July 2016 Bar Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The Requirements in a Negligence Claim

A

Duty, Breach of that Duty, Causation, and Damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What duty does a landowner owe to any passerbys?

A

**In regard to natural conditions, a landowner owes no duty to any passerbys to warn, inspect or repair any dangerous natural conditions on the land.
**
This includes any trees that are naturally damaged and have the possiblity of falling down on someone nearby

**However, there is a duty to any unknown or known passerbys to warn, inspect, and repair any dangerous artificial conditions on the land
**
There is a duty owed to refrain from engaging in any act that makes the highway more dangerous then in is natural state or in the state in which it has been left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What duty does a landowner owe to passerbys if she engages in cutting down a tree and leaves it in that condition.

A

she altered a natural condition on her land into an artificial dangerus condition on her property.

In regard to dangerous artificial conditions on the land, the Landowner has a duty to warn and make safe such conditions for any passerbys. In regard to a highway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causation

A

Proximate and Actual Cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Actual Cause

A

The but-for test is a test commonly used in both tort law and criminal law to determine actual causation. The test asks, “but for the existence of X, would Y have occurred?”

In tort law, but-for causation is a prerequisite to liability in combination with proximate cause. In the absence of either of these, a party cannot be held liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Proximate Cause

A

the act or omission that immediately caused or fails to prevent the injury to the defendant

An act or omission without which, the injury would not have occurred.

An injury that would have been reasonably anticipated by a reasonably prudent person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an Intervening Cause

A

An event that occurs after a party’s improper or dangerous action and before the damage that could otherwise have been caused by the dangerous act, thereby breaking the chain of causation between the original act and the harm to the injured person, is known as an “intervening cause.”

The presence of an intervening cause can mean that the person who started the chain of events may no longer be considered responsible for damages to the injured person since the original action is no longer the proximate cause.

For example, in the Ohio state case State v. Smith, the defendant punched the victim in the head, and the victim hit head on a nearby car and then the pavement. On being rushed to the hospital for his head injuries, the victim refused to get a CAT scan, but his head injuries persisted. On returning home, he continued to feel sick and confused, and failed to take his insulin. The victim died days after the punch. The court did not, however, find that the victim’s failure to take his insulin was an intervening cause, since the punch caused the victim to fail to take his medicine through the mental injuries. The defendant was thus guilty of homicide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an Intervening Cause

A

An intervening cause is an event between the Defendant’s original improper act and the harm to the defendant that may or may not have been the result of the defendant’s original improper act.

Thus, it is an act that could break the chain of causation between the original act and the harm.

Thus the presence of an intervening cause means that the defendant may not be liable for the damages to the plaintiff since his action is no longer the proximate cause of the damages to the plaintiff.

An intervening cause may break the change of casuation because it occurrs between the defendant’s original improper conduct and the harm that occurred to the plaintiff.

Intervening causes that break the chain of causation due to the events not being reasonably forseeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Superceding vs Intervening causes.

A

Superceding causes break the chain of causation between the defendant’s original action and the harm to the defendant.

An intervening cause is an event betweent the defendant’s original improper act and the harm to the defendant.

With the potential to break the chain of causation.

The different is that a intervening cause could be anticipated by reasonably prudent person. while a superceding cause can’t be, thus it breaks the causation and the defendant’s actions isn’t considered the cause of the harm to Plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is proximate cause evaluated?

A

Proximate Cause isn’t evaluated by what the defendant expects to unfold, but by what a reasonably prudent person would expect based on the defendant’s actions.

For instnace, what a RPP could have expected would have happened after altering the natural conditions, and leaving a tree half cut by the road. Where it could have fallen on someone.

Could have defendant reasonably forseen the basic problem of the tree falling father then the specific way it did so here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VA Good Samaritan Law.

§ 8.01-225. Persons rendering emergency care, obstetrical services exempt from liability.

A

A. Any person who:

  1. In good faith, renders emergency care or assistance, without compensation, to any ill or injured person (i) at the scene of an accident, fire, or any life-threatening emergency; (ii) at a location for screening or stabilization of an emergency medical condition arising from an accident, fire, or any life-threatening emergency; or (iii) en route to any hospital, medical clinic, or doctor’s office, shall not be liable for any civil damages for acts or omissions resulting from the rendering of such care or assistance. For purposes of this subdivision, emergency care or assistance includes the forcible entry of a motor vehicle in order to remove an unattended minor at risk of serious bodily injury or death, provided the person has attempted to contact a law-enforcement officer, as defined in § 9.1-101, a firefighter, as defined in § 65.2-102, emergency medical services personnel, as defined in § 32.1-111.1, or an emergency 911 system, if feasible under the circumstances.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

VA Good Samaritan Law

Shorten for Memorization

A

Acts of a good faith rescuer, who renders emergency care without any compensation to any ill or injured person at the scene of the accident SHALL NOT BE LIABLE FOR ANY CIVIL DAMAGES FOR ACTS OR OMISSIONS RESULTING FROM THE RENDERING OF SUCH CARE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to succeed in a defense against a rescuer?

