July 2019 Virginia Bar Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The city’s standard of care to plaintiffs in regard to operating parks and certain other recreational facilites for the use and enjoyment of the public.

A

Cities are immune for simple negligence but remain liable for acts of gross negligence

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2
Q

How has the VA Supreme Court defined Gross Negligence

A

the utter disregard of prudence amounting to complete neglect of the safety of another, emphasizing the importance of deliberate conduct.

The court has found that gross neglience can be proved from a combination of several acts of simple negligence.

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3
Q

A municipality must have actual and constructive notice of a defect on public property in time to have it remedied before liability attached.

A

A plaintiff must show more than that a defect on public property has come into being and caused plaintiff’s injury.

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4
Q

The duty of a municipality to keeps its property in a reasonably safe condition for pershow who use ordinary care and prudence.

A

A municipality is bound to use due and proper care to see that its property which is open to use by the public is reasonably safe to persons passing on or along the property when exercising ordinary care and prudence.

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5
Q

What is the duty of a municipality to persons passing one or along its property?

A

the duty to use due and proper care to keep its property in a reasonably safe condition.

Simple Negligence.

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6
Q

the plaintiff must provide what kind of notice to municipality?

A

The plaintiff must provide actual and constructive notice of a defect on public property in time to have it remedied before liabilty attaches.

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7
Q

In order to prove that the city breached its standard of care aka Simple Negligence (public sidewalk) the plaintiff needs to do these

A

*In regard to side walks, the city has a duty of simple negligence.

Meaning it has a duty to keep the property in a reasonable safe condition for persons who use ordinary care and prudence.

The plaintiff needs to provide actual and constructive notice of a defect on public property in time to have it remedied before liability attaches.

The plaintiff must show more than that a defect on public property has come into being and caused plaintiff’s injury.

a City needs to have constructive notice of a defect in a public way adjoining the stret when the defect has existed for such a period of time that the defect could have been discovered by the exercise of ordinary care.

A city has constructive notice of a defect in a public street when the defect has existed long enough that it cold have been discovered by the exercise of ordinary care.

Open and obvious defects don’t give rise to municipal liability.

**
The duty of a owner of public land to an invitee

A landowner must exercise care in regard to dangerous conditions that are concealed and known to the land possessor in advanced or could have been discovered by a reasonable inspection.

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8
Q

Is the maintain of a city sidewalk a proiprietary function or a governmental function?

A

It is a proprietary function. So, the city would be negligent for simple acts of neligence

thus the city would have a duty to exercise reasonable care to ensure the area is free from any dangerous known conditions or conditions that could have been discovered through reasonable inspection.

though not for open and obvious dangers.

Plaintiff need to prove that the City had actual or constructive notice of the defect. Constructive meaning that the defect could have been discovered by reasonable inspection by the city.

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9
Q

PArtnership and Corporations

the impact of a Shareholder’s agreement on the liability of a Corporation.

A

A shareholders’ agreement in regard to the share of liability is enforceable.

Shareholders have broad latitude to enter agreements concerning, among other things, corporate governance, distributions and the relationship among the shareholders.

However such a shareholder’s agreement must be in writing and signed by all shareholders and set forth in the bylaws or articles.

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10
Q

How is a general Partnership formed

A

when two or more persons decide to operate a business for profit together as co-owners

an association of two or more person to operate a business for profit as co-owners

There are no formal writing or filings need to form a General Partnership.

In fact sharing profits and losses creates a presumption of a partnership.

As well as sharing control.

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11
Q

Partner’s liability to the torts of the partnership.

A

Partners are jointly and severally liable for the debts of the partnership. Including torts and contract obligations.

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12
Q

A partnership liability for a tort of a partner.

A

A partnership is liable for the tort of a partner if the partner’s actions were committed in the ordinary course of the partnership.

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13
Q

or

Are the owners/shareholders generally liable for the debts of the corporation.

A

NO.

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14
Q

how to obtain a Dissolution, accounting, and distribution of assets?

PARTNERSHIP

A

LOOK UP IN THE PARTNERSHIP OUTLINE.

