February 2017 Bar Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Corporation and Torts

Are releases from liability for personal injury that might be caused by future acts of ngligence enforcable?

A

No, a release from liabilty for personal injury that might be cause by future acts of negligence was void as against public policy.

A release from liability for personal injury that might be caused by future acts of negligence was void as against public policy, writing that this principle had not been altered by cases upholding the right to contract for the release of liability for property damage..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do members of a nonstock corporation have the right to review minutes and to obtain a list of all members of the LMOA?

A

Yes, under the VA nonstock Corporation Act and the property owner’s association act.

A member may inspect the minutes of the Board of Director’s meeting and obtain a list of the members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

§ 13.1-771. Inspection of records by shareholders.

A

§ 13.1-771. Inspection of records by shareholders.
A. Subject to subsection D of § 13.1-772, a shareholder is entitled to inspect and copy, during regular business hours at the corporation’s principal office, any of the records of the corporation described in subsection E of § 13.1-770 if the shareholder delivers a signed written notice to the corporation’s secretary of the shareholder’s demand at least 10 business days before the date on which the shareholder wishes to inspect and copy.

B. For any meeting of shareholders for which the record date for determining shareholders entitled to vote at the meeting is different than the record date for notice of the meeting, any person who becomes a shareholder subsequent to the record date for notice of the meeting and is entitled to vote at the meeting is entitled to obtain from the corporation upon request the notice and any other information provided by the corporation to shareholders in connection with the meeting, unless the corporation has made such information generally available to shareholders by posting it on its website or by other generally recognized means. Failure of a corporation to provide such information does not affect the validity of action taken at the meeting.

C. A shareholder is entitled to inspect and copy, during regular business hours at a reasonable location specified by the corporation, any of the following records of the corporation if the shareholder meets the requirements of subsection D and delivers a signed written notice to the corporation’s secretary of the shareholder’s demand at least 10 business days before the date on which the shareholder wishes to inspect and copy:

  1. Excerpts from minutes of any meeting of, or records of any actions taken without a meeting by, the board of directors or a committee of the board of directors while acting in place of the board of directors on behalf of the corporation;
  2. Accounting ledgers and related work papers used in the preparation of the corporation’s most recent annual financial statements; and
  3. The record of shareholders of record maintained in accordance with subsection C of § 13.1-770.

D. A shareholder may inspect and copy the records described in subsection C only if:

  1. The shareholder (i) has been a shareholder for at least six months immediately preceding delivery of the shareholder’s demand or (ii) is the holder of record or beneficial owner of at least five percent of the outstanding shares entitled to vote generally in the election of directors;
  2. The shareholder’s demand is made in good faith and for a proper purpose;
  3. The shareholder’s demand describes with reasonable particularity the shareholder’s purpose and the records the shareholder desires to inspect and copy; and
  4. The records are directly connected with the shareholder’s purpose.

E. The corporation may enforce reasonable restrictions on the confidentiality, use, or distribution of records described in subsection C.

F. The right of inspection granted by this section may not be abolished or limited by a corporation’s articles of incorporation or bylaws.

G. This section does not affect:

  1. The right of a shareholder to inspect records under § 13.1-661 or, if the shareholder is in litigation with the corporation, to the same extent as any other litigant; or
  2. For any corporation that is not a public corporation, the power of a court, independently of this chapter, to compel the production of such records as the court shall order after finding that the shareholder has established that the shareholder has satisfied the requirements of subsection D and that (i) the records that the shareholder seeks are material to the protection of the shareholder’s rights as a shareholder and (ii) the disclosure of the records will not adversely affect the corporation’s interest.

H. For purposes of this section, other than subdivision C 3, “shareholder” includes a beneficial owner whose shares are held in a voting trust or by a nominee on the shareholder’s behalf.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A Shareholder’s right to inspect corporate records.

A

A shareholder who has been a shareholder for at least 6 months or owns 5 percent of stock

may inspect and copy records of the corporation

in good faith and with notice.

At the corporation’s principal office, during regular business hours. and signed and written notice within 10 days before the date that the shareholder wishes to inspect and copy.

A. Subject to subsection D of § 13.1-772, a shareholder is entitled to inspect and copy, during regular business hours at the corporation’s principal office, any of the records of the corporation described in subsection E of § 13.1-770 if the shareholder delivers a signed written notice to the corporation’s secretary of the shareholder’s demand at least 10 business days before the date on which the shareholder wishes to inspect and copy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

§ 13.1-860. Removal of directors.

A

§ 13.1-860. Removal of directors.
A. The members may remove one or more directors with or without cause, unless the articles of incorporation provide that directors may be removed only with cause.

B. If a director is elected by a voting group of members, only the members of that voting group may participate in the vote to remove him.

C. If cumulative voting is authorized, a director may not be removed if the number of votes sufficient to elect him under cumulative voting is voted against his removal. If cumulative voting is not authorized, unless the articles of incorporation require a greater vote, a director may be removed if the number of votes cast to remove him constitutes a majority of the votes entitled to be cast at an election of directors of the voting group or voting groups by which the director was elected.