A

they will need to show that the rescuer failed to exercise reasonable care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in the same situation.

However, VA samaritan statute will not punish someone for taking a reasonable risk in aid of someone in trouble.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Partnership

limited Partnership

A

A limited partnership is a business entity comprised of two or more persons, with one or more general partners and one or more limited partners. A limited partnership differs from a general partnership in the amount of control and liability each partner has.

To form a limited partnership in Virginia, a certificate of limited partnership must be filed with the Virginia State Corporation Commission. This is different from general partnerships which require no formal recording with the Commonwealth. The certificate must state the name of the partnership,2 and, the name must contain the designation “limited partnership,” “a limited partnership,” “L.P.,” or “LP;” which puts third parties on notice of the limited liability of one or more partners. 3 Additionally, the certificate must name a registered agent for service of process, state the Post Office mailing address of the company, and state the name and address of every general partner. The limited partnership is formed on the date of filing of the certificate unless a later date is specified in the certificate

chrome-extension://efaidnbmnnnibpcajpcglclefindmkaj/https://law.richmond.edu/academics/clinics-skills/in-house/ip-clinic/pdf_archive/business-limited-partnership.pdf

Go over this link.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

General Partners in a Limited Partnership

A

General partners run the company’s day-to-day operations and hold management control. The scope of individual general partner responsibilities should be outlined in the partnership agreement.

General partners have the power to bind the partnership and the other partners in contracts that are made in the ordinary course of partnership business.

General partners take on the legal debts and obligations of the business for which they are jointly and severally liable.

They must be named in the certificate of limited partnership as a “general partner.”5 General partners may be an individual, a partnership, a limited partnership (domestic or foreign), a trust, an estate, an association, a corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity.6 A general partner may leave the partnership at any time, however, if the partnership agreement contains exit provisions, a failure to adhere to them may result in damages or other legal remedies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Limited Partners in a Limited Partnership

A

Limited partners contribute investment capital in the form of cash, property, services rendered, or a promissory note or other obligation to contribute the same.7

They generally do not participate in the daily operations of the company. Limited partners are shielded from personal liability for company debts and actions, except to the extent of their contribution.8

Limited partners may be granted voting rights in a partnership agreement.9 Additionally, they have rights to inspection and information regarding the partnership and the financial condition of the business.10

**Limited partners may be more involved in a partnership’s daily operations; however, too much involvement will cause them to be treated legally as general partners with full personal liability. Limited partners may only leave the limited partnership at times or upon events specified in the partnership agreement. **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is a guarantor of the loan liable?

A

When the borrow defaults on the loan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the liability of the General Partners for the debts and obligations of the Limited Partnership?

A

General partners has unlimited personal liability for the debts of the limited partnership

Thus a general partner would be personally liable for the debts of the partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do agents have the power to bind their employer or the partnership or incorporation to a contract?

A

If they have actual or apparent authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is actual authority?

A

If the agent, based on his interactions with the principal, has a reasonable belief that he has the authority to bind the partnership.

It is based on the agent’s reasonable belief from the principal’s words and conduct.

It can either be expressed as in the employer told the employee or agent he had the authority or implied based on employer’s conduct and words.

Was it done in the ordinary course of business?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is apparent authority?

A

the act of any partner or agent for apparently carrying out the ordinary course of business or business of the kind by the partnership.

binds the partnership unless

the partner had not authority to act for the partnership in the particular matter AND

the person whom the partner is dealing with knew that the partner had no authority had received notice that the partner had no authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the Liability of limited partners in a Limited Partnership

A

In general limited partners are not liable for the debts of the partnership unless they participate in the business and the other party reasonably believes that the limited partner is a general partner.

If the other party knows that the limited partner is a limited partner, then the limited partner isn’t liable for the debts of the partnership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the duties of a general partner to the partner

A

hthey owe a duty of loyalty and care to the partnership .

They can’t engage in self dealing, which breachs their duty of loyalty.

When a fiduciary breaches their duty, disgorgement of profits is generally a fair remedy.

Duty of care requires them to refrain from conduct that is negligent or reckless or unlawful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Professional Responsibilty

Duty of Confidentalitiy

A

attorney shall not reveal information obtained in the attorney client relationship that the client requested to remind confidential or the disclosure of which would embarrass the client or likely be detriment to the client without the client consent.

However, there are exceptions to the Attorney’s duty of confidentiality.
* to comply with law
* a dispute between attorney and client
* to establish claim or defense between attorney and client
* that the client committed fraud on third party
* protect client interest after death

Also, the attorney is required to reveal communications with the client if it is the intention of the client to commit a crime and the information concerning the crime.