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15
Q

How to Dissolve a Corporation

A

LOOK UP IN THE CORPORATION OUTLINE

**Virginia law provides for voluntary dissolution as follows:

if your nonprofit has members, by action of the directors followed by a vote of the members; or
if your nonprofit doesn’t have members, by a vote of the directors.
**
**

**Articles of Dissolution
After your board (and, where applicable, voting members) have approved the dissolution, you’ll need to file articles of dissolution with the State Corporation Commission (SCC). The articles of dissolution must contain:
**
the name of your nonprofit
the date dissolution was authorized
if approval by members was required, one or more statements giving details of what kind of member approval was obtained; and
if approval by members was not required, a statement of that fact, the date of the meeting of the board of directors at which the dissolution was authorized, and a statement of the fact that dissolution was authorized by the vote of a majority of the directors in office.

**“Winding Up”
**After your nonprofit has formally authorized dissolution, it continues to exist only for the purpose of taking care of certain final matters that, collectively, are known as “winding up” the company. Winding up is largely about paying off any debts and then distributing any remaining assets, but there may also be other tasks involved.

Generally speaking, you can only distribute money and property after you have paid off all of your nonprofit’s debts. Then, for asset distributions, there are specific rules you need to follow. For example, your nonprofit must return any items that were loaned to it on the condition that they would be returned upon dissolution. In addition, after paying off debts and returning loaned assets, a dissolving 501(c)(3) organization must distribute its remaining assets for tax-exempt purposes. In practice, this usually means distributing assets to one or more other 501(c)(3) organizations. Other requirements for distributions may also apply; you’ll need to follow your plan of distribution. If you have any questions, you should consult with a lawyer.

First you must pay off all the nonprofit debts

the the asset distributino
- return all loan items
- then after paying off debts and reutnring loan assets, you must distrbute the remaining assets for tax exmpt purposes

Notice to Creditors

Articles of Termination
After you’ve finished winding up your nonprofit, you must file articles of termination with the SCC. (In some cases, where very little is needed to wind up, a nonprofit may end up filing the articles of dissolution and articles of termination at the same time.) The articles of termination must include:

the name of your nonprofit
a statement that all the assets of the nonprofit have been distributed; and
a statement that the dissolution of the nonprofit has not been revoked.
A single PDF file containing forms for the articles of dissolution and articles of termination, as well as detailed instructions, is available for download from the SCC website.

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16
Q

How to seek a Judicial dissolution of the corporation.

A

Plaintiff shareholders must prove that
* there is a deadlock in management of the corporation
* oppressive or illegal conduct by the majority of shareholders
* waste of corporate assets.
*

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17
Q

Domestic Relations & VA Civil Procedure

When a person is married to another person while entering a marriage ceremony with a third person, that marriage is

A

void, because it is bigamous. It is as if the marriage never existed.

All marriages which are prohibited by law on account of either party having a former wife or husand then living shall be absolutely void. Without any decree of divorce.

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18
Q

What is the process and requirements of a Demurrer

A

A Demurrer is a pleading to challenge the legal basis of an aggressive pleading.

It must be filed within 21 days of service of process unless the trial judge grants leave for additioal time within which to file it.

The demurer must state the specific grounds (not merely failure to plead a cause of action)

and the trial judge may lok only to the face of the plaintiff’s leading in ruling on the demurrer.

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19
Q

What is the process and requirements of Demurrer

A

Demurrer is a pleading that challenges the legal sufficiency of the other party’s pleading

It must be filed within 21 days of the service of process.

And it must state specific grounds as to why the other party’s plaintiff isn’t legally sufficient. Not just a failure to state a claim.

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20
Q

When a tenancy by entirety is impossible, the court may assume that the tenancy is a joint tenancy.

Because legal impossibilty

A

And it there is a right of survivorship, the tenancy would be a joint tenancy with right of survivorship.

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21
Q

Trust and Equity

the theory of unjust enrichment

A

That one party was contractually entitled to the insurance proceeds that had been paid to another party and that the other party would be unjustly enriched if permitted to keep the money.

The court should rule that Sophia held the money in trust for Julie in a constructive trust.

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22
Q

What is a Trust

A

A trust is a fiduciary relationship in which a trustee holds legal title to manage property on behalf of the beneficiary, who holds equitable title.

Trustee holds legal title under fiduciary duty to manage, invest, safe guards, and administer the trust assets and income for the benefit of the designated beneficiaries.