D. If a corporation has no members or no members with voting rights, a director may be removed pursuant to procedures set forth in the articles of incorporation or bylaws, and if none are provided, a director may be removed by such vote as would suffice for his election.

E. A director may be removed only at a meeting called for the purpose of removing him. The meeting notice shall state that the purpose or one of the purposes of the meeting is removal of the director.

F. Upon the removal of a director, the corporation may file an amended annual report with the Commission indicating the removal of the director and the successor in office, if any.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Removal of VA Directors under VA Code,

A

Under the VA LAW, directors can be removed, with or without cause, by the members of the corporation in an meeting expressly called for that purpose.

By a majority vote of the shares entitled to vote.

default is removal with or without cause by a majority vote of the share entitled to vote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A director’s right to indemnification.

A

A corporation must idemnify a director as in pay for or reimburse their reasonable expenses, including counsel fees and any judgment againt them, in connection to a lawsuit concerning the corporation.

Even after his removal as a director and regardless of the outcome of the case, so long as he is not found to have engaged in willful misconduct or a knowing violation of the law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Article 10. Indemnification.

A

A corporation may idemnify a director who is a party to a proceeding because the director is or was a director against liabilty incurred in the proceeding if

The director conducted himself in good faith and believed that in his official capacity with the corporation that his conduct was in the best interest of the corporation and his interest was not opposed to its best interests.

c. In the case of any criminal proceeding, he had no reasonable cause to believe his conduct was unlawful; or

  1. The director engaged in conduct for which broader indemnification has been made permissible or obligatory as authorized by subsection C of § 13.1-704.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

§ 13.1-698. Mandatory indemnification.

A

Unless limited by its articles of incorporation, a corporation shall indemnify a director who was wholly successful, on the merits or otherwise, in the defense of any proceeding to which the director was a party because the director is or was a director of the corporation against expenses incurred by the director in connection with the proceeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mandatory Indemnification

A

Under limited by the articles of incorporation, a corporation shall indemify a director who is wholly successful, on the merits or otherwise, in the defense of any proceeding to which the director was a party because the director is or was the director of the corporation.

Against expenses incurred by the director in connection to the proceeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Wills.

What happens to an tenancy in entirety after a divorce

A

It becomes a tenancy in common where each former spouse would have a undivided half interest.

If one of the tenants dies and has a son. that son inherits the half interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If there are two wills can they both be valid.

A

Yes, as long as they have been executed with the same testamentary formalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the requirements of a valid will in VA.

A

The testator must be 18 years old or emanapciated and sound of mind.

There must be valid testmentary intent and testamentary capacity.

The execution of a valid will

the valid will and codicil must be in writing

it must be signed by the testator

there must be two attesting witnesses

presence requriements as in the testator must sign the will in the witness’ joint presence

and the witnesses must sign in the testator’s presence but not necessiary in the presence of each other.

the Conscious presence test - the testator doesn’t need to directly see the witnesses are they sign as long as they are aware what they are doing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Testamentary Intent and Testamentary Capacity

A

Present Testamentary Intent
- that the testator intended to despose of the property at the time of death with that instrument

testamentary Capacity
- that the testator is aware of nature and extent of his property
- the persons who are the natural objects of his bounty
- the nature of the act they are performing
- and that their actions will form a cohesive plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Incorporation by Reference

A

the content of an extranous document would be treated as part of the will, despite the lack of testamentay requirements
if the document was in existence at the time the will was executed
the will must refer to the document
the will must dientify and describe the foudment with reasonable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Exception for list dispositing of items of tangible personal property

A

A will may refer to a list that disposes of tangible personal preoprty not specifically mentioned in the will itself.

Made before or after the will execution

it does not need to be witnessed,

the writing must be signed and describe the items and beneficiaries with reasonable certainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A later validly executed Will will revoke the inconsistent provisions of an earlier valid will.

Example

A

A will bequeathed tangiable personal property to Tom and the car is tangible personal proeprty

the specific bequest in the later 2008 will therefore revokes and supercedes the inconsistent bequest in the eariler 1990 will.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the VA antilapse statute only applies if the beneficary left a desendant who is realted to the grandparent of the decedent.

A

§ 64.2-418. When children or descendants of beneficiary to take estate or trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

§ 64.2-418. When children or descendants of beneficiary to take estate or trust.

A

B. Unless a contrary intention appears in the will or trust instrument, if a beneficiary, including a beneficiary under a class gift, is (i) a grandparent or a descendant of a grandparent of the testator or settlor and (ii) dead at the time of execution of the will or trust instrument or dead at the time of the testator’s or settlor’s death, the descendants of the deceased beneficiary who survive the testator or settlor take in the place of the deceased beneficiary. The portion of the testator’s estate or the trust that the deceased beneficiary was to take shall be divided into as many equal shares as there are (a) surviving descendants in the closest degree of kinship to the deceased beneficiary and (b) deceased descendants, if any, in the same degree of kinship to the deceased beneficiary who left descendants surviving at the time of the testator’s or settlor’s death. One share shall pass to each such surviving descendant and one share shall pass per stirpes to such descendants of deceased descendants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens to lapsed bequests in a will?