However, the attorney should advise the client of the legal consequences.

https://casetext.com/rule/virginia-court-rules/virginia-rules-of-supreme-court/part-six-integration-of-the-state-bar/section-ii-virginia-rules-of-professional-conduct/client-lawyer-relationship/rule-16-confidentiality-of-information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Example of a breach of attorney’s duty of confidentiality

A

When the attorney represents another client and reveals information obtained during the representation of that client to another.

That is a violation of his duty of confidentiality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rule 1.4 - Communication
Va. R. Sup. Ct. 1.4

A

(a) A lawyer shall keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter and promptly comply with reasonable requests for information.

(b) A lawyer shall explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to make informed decisions regarding the representation.

(c) A lawyer shall inform the client of facts pertinent to the matter and of communications from another party that may significantly affect settlement or resolution of the matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Attorney’s duty in regard to communication with their client.

A

The lawyer is obligated to keep his clients fully informed of the facts relevant to the representation so that they can make informed decisions regarding the representation.

A lawyer shall explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to informed decisions regarding the representation.

The lawyer shall inform the client of pertinent facts to the matter and communications with the party that may affect the settlement of the matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Conflict of Interest

Rule 1.7 - Conflict of Interest: General Rule

A

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a lawyer shall not represent a client if the representation involves a concurrent conflict of interest. A concurrent conflict of interest exists if:
(1) the representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or
(2) there is significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the lawyer’s responsibilities to another client, a former client or a third person or by a personal interest of the lawyer.

(b) Notwithstanding the existence of a concurrent conflict of interest under paragraph(a), a lawyer may represent a client if each affected client consents after consultation, and:
(1) the lawyer reasonably believes that the lawyer will be able to provide competent and diligent representation to each affected client;
(2) the representation is not prohibited by law;
(3) the representation does not involve the assertion of a claim by one client against another client represented by the lawyer in the same litigation or other proceeding before a tribunal; and
(4) the consent from the client is memorialized in writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Concurrent Conflict of Interest

A

A lawyer shall not represent a client if there is a risk of a concurrent conflict of interest.

A concurrent conflict of interest is when the representation of a client would be directly adverse to the representation of another client or the representation of a client would be materially limited by the attorney’s responsiblities to a current client, former client, and the attorney’s personal interests.

However, a concurrent conflict of interest may be waived if the representation is not prohibited by law,

That the attorney believes that he can provide competent and diligent representation despite the conflict of interest.

It does not involve the assertion of a claim by one client against another client in the same litigation.

And the client gave informed written consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Conflict of Interest: Former Client

Rule 1.9 - Conflict of Interest: Former Client

A

(a) A lawyer who has formerly represented a client in a matter shall not thereafter represent another person in the same or a substantially related matter in which that person’s interests are materially adverse to the interests of the former client unless both the present and former client consent after consultation.

(b) A lawyer shall not knowingly represent a person in the same or a substantially related matter in which a firm with which the lawyer formerly was associated had previously represented a client:
(1) whose interests are materially adverse to that person; and
(2) about whom the lawyer had acquired information protected by Rules 1.6 and 1.9(c) that is material to the matter;
unless both the present and former client consent after consultation.

(c) A lawyer who has formerly represented a client in a matter or whose present or former firm has formerly represented a client in a matter shall not thereafter:
(1) use information relating to or gained in the course of the representation to the disadvantage of the former client except as Rule 1.6 or Rule 3.3 would permit or require with respect to a client, or when the information has become generally known; or
(2) reveal information relating to the representation except as Rule 1.6 or Rule 3.3 would permit or require with respect to a client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Conflict of Interest: Former Client

A

A lawyer who represented a now former client shall not represent another client in the same or substantially similar matter, in which that person’s interest is materially adverse to the interests of the former clietn unless both give informed written consent.

This situation also applies to the forms where the lawyer was previously assoicated with that had previously represented a client.

A lawyer who has formerly represented a client in matter or those present or former form has formerly represented a client in the matter shall not thereafter use the information to the disadvantage of the former client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Example of a conflict of interest concerning a former client

A

Where the attorney had represented a former client whose interests were materially adverse to that of a former client.

And didn’t obtain waviers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Viriginia Rule 8.4 - Misconduct

A

It is professional misconduct for a lawyer to:

(a) violate or attempt to violate the Rules of Professional Conduct, knowingly assist or induce another to do so, or do so through the acts of another;
(b) commit a criminal or deliberately wrongful act that reflects adversely on the lawyer’s honesty, trustworthiness or fitness to practice law;
(c) engage in conduct involving dishonesty, fraud, deceit or misrepresentation which reflects adversely on the lawyer’s fitness to practice law;
(d) state or imply an ability to influence improperly or upon irrelevant grounds any tribunal, legislative body, or public official;
(e) knowingly assist a judge or judicial officer in conduct that is a violation of applicable rules of judicial conduct or other law; or
(f) enter into an agreement with a client or former client limiting or purporting to limit the right of the client or former client to file or pursue any complaint before a lawyer regulatory or disciplinary authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

VA rule concerning Misconduct

A

It is professional misconduct for the lawyer to engage in conduct meant to violate the Rules of Professional Conduct.

to commit criminal or deliberately wrongful act that refelects adversely on the lawyer’s honesty, trustworthiness or fitness to practice law.

to engage in conduct that involves dishonesty, fraud, deceit, or misrepresentations which reflects adversely on the lawyer’s fitness to practice law.

enter an agreement that limits or purports to limit the rights of the client or former client to file or puruse any complaint before a lawyer regulatory body.

