresis

“Serum Glucose Leaves Through 2 Kindeys” (SGLT2 inhibitor)

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9
Q

What is an anticholinergic used to tx overactive bladder?

A

Oxybutynin -

SE: orthostatic hypotension in elderly

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10
Q

What medications treat BPH

A

Alpha Blockers (-sin) / Alpha reductase inhibitor (-ride)
Tamsulosin
dutasteride
Doxazosin

“2sins and a ride”

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11
Q

Which vaccine is not recommended in pregnancy

A

MMR - live vaccine

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12
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy

a. bactrim
b. Keflex
c. amoxicillin
d. nitrofurantoin

A

Bactrim - ALWAYS (d/t sulfa)

Nitrofurantoin - can be used until 3rd trimester

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13
Q

McMurrays tests evaluates for

A

Meniscal injury of the knee

“M for Meniscus”

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14
Q

what is the name of the test to evaluate for cholecystitis?

A

Murphys

  • RUQ under rib. as a release of breath
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15
Q

your pt forgot to take their coumadin last night, 10 hours ago, what do you say?

A

Take last nights dose now, and your next one this evening when its due?

(Hasn’t been more then 12 hours)

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16
Q

A 28 year old has a 3/6 systolic murmur. Which characteristic indicates a need for referral?

A

A fixed split S2 - always abnormal

indicates pulmonary HTN as pulmmonic valve closing a second later then aortic valve causing split sound

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17
Q

Which mitral disorder results from redundancy of the mitral valves leaflets?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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18
Q

How should a patient suspected with syphilis be screened?

what specific test?

A

Serum assessment

RPR - rapid plasma reagin

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19
Q

A diuretic that does not promote secretion of K into the urine?

a. lasix
b. HCTZ
c. bumetanide
d. triamterene

A

Triamterene “Tries to save K”

Bumetanide & Lasix = LOOP diuretic
HCtZ & metolazone - thiazide (super powerful, sig decrease in K )

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20
Q

Pt with poorly controlled HTN for 10 years… where would you expect to palpate the PMI?

A

5th ICS, left of the MCL

displaced laterally due to enlarged heart

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21
Q

sulfonylurea agents such as glimeperide work by

A

stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells

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22
Q

continuous urinary leaking or dribbling with a full bladder is referred to as

A

Overflow incontinence (ex BPH) - physical block

Other types
stress incontinence - weakening of pelvic muscle
urge incontinence - overactivity of decrease muscle
functional incontinence - cognitive impairment, elderly that are bedridden, restraints ect

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23
Q

which of the following is formed in the liver as a byproduct of protien metabolism and eliminated entirely by the kidney?

A

urea

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24
Q

25 yr old with Aortic stenosis. What is the likely etiology?

A

Congenital - typically affects Aortic

Acquired calcification - often with age that results in aortic stenosis
Rheumatic - often affects MITRAL stenosis

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25
Q

male pt presents with dysuria and penile discharge. what should be part of the differential?

A

Chlamydia and gonorrhea

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26
Q

your pt presences with a painless chancre in the genital area. the most appropriate medication is likely to be

A

Chancre = syphillis

tx PCN LA

Gonorrhea –> ceftriaxone
Metrodniazole - BV & tricha
Doxycycline - chlamydia

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27
Q

which insulin has the lowest risk of hypoglycemia

A

Glargine (Long acting)

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28
Q

Pt has UTI. what findings on a dipstick will best describe a typical UTI

A

Leukocytes and Nitrates

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29
Q

First line treatment for acute gout

A

Colchicine

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30
Q

a 65yr with BPH with overflow incontinence. what med is most appropriate?

A

Tamsulosin (Alpha blocker)

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31
Q

Chronic transmural inflammation of the GI tract, small and or large intestine often involving the terminal ileum

A

Crohns - affects ALL layeers of instine

UC - confined to colon only

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32
Q

empiric tx of STI

A

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM x 1, doxycycline 100mg po BID x 7 days

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33
Q

Pt has mild HFrEF. which drug will reduce morbidity and mortality long term?

A

Metoprolol succinate or carvedilol
ACE/ARBS
mineral corticoids - spironolactone (K sparing)
Entresto

NOT metoprolol tartrate- short acting
NEVER - Ca channel blocker - negative inotrope

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34
Q

Which of the following areas drain into the RIGHT lymphatic duct

A

Right Arm only

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35
Q

which is not a normal finding during pregnancy?

A

Diastolic murmur

36
Q

what is the medication desferal used for?

A

Decreases iron levels -

37
Q

which ABX may increase photosensitivity?

A

Ciprofloxacin & Tetracyclines

38
Q

A characteristic in RA that is not characteristic in OA

A

symmetrical joint involvement

39
Q

Which of the following is a skin manifestation dof INFLAMMATORY breast CA?

A

Peu D’Orange

40
Q

a female pt diagnosed with chlamydia. how should this be managed?

A

tx with doxycycline

Gonorrhea - ceftriaxone

41
Q

incontinence in which a cognitive or physical impairment keeps one from getting to the bathroom in time is

A

functional incontinence

42
Q

trichomoniasis is what kind of pathogen?