Settlor is the creator

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23
Q

Types of Trust

A

Express Trusts - which arises from the expressed intention of the settlor

Resulting Trusts - which arises from the presumed intention of the settlor

Constructive Trusts - which arises in cases in volving wrongful conduct and unjust enrichment.

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24
Q

Expressed Private Trust Requirements

A
  • A settlor with the capacity to convey the title to trustee or an agent with the power of attorney
  • an intention to create a trust
  • one or more definite beneficiaries
  • a present deposition in trust of idenifiable property then owned by the settlor
  • a lawful purpose.

Trust must be for lawful purposes

no writing required.

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25
Q

Constructive Trusts

A

A constructive trust isn’t a trust, but rather a flexible equitable remedy imposed to prevent unjust enrichment as a result of fraud, undue influence, breach of fiduciary duty, mistake and the like.

The constructive Trustee’s only duty is to convey the propety to the person who would have owned if but for the wrongful conduct.

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26
Q

How do Constructive Trusts arises

A

they arise independently of the intentions of the parties, by construction of law; being fastened upon the conscience of him who has the legal estates, in order to prevent fraud.

In the essay, Sophie while not having done anything wrong, had funrished no consideration for the transfer, and would be unjustly enriched at Julie’s expenses, funrishes the equitable justification, for imposing a constructive trust.

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27
Q

What is needed for there to be a valid inter vivos gift.

A

Present donative intent

valid delivery

and acceptance.

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28
Q

If the donor has present donative intent, the donor may reserve a right of possession

A

(a gift in praesenti with a postponeed right of enjoyment)

In this case, a formal delivery of a deed or gift is not essential where the acts of the grantor or donor manifest an intent that as to him the transaction is complete.

The essence of delivery is surrender of dominion and control of the gift by the donor.

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29
Q

When is a formal delivery not necessay in an inter vivos gift

A

when the grantor manifests an intent to the grantee that the transaction/surrend of dominion and control was already completed.

I give you the idtem.

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30
Q

What are the requirements of a Holographic Will

A

There must be Testamentary Intent and Capacity

it must wholly be in the testator hand writing

It must be signed by the testator.

No witnesses are required

Age and Mental Capacity
When creating the will, the testator must be at least 18 years old and of sound mind.

Written Entirely by Hand
The holographic will must be entirely handwritten by the testator. Typed or pre-printed text is not allowed.

Testamentary Intent
The document must clearly indicate the testator’s intent to create a will and distribute their assets upon their death.

Signature
The testator must sign the will, usually at the end of the document.

Witnesses
In Virginia, a holographic will does not require witnesses to be present when the will is signed. However, after the testator’s death, at least two disinterested witnesses must testify in court that the handwriting and signature are those of the deceased testator.

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31
Q

Testamentary Intent

And Testamentary Capacity

A

That the testator had the intent for his will to be the final document for the distribution of his property and that for it to occur after his death.

That the testator understood the nature and extent of his property

that he knew the recipients of his bounty

that he knew that the will would impact their heirs right to inherit.

to connect all these elements to make a coherent plan.

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32
Q

How do you establish paternity?

A

It must be established by Clear and Convincing Evidence

Examples of factors establishing paternity
- evidence of open cohabitation with the parent
- a designation as the father in the birth record
- common use of his surname
- government documents claiming that the child is his child
- expressed admission of parenity
- A support agreement could be an implicit admission.

33
Q

In regard to illegitmate children.

A

No claim of succession based upon the relationship between a child born out of wed lock and a deceased parent shall be recognized unless, within oneyear of hte date of the death of the parent,

  • an affidavit by such child or someone acting for such child alleging such parenthood has been filed in the clerk’s office of the circuit court of the jurisdiction wherein the property is located
  • and an action seeking adjudication of parenthood is filed in the appropriate circuit court.

Partenity must be established by clear and convincing evidence.

34
Q

Intestacy where there is a wife and two or more children with only the decedent as the parent.

What else is the wife entitled to?

A

The wife gets one third and 2/3 are divided between the children.

Family allowance of 24k in a lump sum or 2k a mount for one year.

and a homestead allowance of 20k

35
Q

in a situation where the wife is the surviving spouse and all children from her

A

she gets 100 percent.

36
Q

When officers enter and search a home pursuant to a valid search warrant, then they …..

A

Have a valid right to be in the home and search the home for the items stated in the warrant.