35
Q

Example of misconduct

A

when the lawyer actions were not innocent or unintentional and knowingly and dleiberately deceitful.

reflect adversely on his fitness to practice law.

36
Q

Breach of Fiduciary Duties to her Principal

A

Self Dealing, unauthorized disclosures or confidential information, and nondisclosures of material facts.

Self dealing - conflict of interest hiding it

Exercise loyalty to principal and follow their instructions but breach by self dealing

Violated her duty of loyalty by lawying about being in negoiations

damges

different between fair market value and the price actually paided.

Punitive damages.

37
Q

UCC General Provisions and Secured Transactions

Contractual Ambiguities are construed in what way?

A

They are construed against the party who drafted the contract.

38
Q

VA Code 8.1A-201(a)(35)

retention of a security interest

A

The Retention of title by a seller of goods notwithstanding shipment or delivery to the buyer under VA Code 8.2-401 is limited in effect to a reservation of a security interest.

39
Q

How is a security interest created?

A

There must be an attachment of the security interest for interest against the debter

Perfection of security interest ensures it against any outsiders.

40
Q

What does attachment do?

What are the requirements for Attachment?

A

It secures the rights against the Debtor.

Three are three requirements.

The parties must agree to create a security interest aka, they agreed to enter into a security agreement

This is evidenced by the creditor taking possession of the collateral, an authenticated security agreement, or the creditor taking possession of the nonconsumer deposit accounts, electronic chattel paper or investment property

Value must be given by the secured party - they paid out

And the debtor must have rights in the collateral. - AKA ownership.

41
Q

When does a Security Interest attach to the collateral?

A

The parties must create a security interest

This is evidenced by an security agreement, by the secured party taking possession of the collateral, or the creditor taking possession of the non consumer account.

Value must be given by the secured party

and the debtor must have rights in the collateral aka ownership.

42
Q

the form of a security agreement

A
  • Evidenced by the record and must show an intent to create a security interest
  • Agreement must be authenicated aka signed by the debtor
  • A description of the collateral must be included. - can’t be generic
43
Q

Perfection

A

Attachment and

  • filing a financing statement describing the collateral
  • taking possession of the collateral
  • taking control of the collateral
  • automatic perfection - PMSI in consumer goods
  • Temporary perfection - security interest in proceeds from the sall of collateral

Financing Statement
- must include the debtor’s name and address as well as the secured party’s name and address, a description of the collateral,

Description can be super generic like all assets

44
Q

PMSI or Purchase Monetary Security Interest is what?

A

Security interest in collateral that was purchased by the loan from the creditor given to create the security interest

45
Q

Perfection in Motor Vehicles

A

Security interests in motor vehicles can only be perfected by notation in the certificate of title

However, there is an exception for dealers for vehicles held in inventory. You just need to file a financing statement or perfect by the ordinary rules.

46
Q

Notification Requirement for a Security Interest

A

the Secured Party that disposes of collateral must send reasonable authenticated notification to the debtor

10 days notice before disposition of collateral is considered reasonable.

47
Q

As a result of the secured party failure to provide notice? The debtor may recover damages.

A

The damages are actual damages - the amount of any loss caused by a filure to comply with the title

value of trade int

Statutory damages -

48
Q

Criminal

What is a Prima Facie Case for First Degree murder

A

First Degree murder is murder, other then by capital murder, by poison, lying in wait, imprisonment, starving, or by willful, deliberate and premediated killing, or in the commission of or attempt to commit, arson, forcible sodomy, inanimate or animate object sexual penetration, robbery, burglary or abduction.

Willful, deliberate, premediated killing.

49
Q

Murder definition

A

Killing with Malice. Malice is the state of mind which results in the intentional doing of a wrongful act to another without legal excuse or justification, at the time when the mind of the actor is under the control of reason.

It may result from any unlawful or unjustifiable motive uncluding anger, hatred, or revenge.

Malice can be inferred from any deliberate, willful, and cruel act against another, however sudden.

Willful, deliberate, and premediated, means that the defendant acted with a specific intent to kill, adopted at some time before the killing, but which need not exist for any particular length of time.

