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professional studies 4 > jurisprudence > Flashcards

jurisprudence Flashcards

1
Q

what is professional conduct

A

expectationson members of a profession imposed by the professions governing body - professional regulator

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2
Q

what is the difference between regulations of civil or criminal

A

civil - regulation of performance - between people

criminal - notifiable occupation- between state and people

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3
Q

what is the purpose of the veterinary surgeons act 1966 - section 19

A

protect the public and animals - regulation of training, registration of vets and regulation of professional conduct

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4
Q

what is stated in the veterinary surgeons act regarding restriction of practice

A

no person shall practice or hold himself out as a practicing or be prepared to practice surgery unless registered in the register of veterinary surgeons

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5
Q

what must be declared when applying ot be registered

A

convictions, cautions or adverse findings that may affect registration

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6
Q

what is meant by an adverse finding in regards to joining the register

A

any finding in veterinary school or university fitness to practice procedures `

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7
Q

when might a persons name be removed from the the register

A

crime of disgraceful conduct if they are convicted in the united kingdom or elsewhere of a criminal offence which renders them unfit to practice. judged to have been guilty of disgraceful conduct or they have fraudulently entered the programme

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8
Q

what scheme covers veterinary surgeons that discloses convictions to the RCVS

A

notifiable occupations scheme

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9
Q

what would be examples of unfit to practice convictions

A

fraud, prescribing offences, animal welfare offense, smuggling animals, serial violence or drunken behaviour

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10
Q

what are the 4 steps of the RCVS complaints procedure

A

case assessment, case examination, preliminary investigation committee, disciplinary commmitee

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11
Q

how many case examiners look at a case

A

2 - veterinary surgeon who is a member of the PIC and a lay member

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12
Q

what does the preliminary investigation committee do

A

decide whether there is a realistic prospect of proving serious misconduct against the veterinary surgeon

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13
Q

what is the role of the disciplinary committee

A

there is a formal public hearing - inquiry

vet has the support of the indemnity insurer such as the veterinary defence society

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14
Q

how many members are in the preliminary investigation committee and what are they made up of

A

9-15 members appointed by RCVS council at least 1/3 are vets and 1/3 lay persons

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15
Q

how many people make up the disciplinary committee and what are they made up of

A

20-40 members appointed by RCVS council and must not be members of the council. at least 1/3 vets and 1/3 lay persons

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16
Q

how many people are in a panel of disciplinary committee

A

5-7 people

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17
Q

what are the 3 stages of a disciplinary hearing

A

descision on the facts, on the disgraceful conduct and on the sanction

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18
Q

what are the 5 principles of practice

A

professional competence. honesty and integrity, independence and impartiality, client confidentiality and professional accountability

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19
Q

what 6 areas to vets have professional responsibilities to

A

animals, clients , profession, veterinary team, RCVS and the public

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20
Q

what is the definition of a certification

A

written statement made with authority

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21
Q

what of the principles of practice is false certification an example of

A

dishonesty and integrity

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22
Q

what are the 4cs of certification

A

caution, certainty, clarity and challenge

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23
Q

what is meant by cuation of the 4 cs

A

before signing a certificate surgeons must scrutinise the document and be clear as to whom they are responsible in exercising their authority when they sign the document

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24
Q

what is meant by clarity of the 4cs

A

scrutinising the document including reading and understanding any supporting material and checking for any ambiguity that should be clarified

25
Q

what is meant by certainty of the 4 cs

A

be sure to attest only to what is true to the best of their knowledge - do not attest to future events, do not recklessly attest to what others have declared or asserted

26
Q

what is meant by challenge of the 4 cs

A

consider what their defence would be if challenged and keep written records made at the time of decision to sign

27
Q

under the veterinary medicines regulations 2013 what is meant by a veterinary medicinal product

A

any substance presented as having properties for treating or preventing disease in animals or may be used in or administered to animals with a view either to restoring correcting or modifying physiological functions

28
Q

what is stated in the veterinary medicines regulations 2013 schedule 3 part 1

A

classification and supply of authorised veterinary medicinal products

29
Q

who may supply a POMV medication

A

veterinary surgeon or a pharmacist with a prescription from a vet

30
Q

who may supply a POM-VPS

A

vet, pharmacist r a suitably qualifies person

31
Q

who may supply a NFA-VPS

A

without a prescription but only supplied by a vet, pharmacist or suitably qualified person WH