37
Q

the Plainview Exception

A

Under the plainview exception, officers may sieze illegal items that are in the open are in their plain view as long as they have a right to be where they observe the items and that it is immediately apparent to them that the items are illegal contraband.

38
Q

What places and containers can police search in the execution of a search warrant.

A

Any place and location where the object of the search may be reasonably have been found.

39
Q

Possession of a firearm charge.

As well as Drugs.

A

Guilt can be proven by circumstantial as well as direct evidence. Such as evidence of clothing that points him teo the crime.

Possession of firearms or drugs don’t require active, physical possession.

It is sufficient to prove that the defendant had such dominion and control over the firearm or drugs that he had constructive possession of them.

For instance drugs found in his home and there is no indication that it belonged to anyone else.

40
Q

Rule 4.2 - Communication With Persons Represented By Counsel
RPC

A

In representing a client, a lawyer shall not communicate about the subject of the representation with a person the lawyer knows to be represented by another lawyer in the matter, unless the lawyer has the consent of the other lawyer or is authorized by law to do so.

41
Q

Communicating with Persons that the lawyer knows is represented by another laywer in the matter.

A

In this situation, the lawyer shall not communicate about the subject or the representation with a person the lawyer knows to be represented by another lawyer in the matter, unless the lawyer has the consent of hte other lawyer is authorized by law to do so.

42
Q

RPC Rule 4.3 - Dealing With Unrepresented Persons

A

(a) In dealing on behalf of a client with a person who is not represented by counsel, a lawyer shall not state or imply that the lawyer is disinterested. When the lawyer knows or reasonably should know that the unrepresented person misunderstands the lawyer’s role in the matter, the lawyer shall make reasonable efforts to correct the misunderstanding.
(b) A lawyer shall not give advice to a person who is not represented by a lawyer, other than the advice to secure counsel, if the interests of such person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interest of the client.

43
Q

RPC Rule 4.3 - Dealing With Unrepresented Persons

A

in dealing on behalf of clients with a person who is not represented by counsel, the lawyer shall not state or imply that the lawyer is disinterested. When the lawyer knows or reasonably knows that the unrepresented person misunderstand the lawyer’s role in the matter, the lawyer shall make reasonable efforts to correct the misunderstanding.

A lawyer shall not give advice to a person who is not represented by a lawyer, other than advice to secure counsel, if the interests of such person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interest of the client.

44
Q

In the case of organizations in connection with Communicating with persons represented by counsel

RPC 4.2.

A

In the case of organizations, this Rule prohibits communications by a lawyer for one party concerning the matter in represenation with persons in the Organization’s control group.

However this prohibition does not apply to former employees or agents of the organization. and attorney may communicate an ex parte with such former employee or agent even if she was a member of the organization’s control groupd.

45
Q

Rule 4.2 - Communication With Persons Represented By Counsel

A

[7] In the case of a represented organization, this Rule prohibits communications with a constituent of the organization who supervises, directs, or regularly consults with the organization’s lawyer concerning the matter or has authority to obligate the organization with respect to the matter or whose act or omission in connection with the matter may be imputed to the organization for purposes of civil or criminal liability. Consent of the organization’s lawyer is not required for communication with a former constituent. If a constituent of the organization is represented in the matter by his or her own counsel, the consent by that counsel to a communication will be sufficient for purposes of this Rule. Compare Rule 3.4(h). In communicating with a current or former constituent of an organization, a lawyer must not use methods of obtaining evidence that violate the legal rights of the organization. See Rule 4.4.

46
Q

Rule 4.2 Communications with Persons represented by counsel

A

In general, an attorney shall not communicate with an person represented by another attorney without the consent of that attorney.

In regard to organizations, this rule applies to the organization’s control group. As the group of people who directly supervises, controls, or regularly consents with the organization’s attorney.

Or has authority to control the organization. Or whose act or omission in conection to the matter may be imputed on the organization.

HOWEVER

Consent of the organization isn’t required for communication with former employees or members of the organization

Also if the emoloyee or member is represented by their own counsel and they give their consent, that is usually sufficient.

47
Q

RPC Rule 4.2
Lawyer communication with represented persons.

A

This rule does not prohibit communication with representation persons or an employee or agent of a represented person concerning matters outside of the representation.