50
Q

VA Accomplice Liability Law

A

Principal in the First Degree - the person who committed the legal act is liable of the principal crime

Principal in the second degree - the person who is present at the commission of the crime and commited an overt act in assisting in the crime or shares the perpetrator’s intent - they are liable of the principal crime

Accessory before the fact - someone who assisted the principal before the commitment of the crime - liable of the principal offense

Accessory after the fact - someone who knows of the commission of the crime and aided the felon in escaping punishment - liable for separate crime of being accessory after the fact.

51
Q

VA Accomplice Liability LAw

A

Principal in the first degree - someone who commits the crime - they are liable of the principal crime.

Principal in the second degree - Someone who is present at the commissioning of the crime and commits an overt act in assisting the crime - they are liable of the principal crime

Accessory before the fact - someone who isn’t present at the commission of the crime but aided or abeted the principals. they are liable for the principal crime

Accessory after the FAct - someone who is aware of the criminal act of the felon and aids and assists the felon after the crime to escape punishment.

They are liable for the lessor offense of being an accessory after the fact.

52
Q

VA Accomplice Liability in relation to first degree murder

A

First degree murder is a unlawful killing made with malice. It is willful, deliberated and premediated killing.

Principal in the first degree - the principal devised and carried out a plan to obtain a weapon to carry out the crime. and committed the crime.

Principal in the Second degree - they were present at the commission of the crime and aid the crime. Driving the person to the crime and driving him away.

both men acted with willfully, deliberately and with premediation and malice.

Accessory before the fact - aided in the crime but wasn’t present at the scene of the time with knowledge of the principal intent.

Accessory after the fact - learn of the murder after the fact and aid the felon in escaping justice.

53
Q

Rule 3A:10c

Multiple Charges against one defendant in a single trial.

A

an accused charged with more then one offensive: the court may direct that an accused be tried at one time for all offenses then pending against him.

If justice does not require separate trial and the offenses meet the joinder requirement and the accused and commonwealth consent to it

Two or more offenses any of which may be a fleony or misdemeanor, may be charged in separate counts of an indictment or oinformation if the offenses are based on the same act or transaction.

tht are connected or parts of the same plan.

54
Q

JOINDER

A

It justice doesn’t require a separate trial and the joinder requirement is met and there is consent.

two or more offenses may be charged in separate courts in separate counts of the indicment or infomation if the offense is part of the same act or two or more transactions part of the same plan.

And there is consent - agreement between the accused and commonwealth

IF RISK OF SPILLOVER PREJUDICE, THE ANSWER IS NO.

UNFAIR PREJUDICE RISK

55
Q

Federal Civil Procedure and Local Government and Constitutional Law

In a lawsuit where the plaintiff claims that the insured party is a real and indispensiable party?

A

If the insurance company pays the entire claim in full, then they become the real party in interest and must sue under their own name.

If the insurance company hasn’t paid the entire claim in full, then there has been not suborgation and the insured remains the real party

An insured who has not interest in the ltiigation, may not bring suit.

56
Q

Federal Rule of Civil Procedure Rule 19:

Required Joinder if feasible.

A

(a) Persons Required to Be Joined if Feasible.

(1) Required Party. A person who is subject to service of process and whose joinder will not deprive the court of subject-matter jurisdiction must be joined as a party if:

(A) in that person’s absence, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties; or

(B) that person claims an interest relating to the subject of the action and is so situated that disposing of the action in the person’s absence may:

(i) as a practical matter impair or impede the person’s ability to protect the interest; or

(ii) leave an existing party subject to a substantial risk of incurring double, multiple, or otherwise inconsistent obligations because of the interest.

(2) Joinder by Court Order. If a person has not been joined as required, the court must order that the person be made a party. A person who refuses to join as a plaintiff may be made either a defendant or, in a proper case, an involuntary plaintiff.

(3) Venue. If a joined party objects to venue and the joinder would make venue improper, the court must dismiss that party.

57
Q

Federal Rule of Civil Procedure: Required jounder if feasible

A

A person who is subject to service of process and subject matter jurisdiction will be required to join if complete relief can’t be accorded amongst the parties

OR

the persona claiming a interest related to the subject of the action and claims that disposing of the action in the person’s absence would leave an existing party at risk of multiple litigations

58
Q

Federal Rule of Civil Procedure: What the court must do if joinder isn’t feasible.

RULE 19

A

(b) When Joinder Is Not Feasible. If a person who is required to be joined if feasible cannot be joined, the court must determine whether, in equity and good conscience, the action should proceed among the existing parties or should be dismissed. The factors for the court to consider include:

(1) the extent to which a judgment rendered in the person’s absence might prejudice that person or the existing parties;

(2) the extent to which any prejudice could be lessened or avoided by:

(A) protective provisions in the judgment;

(B) shaping the relief; or

(C) other measures;

(3) whether a judgment rendered in the person’s absence would be adequate; and

(4) whether the plaintiff would have an adequate remedy if the action were dismissed for nonjoinder.

