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professional studies 4 > jurisprudence > Flashcards

jurisprudence Flashcards

1
Q

what is professional conduct

A

expectationson members of a profession imposed by the professions governing body - professional regulator

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2
Q

what is the difference between regulations of civil or criminal

A

civil - regulation of performance - between people

criminal - notifiable occupation- between state and people

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3
Q

what is the purpose of the veterinary surgeons act 1966 - section 19

A

protect the public and animals - regulation of training, registration of vets and regulation of professional conduct

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4
Q

what is stated in the veterinary surgeons act regarding restriction of practice

A

no person shall practice or hold himself out as a practicing or be prepared to practice surgery unless registered in the register of veterinary surgeons

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5
Q

what must be declared when applying ot be registered

A

convictions, cautions or adverse findings that may affect registration

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6
Q

what is meant by an adverse finding in regards to joining the register

A

any finding in veterinary school or university fitness to practice procedures `

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7
Q

when might a persons name be removed from the the register

A

crime of disgraceful conduct if they are convicted in the united kingdom or elsewhere of a criminal offence which renders them unfit to practice. judged to have been guilty of disgraceful conduct or they have fraudulently entered the programme

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8
Q

what scheme covers veterinary surgeons that discloses convictions to the RCVS

A

notifiable occupations scheme

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9
Q

what would be examples of unfit to practice convictions

A

fraud, prescribing offences, animal welfare offense, smuggling animals, serial violence or drunken behaviour

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10
Q

what are the 4 steps of the RCVS complaints procedure

A

case assessment, case examination, preliminary investigation committee, disciplinary commmitee

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11
Q

how many case examiners look at a case

A

2 - veterinary surgeon who is a member of the PIC and a lay member

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12
Q

what does the preliminary investigation committee do

A

decide whether there is a realistic prospect of proving serious misconduct against the veterinary surgeon

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13
Q

what is the role of the disciplinary committee

A

there is a formal public hearing - inquiry

vet has the support of the indemnity insurer such as the veterinary defence society

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14
Q

how many members are in the preliminary investigation committee and what are they made up of

A

9-15 members appointed by RCVS council at least 1/3 are vets and 1/3 lay persons

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15
Q

how many people make up the disciplinary committee and what are they made up of

A

20-40 members appointed by RCVS council and must not be members of the council. at least 1/3 vets and 1/3 lay persons

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16
Q

how many people are in a panel of disciplinary committee

A

5-7 people

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17
Q

what are the 3 stages of a disciplinary hearing

A

descision on the facts, on the disgraceful conduct and on the sanction

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18
Q

what are the 5 principles of practice

A

professional competence. honesty and integrity, independence and impartiality, client confidentiality and professional accountability

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19
Q

what 6 areas to vets have professional responsibilities to

A

animals, clients , profession, veterinary team, RCVS and the public

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20
Q

what is the definition of a certification

A

written statement made with authority

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21
Q

what of the principles of practice is false certification an example of

A

dishonesty and integrity

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22
Q

what are the 4cs of certification

A

caution, certainty, clarity and challenge

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23
Q

what is meant by cuation of the 4 cs

A

before signing a certificate surgeons must scrutinise the document and be clear as to whom they are responsible in exercising their authority when they sign the document

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24
Q

what is meant by clarity of the 4cs

A

scrutinising the document including reading and understanding any supporting material and checking for any ambiguity that should be clarified