A

It falls into the residuary of the estate. If there is no residuary cause, then the bequests pass through intestacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does divorce do to any bequests.

A

A divorce revokes any bequests by a spouse to another spouyse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Are parents with legal custody entitled to visitation?

A

Yes, the right to visitation is implicit in a granting of joint custody order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does a criminal conviction revoke a custody order or right to visitation.

A

No, unless a court determines that the it is not in the child’s best interest to have visitation with the parent who was convicted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What determines visitation.

A

the best Interest of child standard.

Not the automatic right of father.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How can grandparents obtain visitation or custody of grandchildren from natural parents.

A

In va law, there is a presumption that the best interest of the child is with the natural parents.

First, it must be determined whether the grandparent is a third party with legitimate interest

WHEN BOTH PARENTS OBJECT, THEN, it must be proven by clear and convincing evidence that the denial of visitation right to the grandparents would cause the child actual harm.

If the grandparent overcomes this burden, the grandparent must prove by a prepondance of evidnece that the visitation rights are in the best interest of the child.

IF ONLY one parent objects, then the grandparent doesn’t need to prove actual harm, but that based on the prepondances of evidence that the visitation is in the child’s best interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Third Party Visitation and custody right in VA

After adoption

A

When a Child Is Adopted

If a child is adopted either because the parents voluntarily decided on this or their parental rights were terminated, a grandparent no longer has any right to visitation of the grandchild. In general, the termination of the parental rights also terminates any grandparent rights to visitation. However, there could be exceptions to this rule if the child is adopted by a stepparent or other close family member.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Federal Civil Procedure

28 U.S. Code § 1446 - Procedure for removal of civil actions

A

(a)Generally.—
A defendant or defendants desiring to remove any civil action from a State court shall file in the district court of the United States for the district and division within which such action is pending a notice of removal signed pursuant to Rule 11 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and containing a short and plain statement of the grounds for removal, together with a copy of all process, pleadings, and orders served upon such defendant or defendants in such action.

(b)Requirements; Generally.—
(1)The notice of removal of a civil action or proceeding shall be filed within 30 days after the receipt by the defendant, through service or otherwise, of a copy of the initial pleading setting forth the claim for relief upon which such action or proceeding is based, or within 30 days after the service of summons upon the defendant if such initial pleading has then been filed in court and is not required to be served on the defendant, whichever period is shorter.
(2)
(A)When a civil action is removed solely under section 1441(a), all defendants who have been properly joined and served must join in or consent to the removal of the action.
(B)Each defendant shall have 30 days after receipt by or service on that defendant of the initial pleading or summons described in paragraph (1) to file the notice of removal.
(C)If defendants are served at different times, and a later-served defendant files a notice of removal, any earlier-served defendant may consent to the removal even though that earlier-served defendant did not previously initiate or consent to removal.
(3)Except as provided in subsection (c), if the case stated by the initial pleading is not removable, a notice of removal may be filed within thirty days after receipt by the defendant, through service or otherwise, of a copy of an amended pleading, motion, order or other paper from which it may first be ascertained that the case is one which is or has become removable.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1446

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Removal on the basis of Diversty.

A

(c)Requirements; Removal Based on Diversity of Citizenship.—
(1)A case may not be removed under subsection (b)(3) on the basis of jurisdiction conferred by section 1332 more than 1 year after commencement of the action, unless the district court finds that the plaintiff has acted in bad faith in order to prevent a defendant from removing the action.
(2)If removal of a civil action is sought on the basis of the jurisdiction conferred by section 1332(a), the sum demanded in good faith in the initial pleading shall be deemed to be the amount in controversy, except that—
(A)the notice of removal may assert the amount in controversy if the initial pleading seeks—
(i)nonmonetary relief; or
(ii)a money judgment, but the State practice either does not permit demand for a specific sum or permits recovery of damages in excess of the amount demanded; and
(B)removal of the action is proper on the basis of an amount in controversy asserted under subparagraph (A) if the district court finds, by the preponderance of the evidence, that the amount in controversy exceeds the amount specified in section 1332(a).
(3)
(A)If the case stated by the initial pleading is not removable solely because the amount in controversy does not exceed the amount specified in section 1332(a), information relating to the amount in controversy in the record of the State proceeding, or in responses to discovery, shall be treated as an “other paper” under subsection (b)(3).
(B)If the notice of removal is filed more than 1 year after commencement of the action and the district court finds that the plaintiff deliberately failed to disclose the actual amount in controversy to prevent removal, that finding shall be deemed bad faith under paragraph (1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to properly remove a case to the Federal Court based on Diversity.

A

The Plaintiff and the Defendant must be completely diverse aka citizens of different states.

The determination of complete diversity happens at the filing of the case.

The amount in controversy must be over 75 k.