For instance, the existence of a controversy between the organization and a private party or between two organizations.

48
Q

RPC Rule 4.3 (a)

communications with Unrepresented persons

A

In dealing with unrepresented persons, the lawyer shall not imply that the lawyer is disinterested.

When lawyer knoes or resonably should know that the unrepresented person misunderstands the attorney’s role in the matter, the lawyer shall make reasonable efforts to correct the misunderstand.

49
Q

Rule 4.1 - Truthfulness In Statements To Others

RPC Rule 4.1

A

In the course of representing a client a lawyer shall not knowingly:

(a) make a false statement of fact or law; or
(b) fail to disclose a fact when disclosure is necessary to avoid assisting a criminal or fraudulent act by a client.

Misrepresentation

[1] A lawyer is required to be truthful when dealing with others on a client’s behalf, but generally has no affirmative duty to inform an opposing party of relevant facts. A misrepresentation can occur if the lawyer incorporates or affirms a statement of another person that the lawyer knows is false. Misrepresentations can also occur by failure to act or by knowingly failing to correct false statements made by the lawyer’s client or someone acting on behalf of the client.

50
Q

rule 4.1
Truthfulness in Statements To Others.

A

The the course of representing a client, a lawyer shall not knowingly

  1. make a false statement of fact or law
  2. or fail to disclose a fact when disclosure is necessary to avoid assisitng a criminal or fraudulent act by the client.

Misrepresentation
- A lawyer is required to be truthful to others on the client’s behalf, but has no affirmative duty to inform an opposing party of relevant facts. A misrepresentation can occur if the lawyer incorporates or affirms a statement of another person that the lawyer knows is false.
- Misrepresentations can also occur by failure to act or by knowinly failing to correct false statement made by the lawyer’s client or someone acting on behalf of the client.

51
Q

rule 4.1 Truthfulness to others

A

A lawyer shall not knowingly make false statements of fact or law
or fail to disclose a fact when disclosure is necessary to avoid assiting a criminal or fraudulent act by the client

if a attorney knows that the statement by a client during a deposition is false, the lawyer mut take reasonable remedial measures.

52
Q

Rule 1.6 - Confidentiality of Information

A

A lawyer has an obligation to protect client confidentiality in regard to information obtained during the attorney client relationship.

However, the attorney may reveal such information if
1. such information is required to comply with a court order
2. such information is necessary to establish a claim or defense against the client
3. such information is necessary to prove that the client committed a fraud against the third party in relation to the subject matter of the representation.
4. such information is needed to be revealed to protect the client’s interests when he is incapacited or disabled.
5.

53
Q

Rule 1.6 - Confidentiality of Information

A

(c) A lawyer shall promptly reveal:
(1) the intention of a client, as stated by the client, to commit a crime and the information necessary to prevent the crime, but before revealing such information, the attorney shall, where feasible, advise the client of the possible legal consequences of the action, urge the client not to commit the crime, and advise the client that the attorney must reveal the client’s criminal intention unless thereupon abandoned, and, if the crime involves perjury by the client, that the attorney shall seek to withdraw as counsel;
(2) information which clearly establishes that the client has, in the course of the representation, perpetrated a fraud related to the subject matter of the representation upon a tribunal. Before revealing such information, however, the lawyer shall request that the client advise the tribunal of the fraud. For the purposes of this paragraph and paragraph (b)(3), information is clearly established when the client acknowledges to the attorney that the client has perpetrated a fraud; or
(3) information concerning the misconduct of another attorney to the appropriate professional authority under Rule 8.3. When the information necessary to report the misconduct is protected under this Rule, the attorney, after consultation, must obtain client consent. Consultation should include full disclosure of all reasonably foreseeable consequences of both disclosure and nondisclosure to the client.
(d) A lawyer shall make reasonable efforts to prevent the inadvertent or unauthorized disclosure of, or unauthorized access to, information protected under this Rule.

54
Q

Confidentiality of information

A

An attonrey shall promptly reveal the intention of the client to commit a crime and the information necessary to prevent the crime

However, before revealing such information her firs action should be to advise the client of the possible legal consequences and urge the client to not commit the crime. And

Advise the client of the attorney’s duty of candor to the court. and seek the client’s cooperation with respect to the withdrawal or correction of the falst statement.