(c) Pleading the Reasons for Nonjoinder. When asserting a claim for relief, a party must state:

(1) the name, if known, of any person who is required to be joined if feasible but is not joined; and

(2) the reasons for not joining that person.

59
Q

When required joinder isn’t feasible:

A

the court must decide whether the action should proceed with the existing parties based on whether

the judgment, in the party’s action, might prejudice other parties

whether the judgment is adequate.

if there can be a adequate remedy if the action were dimissed for nonjoinder.

60
Q

Subject Matter jurisdiction Diversity

A

Complete Diversity of citizenship between the plaintiffs and the defendant. Every plaintiff has a different citizenship then every defendant.

And the amount in controversy exceeds 75k.

Corporation citizenship is it place of corporation and its principal place of business, indicated by its nerve center. Where its officers direct the business.

61
Q

VA: Taking of Private Property

A

VA and the US Constition allows government entities to
* take private property for public use with for just compensation.

If the property isn’t private there is no taking.

62
Q

UCC, Negotiable Instruments and Bank Deposits and Collection.

VA Code Section 8.4-401

A

a bank may charge its customers only for properly payable items.

An item is properly payable if it is authorized by the customer and in accordance with any agreement between the customer and the bank.

63
Q

§ 8.4-401. When bank may charge customer’s account.

A

§ 8.4-401. When bank may charge customer’s account.
(a) A bank may charge against the account of a customer an item that is properly payable from that account even though the charge creates an overdraft. An item is properly payable if it is authorized by the customer and is in accordance with any agreement between the customer and the bank.

(b) A customer is not liable for the amount of an overdraft if the customer neither signed the item nor benefited from the proceeds of the item.

(c) A bank may charge against the account of a customer a check that is otherwise properly payable from the account, even though payment was made before the date of the check, unless the customer has given notice to the bank of the postdating describing the check with reasonable certainty. The notice is effective for the period stated in § 8.4-403 (b) for stop-payment orders, and must be received at such time and in such manner as to afford the bank a reasonable opportunity to act on it before the bank takes any action with respect to the check described in § 8.4-303. If a bank charges against the account of a customer a check before the date stated in the notice of postdating, the bank is liable for damages for the loss resulting from its act. The loss may include damages for dishonor of subsequent items under § 8.4-402.

(d) A bank that in good faith makes payment to a holder may charge the indicated account of its customer according to:

(1) the original terms of the altered item; or

(2) the terms of the completed item, even though the bank knows the item has been completed unless the bank has notice that the completion was improper.

64
Q

Forged Signature under VA Code Section 8.3A-403a

§ 8.4-403. Customer’s right to stop payment; burden of proof of loss.

A

(a) A customer or any person authorized to draw on the account if there is more than one person may stop payment of any item drawn on the customer’s account or close the account by an order to the bank describing the item or account with reasonable certainty received at a time and in a manner that affords the bank a reasonable opportunity to act on it before any action by the bank with respect to the item described in § 8.4-303. If the signature of more than one person is required to draw on an account, any of these persons may stop payment or close the account.

(b) A stop-payment order is effective for six months, but it lapses after fourteen calendar days if the original order was oral and was not confirmed in writing within that period. A stop-payment order may be renewed for additional six-month periods by a writing given to the bank within a period during which the stop-payment order is effective.

(c) The burden of establishing the fact and amount of loss resulting from the payment of an item contrary to a stop-payment order or order to close an account is on the customer. The loss from payment of an item contrary to a stop-payment order may include damages for dishonor of subsequent items under § 8.4-402.

65
Q

Customer right to halt payment; burden of proof of loss.

A

A customer may stop the payment of any item drawn from the customer’s account

by order to the bank that describes the item with reasonable certainty received in a reasonable time and manner that accords the bank the reasonable opportunity to act on it before any action by the bank with respect to the item.

the burden of establishing the fact and loss resulting from the paymen of the item contrary to a stop payment order is on the customer.

66
Q

§ 8.3A-405. Employer’s responsibility for fraudulent endorsement by employee.

A

§ 8.3A-405. Employer’s responsibility for fraudulent endorsement by employee.
(a) In this section:

(1) “Employee” includes an independent contractor and employee of an independent contractor retained by the employer.

(2) “Fraudulent endorsement” means (i) in the case of an instrument payable to the employer, a forged endorsement purporting to be that of the employer, or (ii) in the case of an instrument with respect to which the employer is the issuer, a forged endorsement purporting to be that of the person identified as payee.