In addition there must be no defendant who is a VA Resident and the removal must be done within 30 days of service on the Defendant.

Service of all other documents in state cour .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Motion to Remand on the grounds of moving the case to the correct division is a jurisdictional defect or a procedural defect?

A

It is a procedural defect and must be objected to or the defect is waived.

It must be made within 30 days after the filing of the notice of removal.

this would satisfy the objection to the procedural defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

28 U.S. Code § 1447 - Procedure after removal generally

https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1447#:~:text=A%20motion%20to%20remand%20the,under%20section%201446(a).

A

(c)A motion to remand the case on the basis of any defect other than lack of subject matter jurisdiction must be made within 30 days after the filing of the notice of removal under section 1446(a). If at any time before final judgment it appears that the district court lacks subject matter jurisdiction, the case shall be remanded. An order remanding the case may require payment of just costs and any actual expenses, including attorney fees, incurred as a result of the removal. A certified copy of the order of remand shall be mailed by the clerk to the clerk of the State court. The State court may thereupon proceed with such case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Motion to Amend to add a party will hinge on what?

AKA JOINDER

A

the court discretionary call under 28 USC Section 1447

If after the removal, the plaintiff seeks to join additional defendant whose joinder would destroy subject matter jurisdiction, the court may deny joinder.

or permit joinder and remand the action to state court.

the argument against adding Buddy - it would destroy complete diversity

If it can be argued that Buddy failed in a duty of care to warn Duke, he would have an argument that the joinder wasn’t fraudulent and the court should allow the joinder and remand the action to state court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rule 19. Required Joinder of Parties

A

(a) Persons Required to Be Joined if Feasible.

(1) Required Party. A person who is subject to service of process and whose joinder will not deprive the court of subject-matter jurisdiction must be joined as a party if:

(A) in that person’s absence, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties; or

(B) that person claims an interest relating to the subject of the action and is so situated that disposing of the action in the person’s absence may:

(i) as a practical matter impair or impede the person’s ability to protect the interest; or

(ii) leave an existing party subject to a substantial risk of incurring double, multiple, or otherwise inconsistent obligations because of the interest.

(2) Joinder by Court Order. If a person has not been joined as required, the court must order that the person be made a party. A person who refuses to join as a plaintiff may be made either a defendant or, in a proper case, an involuntary plaintiff.

(3) Venue. If a joined party objects to venue and the joinder would make venue improper, the court must dismiss that party.

(b) When Joinder Is Not Feasible. If a person who is required to be joined if feasible cannot be joined, the court must determine whether, in equity and good conscience, the action should proceed among the existing parties or should be dismissed. The factors for the court to consider include:

(1) the extent to which a judgment rendered in the person’s absence might prejudice that person or the existing parties;

(2) the extent to which any prejudice could be lessened or avoided by:

(A) protective provisions in the judgment;

(B) shaping the relief; or

(C) other measures;

(3) whether a judgment rendered in the person’s absence would be adequate; and

(4) whether the plaintiff would have an adequate remedy if the action were dismissed for nonjoinder.

(c) Pleading the Reasons for Nonjoinder. When asserting a claim for relief, a party must state:

(1) the name, if known, of any person who is required to be joined if feasible but is not joined; and

(2) the reasons for not joining that person.

(d) Exception for Class Actions. This rule is subject to Rule 23.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/rules/frcp/rule_19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In regard to a fraudulent Joinder

A

the district court had diiscretion to either deny joinder, if the judge thought it was fraudulent, or grant joinder and remand the case to the state court if the judge thought the joinder wasn’t fraudulent but it would destroy SMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Arguments in favor of a Motion for Sanctions

A

If the attorney violated the certification under Rule 11 that accompany a signing of a pleading, motion, or other paper,

  1. it is not being presented for an improper purpose such as to harass, to cause delay, or needly increase the cost of litigation
  2. the claims or other legal contentions are warranted by exiting law or by nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law
  3. the factual contentions are warranted on evidence or if specifically identified, will likely have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for futher investigation. - meaning the factual contentions in the pleading are supported by valid evidence.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Rule 11. Signing Pleadings, Motions, and Other Papers; Representations to the Court; Sanctions

A

(b) Representations to the Court. By presenting to the court a pleading, written motion, or other paper—whether by signing, filing, submitting, or later advocating it—an attorney or unrepresented party certifies that to the best of the person’s knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances:

(1) it is not being presented for any improper purpose, such as to harass, cause unnecessary delay, or needlessly increase the cost of litigation;

(2) the claims, defenses, and other legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law;

(3) the factual contentions have evidentiary support or, if specifically so identified, will likely have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further investigation or discovery; and

(4) the denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on belief or a lack of information.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/rules/frcp/rule_11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sanctions based on Rule 11

A

(c) Sanctions.

(1) In General. If, after notice and a reasonable opportunity to respond, the court determines that Rule 11(b) has been violated, the court may impose an appropriate sanction on any attorney, law firm, or party that violated the rule or is responsible for the violation.