To the extent a lawyer reasonably believes necessary, the lawyer may reveal

55
Q

Rule 1.2 - Scope of Representation

A

(a) A lawyer shall abide by a client’s decisions concerning the objectives of representation, subject to paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), and shall consult with the client as to the means by which they are to be pursued. A lawyer shall abide by a client’s decision, after consultation with the lawyer, whether to accept an offer of settlement of a matter. In a criminal case, the lawyer shall abide by the client’s decision, after consultation with the lawyer, as to a plea to be entered, whether to waive jury trial and whether the client will testify.
(b) A lawyer may limit the objectives of the representation if the client consents after consultation.
(c) A lawyer shall not counsel a client to engage, or assist a client, in conduct that the lawyer knows is criminal or fraudulent, but a lawyer may
(1) discuss the legal consequences of any proposed course of conduct with a client;
(2) counsel or assist a client to make a good faith effort to determine the validity, scope, meaning, or application of the law; and
(3) counsel or assist a client regarding conduct expressly permitted by state or other applicable law that conflicts with federal law, provided that the lawyer counsels the client about the potential legal consequence of the client’s proposed course of conduct under applicable federal law.
(d) A lawyer may take such action on behalf of the client as is impliedly authorized to carry out the representation.
(e) When a lawyer knows that a client expects assistance not permitted by the Rules of Professional Conduct or other law, the lawyer shall consult with the client regarding the relevant limitations on the lawyer’s conduct.

Rule 1.2 - Scope of Representation, Va. R. Sup. Ct. 1.2

56
Q

Rule 1.2 - Scope of Representation

A

A lawyer shall abide by a client’s decisions concerning the objectives of the representation … a lawyer shall abide by a client’s decision, after consultation with the attorney, whether to accepta n officer of settlement of a matter.

57
Q

Rule 1.4 - Communication

A

(a) A lawyer shall keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter and promptly comply with reasonable requests for information.
(b) A lawyer shall explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to make informed decisions regarding the representation.
(c) A lawyer shall inform the client of facts pertinent to the matter and of communications from another party that may significantly affect settlement or resolution of the matter.

Rule 1.4 - Communication, Va. R. Sup. Ct. 1.4

58
Q

rule 1.4 - Communication

A

A lawyer shall keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter and promptly comply with reasonable requests for information

And explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to make informed decisions regarding the representation

a lawyer shall inform the client of facts pertinent to the matter and of communications from another party that may signfiicantly affect settlement or resolution of the matter.

Comment
- this includes the duty to keep the attorney reasonably informed about the avaliabilty of dispute resolution processes that might be more suitable for the client’s situation.
- the client should have sufficient information to participate concerning the objections of the representation.

A lawyer shall keep a client reasonaby informed about the status of the matter.

a lawyer shall informed the client of facts pertinent to the matter and of communications from another party that may significantly affect settlement or resolution of the matter.

59
Q

Rule 1.2 - Scope of Representation

A

comment 5, a lawyer who receives from opposing counsel an offer of settlement in a civil controversy or preoffered settlment agreement, they should promptly inform the client of its substance unless prior discussions with the client have left it clear that the proposal would be unacceptable.

60
Q

Rule 1.3 - Diligence

A

(a) A lawyer shall act with reasonable diligence and promptness in representing a client.
(b) A lawyer shall not intentionally fail to carry out a contract of employment entered into with a client for professional services, but may withdraw as permitted under Rule 1.16.
(c) A lawyer shall not intentionally prejudice or damage a client during the course of the professional relationship, except as required or permitted under Rule 1.6 and Rule 3.3.

61
Q

Rule 1.3 Diligence

A

A lawyer shall act with reasonable negligence and promptness in representing a client

in that a lawyer shall not intentionally fail to carry out a contract of employment entered into a client for professional services.

Not intentionally prejudice or damage a client during the course of professional relationship,

Comment 1
A lawyer should pursue a matter on behalf of a client despite opposition, obstruction or personal inconvenience to the lawyer

Comment 3

Perhaps no professional shortcoming is more widely resneted then procrastination. A client interests often can be adversely affected by the passage of time or changes in conditions

like statue of limitations Unreasonable dely.

62
Q

TORTS

The Doctrine of Respondeat Superior

A

Where the employer is liable for the torts of their employees committed during the scope of employment.