(3) “Responsibility” with respect to instruments means authority (i) to sign or endorse instruments on behalf of the employer, (ii) to process instruments received by the employer for bookkeeping purposes, for deposit to an account, or for other disposition, (iii) to prepare or process instruments for issue in the name of the employer, (iv) to supply information determining the names or addresses of payees of instruments to be issued in the name of the employer, (v) to control the disposition of instruments to be issued in the name of the employer, or (vi) to act otherwise with respect to instruments in a responsible capacity. “Responsibility” does not include authority that merely allows an employee to have access to instruments or blank or incomplete instrument forms that are being stored or transported or are part of incoming or outgoing mail, or similar access.

(b) For the purpose of determining the rights and liabilities of a person who, in good faith, pays an instrument or takes it for value or for collection, if an employer entrusted an employee with responsibility with respect to the instrument and the employee or a person acting in concert with the employee makes a fraudulent endorsement of the instrument, the endorsement is effective as the endorsement of the person to whom the instrument is payable if it is made in the name of that person. If the person paying the instrument or taking it for value or for collection fails to exercise ordinary care in paying or taking the instrument and that failure substantially contributes to loss resulting from the fraud, the person bearing the loss may recover from the person failing to exercise ordinary care to the extent the failure to exercise ordinary care contributed to the loss.

(c) Under subsection (b), an endorsement is made in the name of the person to whom an instrument is payable if (i) it is made in a name substantially similar to the name of that person or (ii) the instrument, whether or not endorsed, is deposited in a depositary bank to an account in a name substantially similar to the name of that person.

67
Q

Employer’s responsibilty for fraudulent endorsement by employee this includes independent contractors with responsibilty in regards to the document.

A

Employee - employee and contractor

Fraudulent Indorsement - in the case of an instrument payable by the employer that has a forged endorsement/signature by the employee. It claims that the signature is that of the payee.

Responsibility - means the authority to sign or endorse checks on behalf of the employer, to process instruments, to prepare instruments, to supply information concerning the instruments.

Responsibility does not include authority that merely allows the employee to access the area where the instruments are kept and stored or to transport them.

In regards to rights and liabilities of a person who pays or takes an fraudulent indorsement in good faith - An employer, who entrusts an employee with the responsibilty to sign and endorse checks and that employee later commits a fraudulent indorsement, that employer would be liable to the person who pays and takes that instrument in good faith, as if it was made in that employer’s name.

If the person paying the instrument or taking it for value or for collection fails to exercise ordinary care in paying or taking the instrument and that failure substantially contributes to loss resulting from the fraud, the person bearing the loss may recover from the person failing to exercise ordinary care to the extent the failure to exercise ordinary care contributed to the loss.

68
Q

Presentment Warranty

§ 8.4-207.2. Presentment warranties.

A

A warranty as to the drawer’ signature is only breached if the warrantor had no knowledge that the signature of the purported drawer is unauthorized.

Knowledge means actual knowledge.

69
Q

Presentment Warranty

A

§ 8.4-207.2. Presentment warranties.
(a) If an unaccepted draft is presented to the drawee for payment or acceptance and the drawee pays or accepts the draft, (i) the person obtaining payment or acceptance, at the time of presentment, and (ii) a previous transferor of the draft, at the time of transfer, warrant to the drawee that pays or accepts the draft in good faith that:

(1) the warrantor is, or was, at the time the warrantor transferred the draft, a person entitled to enforce the draft or authorized to obtain payment or acceptance of the draft on behalf of a person entitled to enforce the draft;

(2) the draft has not been altered; and

(3) the warrantor has no knowledge that the signature of the purported drawer of the draft is unauthorized.

(b) A drawee making payment may recover from a warrantor damages for breach of warranty equal to the amount paid by the drawee less the amount the drawee received or is entitled to receive from the drawer because of the payment. In addition, the drawee is entitled to compensation for expenses and a loss of interest resulting from the breach. The right of the drawee to recover damages under this subsection is not affected by any failure of the drawee to exercise ordinary care in making payment. If the drawee accepts the draft (i) breach of warranty is a defense to the obligation of the acceptor, and (ii) if the acceptor makes payment with respect to the draft, the acceptor is entitled to recover from a warrantor for breach of warranty the amounts stated in this subsection.

  • Take note that a holder in due course is immune to a breach of warranty defense.
70
Q

Presentment Warranty

A

If an unaccepted draft is presented to a drawee (the person directed to pay) for payment

and the drawee pays or accepts, the person obtaining the payment or acceptance at the time of the presentment and the previous transferor at the time of the transfer,

Warrants in good faith to the drawee (who pays or accepted the unaccepted draft)

that the draft has not been altered and the warrantor has no knowledge of the fraudulent signature of drawer. .

AND

A drawee making payment may recover from a warrantor damages for breach of warranty equal to the amount paid by the drawee less the amount the drawee received or is entitled to receive from the drawer because of the payment.

A drawee making the payment for an unaccepted check, amy recover from the warrantor damages for breach of warrranty

In addition, the drawee is entitled to compensation for expenses and a loss of interest resulting from the breach. The right of the drawee to recover damages under this subsection is not affected by any failure of the drawee to exercise ordinary care in making payment.