(2) Motion for Sanctions. A motion for sanctions must be made separately from any other motion and must describe the specific conduct that allegedly violates Rule 11(b). The motion must be served under Rule 5, but it must not be filed or be presented to the court if the challenged paper, claim, defense, contention, or denial is withdrawn or appropriately corrected within 21 days after service or within another time the court sets. If warranted, the court may award to the prevailing party the reasonable expenses, including attorney’s fees, incurred for the motion.

(3) On the Court’s Initiative. On its own, the court may order an attorney, law firm, or party to show cause why conduct specifically described in the order has not violated Rule 11(b).

(4) Nature of a Sanction. A sanction imposed under this rule must be limited to what suffices to deter repetition of the conduct or comparable conduct by others similarly situated. The sanction may include nonmonetary directives; an order to pay a penalty into court; or, if imposed on motion and warranted for effective deterrence, an order directing payment to the movant of part or all of the reasonable attorney’s fees and other expenses directly resulting from the violation.

(5) Limitations on Monetary Sanctions. The court must not impose a monetary sanction:

(A) against a represented party for violating Rule 11(b)(2); or

(B) on its own, unless it issued the show-cause order under Rule 11(c)(3) before voluntary dismissal or settlement of the claims made by or against the party that is, or whose attorneys are, to be sanctioned.

(6) Requirements for an Order. An order imposing a sanction must describe the sanctioned conduct and explain the basis for the sanction.

(d) Inapplicability to Discovery. This rule does not apply to disclosures and discovery requests, responses, objections, and motions under Rules 26 through 37.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Rule 11 for sanctions - Safe harbor doctrine

A

(2) Motion for Sanctions. A motion for sanctions must be made separately from any other motion and must describe the specific conduct that allegedly violates Rule 11(b). The motion must be served under Rule 5, but it must not be filed or be presented to the court if the challenged paper, claim, defense, contention, or denial is withdrawn or appropriately corrected within 21 days after service or within another time the court sets. If warranted, the court may award to the prevailing party the reasonable expenses, including attorney’s fees, incurred for the motion.

A motion for sanctions can’t be filed or be presented to court if the challenged paper, claim or etc is withdrawn or corrected within 21 days after service or within another time the court sets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Safe Harbor in connection to Rule 11 Sanctions

A

a party cannot simply file a motion for sanctions

he must serve the motion on opposing counsel prior to filing it and give the violating party 21 days to withdraw the pleading and fix it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

VA Civil Procedure

When can a court allow a party to file late pleadings?

A

The decision to whether allow late pleadings is up to the discretion of the trial court. And the trial court will not be distrubed unless the SCV finds the trial court abused its discretion.

Applicant needs to discuss whether there is good cause to support a motion for leave to file late pleadings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Whata are factors of good causes that would cause a court to allow a late pleading?

A
  1. Why was the defendant late in appearing
  2. any prejudice to the opposing side in permitting the late filing
  3. good faith of the moving party
  4. existence of a substantial defense ie contributory negligence
  5. promptness of the moving party
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rule 3:19 - Default

A

(a)Failure Timely to Respond. A defendant who fails to timely file a responsive pleading as prescribed in Rule 3:8 is in default. A defendant in default is not entitled to notice of any further proceedings in the case except as provided in subsection (c) below; and written notice of any further proceedings must be given to counsel of record, if any, until default judgment is entered against such defendant. The defendant in default is deemed to have waived any right to trial of issues by jury.
(b)Relief from Default. - Prior to the entry of judgment, for good cause shown the court may grant leave to a defendant who is in default to file a late responsive pleading. Relief from default may be conditioned by the court upon such defendant reimbursing any extra costs and fees, including attorney fees, incurred by the plaintiff solely as a result of the delay in the filing of a responsive pleading by the defendant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Default Judgment Damages

A

(c)Default Judgment and Damages.
(1) Except in suits for divorce or annulling a marriage, the court will, on motion of the plaintiff, enter judgment for the relief appearing to the court to be due. Written notice of such motion must be mailed to the defendant’s last known address, if known or reasonably available to plaintiff or plaintiff’s counsel, or otherwise to the service-of-process address for defendant. If plaintiff is unable to provide such notice, the motion must contain a certification that plaintiff has made reasonable, good faith, efforts to provide notice to the defendant. When service of process is effected by posting, no judgment by default will be entered until the requirements of Code § 8.01-296(2)(b) have been satisfied.
(2) If the relief demanded is unliquidated damages, the court will hear evidence and fix the amount thereof, unless the plaintiff demands trial by jury, in which event, a jury will be impaneled to fix the amount of damages.
**(3) If a defendant participates in the hearing to determine the amount of damages such defendant may not offer proof or argument on the issues of liability, but may (i) object to the plaintiff’s evidence regarding damages, (ii) offer evidence regarding the quantum of damages, (iii) participate in jury selection if a jury will hear the damage inquiry, (iv) submit proposed jury instructions regarding damages, and (v) make oral argument on the issues of damages.
**