A

Protozoal

43
Q

which of the following regimens is appropriate for diagnosis of enterobiasis?

A
  • Pinworms

albendazole: 1 dose now and 1 dose in 2 weeks

44
Q

macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Pernicious Anemia

  • vitamin deficiency anemias = macrocytic
  • pernicious anemia secondary to loss of intrinsic factor which is secreted by parietal cells
45
Q

Which of the following solid cancers has the best prognosis?

a. testicular
b. breast
c. thyroid ca
d. lymphoma

A

Testicular CA

Lymphoma - not a solid CA

46
Q

a pt with newly diagnosed genital herpes would appropriately receive a prescription for

A

Acyclovir

47
Q

65 yr male has an LDL of 200, what class of medications is preferred for tx?

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors (Statins)

Used to tx triglycerides

  • weight loss
  • lowering A1c
  • Niacin
  • Fibric acids
  • Bile acid sequestrants
48
Q

pediatric respiratory condition hallmarked by hoarseness

A

Croup

49
Q

First line therapy for pan sensitive UTI in a women

A

nitrofurantoin - unless very late in pregnancy (3rd trimester)

PCN and 1st gen cefalosporins dont have great gram neg coverage which is most common in UTI

Fosfomycin - only 1 time dose, but very broad coverage

50
Q

25 yr female with lower abd pain. What would suggest PID as cause?

A

Temp >101
Elevated ESR

Hyphae suggest fungal/yeast infection

51
Q

crushing’s disease is caused by excess secretion of what?

A

glucocorticoids

52
Q

Which drug is used to treat vertigo?

A

Meclizine

53
Q

due to the mechanism of action meglitinides used in the tx of DM 2 should be administered when

A

at meal time - decrease absorption

54
Q

what organism in a UA would make you think it is contaminated?

A

Lactobacillus - not a normal urine pathogen. often comes from external genitalia

55
Q

the valve most commonly involved in chronic rheumatic heart disease is the

A

Mitral

56
Q

which medication is an alpha 1 adrenergic antagonists (alpha blocker)

A

Terazosin

57
Q

First line tx for CHRONIC gout

A

Allopurinol

58
Q

syphilis may present as…

A

A rash

59
Q

Which of the following tools should you first administer for a 84 yr old not motivated to participate in care?

a. CAD-7
b. MME
c. Geriatric Depression screening tool
d. CAGE questionnaire

A

Geriatric depression screening tool

mms- mini mental exam (cognitive impairment)

60
Q

which STI is: Treponema pallidum infection, that penetrates intact skin or mucous membranes during sexual intercourse

A

Syphilis

61
Q

yellowish raised growth on the conjunctiva that extends into the cornea is an

A

Ptergygium - extends into cornea

62
Q

which of the following is a risk factor for testicular CA

a. epididmyitis
b. hx of chlamydia
c. HIV
d. Cryptochroidism

A

D. cryptochroidism

63
Q

thalassemia minor can be categorized by

A

microcytic, hypochromic rbcs (hemolytic anemia )

64
Q

Pts with a full or partial extra copy of chromosome 21 is diagnosed with

A

Downs Syndrome

65
Q

Combine Oral contraceptives indicated for… (besides birth control )

A

Premenstrual syndrome

NOT Breast ca prevention - estrogen will exacerbate risk

66
Q

hypochromic, microcytic anemia is…

A

Iron deficiency anemia

67
Q

Continuous urinary drippling or leakakage… what kind of incontinence?

A

Overflow

68
Q

which of the following formed in the liver as a byproduct of protien metabolized and elminated by the kidney

A

Urea

69
Q

what organism in the UA would make you think its contaminated

A

lactobacillus

70
Q

Which of the following is a co-morbid condition with graves disease

A

SLE

71
Q

cushing disease is caused by excess secretion of which?

A

glucocorticoids

72
Q

most common cause of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease (Autoimmune)

73
Q

pt with a full or partial extra copy of chromosome are diagnosed with

A

downs syndrome

74
Q

hypochromic microcytic anemia?

A

iron deficiency

75
Q

Trichomoniasis is what kind of pathogen

A

protozoal

76
Q

what is one of the most curable cancers?

A

testicular

77
Q

first line treatment for chronic gout?

A

allopurinol

78
Q

treponema pallidum infection is a spirochete that penetrates intact skin or mucous membranes during sexual intercourse. Known as what?

A

syphillis

79
Q

macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia due to Vit 12 deficiency

A

pernicious anemia

80
Q

what is an anticholinergic medication used to treat overflow incontinence?

A

oxybutin

81
Q

Due to the MOA, meglitinides used in the tx of DM2 should be administerd?

A

at meal time

82
Q

sulfonylurea agents such as glimepiride do what

A

stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cell

83
Q

pt with UTI. what findings on a dip stick typically indicate its positive?

A

positive leukocytes and nitrities

84
Q

syphillis may present as

A

rash

85
Q

How should patients with syphilis be screened?

A

Serum assessement (Rapid Plasma Reagin)

86
Q

which mitral disorder results from redundancy of the mitral valves leaflets?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

3P (16 decks)

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