What is an employee - an agent of the employer whose principal controls, or has the right to control, the manner and means of how the job is performed.

when is an act committed within the scope of the Employment
1. if it was expressly or impliedly directed by an employer or is the natural incident of the business
2. it was performed, although mistakenly or ill-advisedly, with the intent to further the employer’s interests, or from some impulse or emotion that was the natural consequence of an attempt to do the employer’s business and did not arise wholly from some external, independent, personal motive on part of the employer to do the act on his own account.

63
Q

When is an act within the scope of Employment?

A
  1. if it was expressly or impliedly directed by an employer or is the natural incident of the business
  2. it was performed, although mistakenly or ill-advisedly, with the intent to further the employer’s interests, or from some impulse or emotion that was the natural consequence of an attempt to do the employer’s business and did not arise wholly from some external, independent, personal motive on part of the employer to do the act on his own account.
64
Q

When is an act within the scope of employment

A

If it was expreslly or impliedly directed by the employr or is the natural incident of the business

or it was performed, with the intent to further the employer’s interest or from some impulse or emotion that was the natural consequence of the attempt to do the employer’s business and did not arise wholly from external factors on the part of the employer.

65
Q

When are intentional torts considered to have been committed within the scope of employment

thus making the employer liable on the basis of respondeat superior?

A

courts have been relcutant to find an intentional tort within the scope of employment

But then the tort was naturally incidnet to the employee’s position and was performed with a purpose to serve the employer’s interest, then the intentional tort was committed within the scope of employment.

66
Q

the duty of a landlord to an invitee

A

What is an invitee - they are persons invited on the property for the personal business of the landlord or enter land open to the public.

The duty of a landlord to an invitee is to keep the land safe of dangerous conditions that are known to the landlord or could be known by reasonable inspection.

However, the landlord doesn’t have a duty to warn of open and dangerous conditions.

The landlord has a duty to use ordinary care to maintain the property in a reasonably safe condition. This duty is satisfied by providing a warning of dangerous conditions.
No duty to warn of open and obvious conditions.

67
Q

Negligence Per SE

A
  • plaintiff must prove that the defendant violated a statute that was enacted for public safety
  • establish that he belongs to a class of persons for whose benefit the statute was enacted
  • prove that the statutory violation was the proximate cause of the injury

The Supreme Court of VA has held that the sale of alcoholic beverages is not the proximate cause of later acts cause by the purchaser. Thus VA does not recognize a caim against the seller of alcohol in circumstances as these.

68
Q

No Dram Shop Liability in Virginia
Under Virginia law, the drinking of alcohol, not furnishing it, is the legal cause of alcohol-related accidents and injuries. Virginia has no dram shop statute on the books.

A

A common law negligence action does not lie against a vendor who provided alcholic beverages to a person who later drove an automobile and injured a third party

69
Q

Federal Civil Procedure

When does a District Court have subject matter jurisdiction?

A

Federal Question

and Diversity of Citizenship Jurisdiction

70
Q

Federal Question

A

A point of federal question

71
Q

Diversity of Citizenship

A

Plaintiffs have different citizenship then the defendants

and 75 k over.

72
Q

Citizenship test for Individuals

A

where the individual has a place of residence and the intent to make the residence his or her permanent physical residence

73
Q

Citizenship test for corporation

A

the place of domicile and principal place of business

74
Q

Citizenship test for partnerships

A

Unincorporated associations, such as partnerships, are considered to be citizens of each state where at least one of its members is a citizen.

75
Q

Amount in controversy must be over 75 k

A

exclusive of interests and costs

76
Q

Aggregation in the amount of controversy

A

To meet AIC requirements, plaintiffs can aggregate all of her own claims against one defendant, “even when those claims share nothing in common besides the identity of the parties.”

General rule precludes a plaintiff from aggregation the amount of damages from more then one defendant.

It is allowed if against two or more defendants whose negligence jointly contributed to a single injury such that they are jointly liable .

77
Q

Supplemental Jurisdiction

A

when it arises from the same common nucleus of operative facts.

78
Q

There the proper venue is

A

where a substantial part of the events or omissions occurred or where all the defendants reside.

79
Q

Court of appeals shall have jurisdiction from all final decisions of district courts

A

with the exception of for an appealable interlocutory order