44
Q

Relief from Default Judgment

A

(d)Relief from Default Judgment. -
(1)Within 21 Days. - During the period provided by Rule 1:1 for the modification, vacation or suspension of a judgment, the court may by written order relieve a defendant of a default judgment after consideration of the extent and causes of the defendant’s delay in tendering a responsive pleading, whether service of process and actual notice of the claim were timely provided to the defendant, and the effect of the delay upon the plaintiff. Relief from default may be conditioned by the court upon the defendant reimbursing any extra costs and fees, including attorney fees, incurred by the plaintiff solely as a result of the delay in the filing of a responsive pleading by the defendant.
(2)After 21 Days. - A final judgment no longer within the jurisdiction of the trial court under Rule 1:1 may not be vacated by that court except as provided in Virginia Code §§ 8.01-428 and 8.01-623.

45
Q

According to Rule 3:19c

A

The defaulting defendant can’t dispute their fault, however they can still dispute their damages. Thus, they can raise objections to the plaintiff’s evidence concerning damages.

And they can offer evidence disputing their damages.

46
Q

Is a Plaintiff entitled to a judgment against the defendant, despit the court’s ruling that plaintiff was guilty of contributory negligence as well.

Default judgment already entered against Defendant.

A

Yes, when Defendant was in default, he admitted liabilty to Plaintifff and conceded that the defendnat was free of contributory negligence.

47
Q

Agency and Torts

Respondeat Superior

A

A employer is liable for the tortious conduct of their employees that was committed in the scope of employment

48
Q

What is considered in the Scope of Employment

A
  1. the act was expressly or implicited directed by the employer or a natural incident of the business and it was performed, although mistakenly or ill advisely with the intent to further the employer’s interest or some natural impulse or emotion that was the nature consequence of an attempt to do the employer’s business.
49
Q

Generally, there is no liabilty for an employer for the acts of a independent contractor.

But there are exceptions based on VA LAW

A

VA Court determines whether an independent contractor is actually an employee based on the level of control that a employer has over the independent contractor specifically in regards to the power to control the means and method of performing the work.

If the Employer had little to no control or does not interfere with the work of the independent contractor. It is an independent contractor

50
Q

Vicarious Liability for the acts of an independent contractor

A

The skill level required. If someone performs a service that requires a special skill, that person will not likely be considered an employee, particularly if the services performed are distinct from those that the employer typically performs.

The existence of a written contract and benefits. If an employer and the agent sign a written employment contract that includes a salary and benefits, such as health and retirement, that agent will likely be deemed an employee.

The right to discharge. If an employer has the right to terminate the person, that individual will likely be considered an employee.

Furnishing tools and a place to work. If an employer provides the person with tools and a place to complete work-related tasks, he will likely be considered an employee.

The length of the employment relationship. Courts will consider the length of time that the agent is retained to perform tasks for an employer. The more permanent the relationship, the more likely that she will be deemed an employee.

The parties’ intentions. Courts will give some weight to whether the parties believe that they are entering an employee-employer relationship, although the parties’ intentions are not determinative.[5]

51
Q

The General Rule Concerning Employers’ Liability For Independent Contractors’ Misconduct and Exceptions

A

The general rule is that an employer is not liable for an independent contractor’s misconduct.[6]

However, there are three exceptions. An employer may be liable for an independent contractor’s misconduct if: (1) the employer was negligent in selecting or retaining an independent contractor[7]; (2) the tasks assigned to an independent contractor are non-delegable[8]; or (3) an independent contractor’s work is ultra-hazardous or inherently dangerous.[9]

The employer was negligent in selecting or retaining an independent contract

the tasks to an independent contractor were non delegable

or an independant contract work wqas inherently dangerous.

52
Q

Negligent Selection or Retention

A

Simply put, the “selection of an independent contractor requires the exercise of that amount of care that a reasonable person would exercise under the same or similar circumstances.”[13]

When analyzing whether an employer negligently selected or retained an independent contractor, courts will consider the following factors, among others:

Due diligence. Whether the employer examined the independent contractor’s background, experience, and competence before hiring the contractor.

The nature of the work. Whether the work lies within the competence of the average person or is work that can be done properly only by persons possessing special skill and training.

Danger to others. The danger to which others will be exposed if the contractor’s work is not properly done.

53
Q

Example of Negligent Selection

A

Example 1

The owner of an apartment complex advertises for a contractor to repair damaged wiring in several tenants’ apartments. The owner’s friend recommends someone that he claims, “is really good at that stuff.” The owner hires the contractor, who subsequently installs faulty wiring. This results in a massive fire that seriously injures five tenants. In this situation, the employer may be vicariously liable because the employer failed to investigate the contractor’s background, experience, and competence, and because the contractor was hired to perform a complex and dangerous task.

Example 2

The ABC Olympic Training Team hires Jordan, a nationally-respected orthopedist, to care for its athletes’ injuries. Jordan has an exemplary reputation and no criminal record. Over the course of two years, Jordan molests several children under the guise of treating them. In this situation, ABC is probably not vicariously liable because Jordan was hired to perform a special and complex skill (orthopedic treatment to its athletes) that ABC lacked the ability to supervise, and because it had no reason to suspect or foresee that Jordan would engage in such conduct.