25
what is meant by certainty of the 4 cs
be sure to attest only to what is true to the best of their knowledge - do not attest to future events, do not recklessly attest to what others have declared or asserted
26
what is meant by challenge of the 4 cs
consider what their defence would be if challenged and keep written records made at the time of decision to sign
27
under the veterinary medicines regulations 2013 what is meant by a veterinary medicinal product
any substance presented as having properties for treating or preventing disease in animals or may be used in or administered to animals with a view either to restoring correcting or modifying physiological functions
28
what is stated in the veterinary medicines regulations 2013 schedule 3 part 1
classification and supply of authorised veterinary medicinal products
29
who may supply a POMV medication
veterinary surgeon or a pharmacist with a prescription from a vet
30
who may supply a POM-VPS
vet, pharmacist r a suitably qualifies person
31
who may supply a NFA-VPS
without a prescription but only supplied by a vet, pharmacist or suitably qualified person WH
32
who may supply a AVM-GSI
anyone - general sales list so no restrictions on supply
33
what must be ensured by the person prescribing a product
the person who will use it is competent to do so safely and intends to use it for the purpose of which it is authorised, advise on safe administration and must not prescribe more than the minimum amount required for the treatment
34
what mus ta veterinary surgeon do before prescribing a POMV
examine the animal and the animal must be under that surgeons care
35
what must a surgeon do when prescribing a AVM GSL
be present when its handed over unless they authorise the transaction before the product is supplied and are satisfied that the person handing it over is competent to do so
36
how long is a written prescription for a controlled drug valid for and for any other drug
28 days | 6 months
37
who grants marketing authorisation for products being placed on the market
secretary of state or the agency
38
what is in schedule 4 of the veterinary medicines regulations 2013
the cascade
39
when can you use a drug under the cascade when there is a licenced alternative
when the alternative is ineffective due to resistance or failure to eradicate a chronic condition
40
what is provided by schedules 3, 4, 9 and 18 of the animal welfare act 2006
3 - duty of care on a person with responsibility for animals 4 -offence of causing unnecessary suffering 9 - animals needs to be met 18 - vet can certify if in the animals best interests it needs to be destroyed
41
what is meant by direction regarding a veterinary student
instruction given but vet is not needed to be present
42
what is meant by supervision
vet is present on premises and can respond to assistance
43
what is meant by direct and continuous supervision
vet is present and gives student undivided and personal attention
44
when would a person commit an offence in regards to docking a dogs tail and when would these not apply
if the tail is removed for reason other than medical treatment, if they are responsible for the dog ad permitted that to happen exception is if the dog is a certified working dog and is less than 5 days old
45
when would a dog be certified as a working dog
first condition - evidence that the dog is likely to be used for work in connection with law enforcement, armed forces, emergency rescue, lawful pest control or shooting of animals (need to provide a shotgun licence or a letter from a gamekeeper etc) second condition - the dog is of a type specified for the purposes of this subsection by regulations
46
when might a veterinary surgeon certify that a dog is a working dog
the dam of the dog is one or more of the types specified in schedule 1 and the dog is less than 5 days old and the owner of the dog has shown them evidence
47
under schedule 1 of the docking of working dogs tails regulations 2007 what are the specific breeds of dogs and what must they all have
hunt point retrieve breeds, spaniels, terriers | microchip
48
what is negligence
a tort or a civil wrong- requires a duty of care between the parties and a breech of that duty, causation of loss by that breach and loss or damage
49
what is the borlam test
the standard of the ordinary skilled man, - in case of a medical man - neglicence means failure to act in accordance with the standards of a reasonably competent medical man at the time
50
what 3 things are important in remaining in your area of competence
refer appropriately, seek help and PDP/CPD
51
why is CPD so important
allows you to meet standard of care due to awareness of changed practices
52
what is vicarious liability
responsibility that devolves on you by virtue of your employees being under your direction and control
53
what insurance must a practice or partnership have
emplyers liability, public liability and buildings insurance
54
what do you do if costs of an operation rise above the given estimate
update the contractual agreement by discussion with the client and record it
55
when may a vet breach client confidentialty
the client gives permission or animal welfare or public interest is compromised
56
what procedures can only equine dental technicians who have passed a defra approved exam carry out - category 2 procedures
removal of lose teeth including wolf teeth, use of motorised dental instruments
57
in relation to equine dentistry what is a category 1 procedure
anyone after training can do - remove sharp enamel points only with manual rasps, remove dental overgrowths- up to 4mm, remove lose caps and supragingival calculus
58
who can perform euthanasia N
anyone as not an act of eterinary surgery -
59
what is schedule 6 of the medicines regulation
small animal exemptions for reptiles etc

professional studies 4 (7 decks)

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