If the drawee accepts the draft (i) breach of warranty is a defense to the obligation of the acceptor, and (ii) if the acceptor makes payment with respect to the draft, the acceptor is entitled to recover from a warrantor for breach of warranty the amounts stated in this subsection.

71
Q

Holder in Due Course

A

A person who obtains or holds an instrument in good faith and for valid consideration and without any knowledge of fraudulent flaws within the instrument.

Are only liable for real defenses.

A holder in due course is only liable for REal DEFENSES

Infancy

Duress

Incapacity to consent

Ilegality

Fraud in factum or Real fact
- without knowledge of the insturment character or essential terms
- without reasonable opportunity to leanr of the instrument character.

NOT FOR PERSONAL DEFENSES _ AKA CONTRACT DEFENSES
- lack of consideration, breach of warranty, fraud, theft

72
Q

§ 8.3A-418. Payment or acceptance by mistake.

A

If a drawee (person ordered to pay) of a draft pays or accepts the draft and acted on the mistaken belief that the payment of the draft hsan’t been stopped or believed that the signature was authorized.

the drawee may recover the amount of the draft from the perosn to whom the payment was made to.

‘https://law.lis.virginia.gov/vacode/title8.3A/part4/section8.3A-418/

73
Q

Transfer Warranties

A

Run to immediate transferee and subsequent transferees.

The transferor is entitled to rnforce the instrument

Signatures are authenticed and authorized

the instrument has not been altered

no defenses or claims of any party is good agaisnt the transferor

no knowledge of any flaws

74
Q

Personal Property and VA Civil Procedure

How to prove that there is a bailment.

A

There must be a bailor and bailee

that the bailor transferred possession of personal property to the bailee.

That the bailee obtained possession of the personal property and consented to it.

The bailee must have actual and constructive knowledge of the items.

75
Q

What is an example of a bailment was the duty of care of the bailee was only slight thus they would only be liable for gross negligence.

A

Gross Negligence is willful or wanton gross misconduct that results in damage or harm to another.

For instance, the custody of the bailor’s property by the bailee for no charge.

IF the items are destroyed by no act of the defendant, he isn’t liable.

76
Q

Action for Detinue in the General District Court

A

An action by which a party may recover personal property.

It requires the proving of these elements

  • that the plaintiff has a current right to the property
  • that the plaintiff has a right of immediate possession
  • the property is capable of immediate possession
  • the property has value,
  • the defendant had possession prior to filing of the suit.
77
Q

Example of when someone can file a action for detinue in General District Court

A

It depends on these factors
- that the bailor has a current right to the property
- that the bailor has a right of immediate possession
- that the bailor is capable of immediate possession
- the propety has value
- the defendant has possesion of the property prior to the lawsuit

Example
Car
- possessory right to the bailee
- car is tangible chattle, thus capable of possession
- it is worth 4,000 within the exclusive jurisdiciton of the GDC 0 - 4,500
-

78
Q

Liability of the bailee depends on the relationship

A

gross negligence - sole benefit of the bailer

Ordinary care - for benefit of both

extraordinary care - for the sole benefit of the bailee.

79
Q

Theories to recover for loss of personal possesion in a bailment contract.

A

Breach of contract - entered enforcable contract and that contract was breached

Negligence - a duty of ordinary care - simple neglience actual and proximate cause

Conversion - the fraudulent conversion of the property of another by person in lawful possession with the intent to defraud the owner of his property right - recover sale value

Strict Liabilty - a bailee who misdelivers the goods is strictly liable fo the bailor.

an innocent mistake is irrelevant.

Recovery for breach of contract, negligence, or strict liabilty would be the value of her possession plus the unused poriton of the prepaid storage fee.

Conversion theory - fair market value at the time and place of conversions.

80
Q

Rule 5:9 - Notice of Appeal
Requirements

A
  • it must be filed within 30 days of the final judgment of the court.
  • Appeals from the circuit court must be timely filed.
  • It must contain a statement of whether the notice will include a transcript of the trial or a summary of the incident of the trial.
  • The notice must make mention of either one.
  • In the event of a transcript, the appellant notice of appeal must certify that the copy of th transcript was order from the court reporter or already in his possession
  • notice and copies of the notice must be given to all opposing parties.
81
Q

An appeal to the Supreme Court by right from Circuit Court?

A

No, other than domestic relations cases, appeals to the Supreme Court of VA are by petition and not by right.

82
Q

In regard to a Motion for Subject Matter Jurisdiction

A

Any party can move for subject Matter Jurisdiction as a matter of right

the ban of using discovery depsition for compenstory damages is controlling.

82
Q

the right to file motion based on lack of subject jurisdiction can’t be dismissed.

A

the right can’t be waived by either party.

And it can’t be estopped it would be allowing a party to conferr subject matter jurisdiction on itself.