54
Q

Non-Delegable Duties

An employer may be vicariously liable for an independent contractor’s misconduct if the employer assigns non-delegable responsibilities, namely, those that implicate public safety or welfare to an independent contractor.[18] This exception can be summarized as follows:

A

. . . [C]ertain of the employer’s responsibilities are so important to the community that they are deemed to be non-delegable duties, even when that task is done by an independent contractor. This doctrine holds the employer vicariously liable for the negligence of the independent contractor even given a showing that the employing party exercised due care.

**Examples of this exception based on nondelegability include: the duty of the government to maintain highways and roads, a railroad’s duty to maintain safe tracks and crossings, the duty to provide safe working environments for employees, and the duty to provide a reasonably safe premise for business visitors.[19]
**

Let’s consider one example.

The mayor of New City, in conjunction with the city council, hires a private contractor to repair noticeable corrosion on a city bridge that has slightly weakened its foundation. The contractor fails to perform the work properly, and, several weeks after the work is completed, the bridge partially collapses and kills fifteen motorists. In this situation, the mayor and city council may be vicariously liable because the bridge repairs implicated public safety and welfare and were therefore not delegable.

55
Q

Ultra-hazardous Activities

An employer may be vicariously liable for an independent contractor’s misconduct if the employer assigns responsibilities to the independent contractor that involve ultra-hazardous activities. This exception can be summarized as follows:

A

An exception to the general rule exempting employers from liability for independent contractors’ misconduct “involves situations where the independent contractor performs work likely to be a ‘peculiar risk’ or an ‘inherently dangerous’ function. The essence of these phrases is that given the nature of the task, a high degree of danger to others can result absent special precautions. Circumstances demonstrating this hazardous situation exclusion include: a case wherein the Department of Defense contracted with an independent contractor for the disposal of oil contaminated with toxic chemicals from a Florida military installation, a case involving the construction of a dam and a case in which a private company produced antitank explosives for the government. The justification advanced for holding the employer liable for contractors’ inherently dangerous work is that it would be unconscionable if the employer escaped liability for burdensome obligations merely by contracting out or shifting its responsibility to the independent contractor.[20]

56
Q

Example of Ultra Hazardous activites where the employer would be held vicariously liable for the conduct of an independant contracotr.

A

Example 1

The City of New Hope hires Phil’s Fireworks, Inc. to perform its annual July 4th fireworks display, which is an event that thousands of New Hope residents attend. Unfortunately, during the show, one of Phil’s Fireworks employees fails to configure the fireworks properly, and, as the show begins, the fireworks are mistakenly fired into the crowd. Twelve residents are seriously injured. In this situation, the City of New Hope is vicariously liable because operating fireworks, particularly at a public event, is inherently dangerous.

Example 2

A small town in Sunrise, Montana owns and operates a public swimming pool that residents frequently visit during the summer. One summer, Sunrise hires five experienced swimmers to serve as lifeguards. One day while on duty, the lifeguards observe a man in his mid-40’s dive in the pool’s most shallow area, which is only four feet deep. The man suffers a severe concussion and damages two vertebrae in his neck. In this situation, Sunrise would not be vicariously liable because swimming is not an inherently dangerous activity for adults.

57
Q

The duty of a landlord to people on his property in regard to inherently dangerous conditions on his property depends on what?

A

It is dependant on the legal status of that person.

Whether a person is an invitee, liscensee or a Trespasser known or unknown.

58
Q

What is an invitee and what is the duty owed to them.

A

A person invited onto the land by the possessor of the land for the possessor own interest.

The duty is to keep the land reasonably safe from known dangerous conditions and make reasonable inspections for unknown dangerous conditions and make them safe.

However, there is no duty to keep them safe from open and obvious dangers.

59
Q

What is a licensee and what is the duty owed to them.

A

A person who is invited on the land of the possessor but for their own personal interests.

the duty to them is to warn of and make safe any known and inherently dangeroud conditions

but there is no duty to repair or warn or unknown dangerous conditions.

60
Q

What is a trespasser and the duty to them

known and unknown.

A

Trespasser are people who have no right to enter the property.

There is no duty to a unknown trespasser

For known trespassers there is a duty to warn and make safe artifical and inherently dangerous conditions.

61
Q

Duty of care of innkeepers

A

Liability. A. It shall be the duty of any person owning or operating a hotel to exercise due care and diligence in providing honest and competent employees and to take reasonable precautions to protect the persons and property of the guests of the hotel.

innkeepers of a duty of heighten care and diligence in providing honest and competent employees and to take reasonable precaustions to protect the persons and property of the guests of the hotel.

62
Q

The Doctrine of Respondeat Superior

A

An employer is liable for the torts committed by his employee within the scope of the employment

Scope of the Employment means actions implicitly or expressly committed by the employee for the employer or directed by him. Or it was performed with the intent of furthering the employer’s goals.