32
Q

who may supply a AVM-GSI

A

anyone - general sales list so no restrictions on supply

33
Q

what must be ensured by the person prescribing a product

A

the person who will use it is competent to do so safely and intends to use it for the purpose of which it is authorised, advise on safe administration and must not prescribe more than the minimum amount required for the treatment

34
Q

what mus ta veterinary surgeon do before prescribing a POMV

A

examine the animal and the animal must be under that surgeons care

35
Q

what must a surgeon do when prescribing a AVM GSL

A

be present when its handed over unless they authorise the transaction before the product is supplied and are satisfied that the person handing it over is competent to do so

36
Q

how long is a written prescription for a controlled drug valid for and for any other drug

A

28 days

6 months

37
Q

who grants marketing authorisation for products being placed on the market

A

secretary of state or the agency

38
Q

what is in schedule 4 of the veterinary medicines regulations 2013

A

the cascade

39
Q

when can you use a drug under the cascade when there is a licenced alternative

A

when the alternative is ineffective due to resistance or failure to eradicate a chronic condition

40
Q

what is provided by schedules 3, 4, 9 and 18 of the animal welfare act 2006

A

3 - duty of care on a person with responsibility for animals
4 -offence of causing unnecessary suffering
9 - animals needs to be met
18 - vet can certify if in the animals best interests it needs to be destroyed

41
Q

what is meant by direction regarding a veterinary student

A

instruction given but vet is not needed to be present

42
Q

what is meant by supervision

A

vet is present on premises and can respond to assistance

43
Q

what is meant by direct and continuous supervision

A

vet is present and gives student undivided and personal attention

44
Q

when would a person commit an offence in regards to docking a dogs tail and when would these not apply

A

if the tail is removed for reason other than medical treatment, if they are responsible for the dog ad permitted that to happen
exception is if the dog is a certified working dog and is less than 5 days old

45
Q

when would a dog be certified as a working dog

A

first condition - evidence that the dog is likely to be used for work in connection with law enforcement, armed forces, emergency rescue, lawful pest control or shooting of animals (need to provide a shotgun licence or a letter from a gamekeeper etc)
second condition - the dog is of a type specified for the purposes of this subsection by regulations

46
Q

when might a veterinary surgeon certify that a dog is a working dog

A

the dam of the dog is one or more of the types specified in schedule 1 and the dog is less than 5 days old and the owner of the dog has shown them evidence

47
Q

under schedule 1 of the docking of working dogs tails regulations 2007 what are the specific breeds of dogs and what must they all have

A

hunt point retrieve breeds, spaniels, terriers

microchip

48
Q

what is negligence

A

a tort or a civil wrong- requires a duty of care between the parties and a breech of that duty, causation of loss by that breach and loss or damage

49
Q

what is the borlam test

A

the standard of the ordinary skilled man, - in case of a medical man - neglicence means failure to act in accordance with the standards of a reasonably competent medical man at the time

50
Q

what 3 things are important in remaining in your area of competence

A

refer appropriately, seek help and PDP/CPD

51
Q

why is CPD so important

A

allows you to meet standard of care due to awareness of changed practices

52
Q

what is vicarious liability

A

responsibility that devolves on you by virtue of your employees being under your direction and control

53
Q

what insurance must a practice or partnership have

A

emplyers liability, public liability and buildings insurance

54
Q

what do you do if costs of an operation rise above the given estimate

A

update the contractual agreement by discussion with the client and record it

55
Q

when may a vet breach client confidentialty

A

the client gives permission or animal welfare or public interest is compromised

56
Q

what procedures can only equine dental technicians who have passed a defra approved exam carry out - category 2 procedures

A

removal of lose teeth including wolf teeth, use of motorised dental instruments

57
Q

in relation to equine dentistry what is a category 1 procedure

A

anyone after training can do - remove sharp enamel points only with manual rasps, remove dental overgrowths- up to 4mm, remove lose caps and supragingival calculus

58
Q

who can perform euthanasia N

A

anyone as not an act of eterinary surgery -

59
Q

what is schedule 6 of the medicines regulation

A

small animal exemptions for reptiles etc

professional studies 4 (7 decks)

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