For instance gardening is the same as punching a man in the face.

63
Q

Evidence

Evidence must be Relevant

A

Evidence it relevant if it has any tendency to make the existence of any fact of consequence to the determation of tthe action more or less probable than it would be without the evidence. In other words

the evidence must be material - of consequence in the case

Probative - the evidence has any tendancy to make the proposition more or less likely.

64
Q

General Rule of Admissibility

A

If it is kept out by some exclusionary rule of evidence

or

Court uses its Rule 403 discretion to keep it out.

65
Q

The trial court has broad discretion to exclude relevant evidence if its

A

Danger of unfair prejudice - a danger that the jury would decide the case on a emotional basis

confusion of issues

misleading the jury

undue delay

waste of time

needless presentation of cumulative evidence

66
Q

What is the general rule regarding the admissibilty of prior crimes in a trial for a criminal charge?

A

Evidence of a prior crime is generally inadmissible but there are exceptions such as the prove the identity or modous perandi of the perpetrator.

67
Q

Rule 404. Character Evidence; Other Crimes, Wrongs, or Acts

A

(a) Character Evidence.

(1) Prohibited Uses. Evidence of a person’s character or character trait is not admissible to prove that on a particular occasion the person acted in accordance with the character or trait.

(2) Exceptions for a Defendant or Victim in a Criminal Case. The following exceptions apply in a criminal case:

(A) a defendant may offer evidence of the defendant’s pertinent trait, and if the evidence is admitted, the prosecutor may offer evidence to rebut it;

(B) subject to the limitations in Rule 412, a defendant may offer evidence of an alleged victim’s pertinent trait, and if the evidence is admitted, the prosecutor may:

(i) offer evidence to rebut it; and

(ii) offer evidence of the defendant’s same trait; and

(C) in a homicide case, the prosecutor may offer evidence of the alleged victim’s trait of peacefulness to rebut evidence that the victim was the first aggressor.

(3) Exceptions for a Witness. Evidence of a witness’s character may be admitted under Rules 607, 608, and 609.

(b) Other Crimes, Wrongs, or Acts.

(1) Prohibited Uses. Evidence of any other crime, wrong, or act is not admissible to prove a person’s character in order to show that on a particular occasion the person acted in accordance with the character.

(2) Permitted Uses. This evidence may be admissible for another purpose, such as proving** motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, absence of mistake, or lack of accident.**

(3) Notice in a Criminal Case. In a criminal case, the prosecutor must:

(A) provide reasonable notice of any such evidence that the prosecutor intends to offer at trial, so that the defendant has a fair opportunity to meet it;

(B) articulate in the notice the permitted purpose for which the prosecutor intends to offer the evidence and the reasoning that supports the purpose; and

(C) do so in writing before trial — or in any form during trial if the court, for good cause, excuses lack of pretrial notice.

68
Q

The signature nature of a prior crime as it relates to a present crime is relevant to establish the identity or plan of the offend

and the relevance outweights the prejudicial effect

A

Thus, while evidence of a crime usually isn’t admissible to prove that a defendant acted in accordance to that character.

It ais allowed to prove, motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, absence of mistake, or lack of accident.

Prior convictions for traffic demeanors are not relevant to as they dont’ make any fact of consequence to the determination of the action more or less probable.

And it is impermissible character evidence.

69
Q

Can Spousal Privilege be used by a defendant spouse to prevent a testifying spouse to testify?

A

No, so long as the testify spouse consents or wishs to do so.

70
Q

Marital privileges in VA

A

Take the Stand Privilege and Marital Communications.

71
Q

Marital Communications Privilege

A

Marital communications privilege (Confidential marital communications)
In both civil and criminal cases, communications made between spouses during the marriage are privileged if the communication is intended to be private and made in reliance on the sanctity of marriage. Even if the marriage is terminated because of divorce or the death of one spouse, this privilege could be asserted.

_________________________________________________________________________________________

Communciations between spouses during the marriage are privileged if the communications is intened to be private and made in reliance of the marriage.

This applies even if the marriage is terminated.

72
Q

Spousal testimonial privilege (Spousal immunity)

A

Spousal testimonial privilege (Spousal immunity)
In criminal cases, the spouse of a criminal defendant who is called as a witness by the prosecution may choose to testify but cannot be compelled to testify against his or her spouse about events that occurred before and during the marriage. While the privilege can be waived by the witness spouse, even if the defendant spouse objects.

In a minority of jurisdictions, the defendant spouse holds the privilege to prevent the witness spouse from testifying, regardless of the witness spouse’s willingness.

Compared to the marital communications privilege, spousal testimonial privilege is only acceptable during a valid marriage. Once the marriage ends, the right of privilege expires. But it not only applies to events that happened during the marriage but also applies to events that occurred before the marriage.

73
Q

Examples of when testimony that does not implicate the marital communication privilege

A

Arguments in the grocery store.

74
Q

When does Marital Privilege does not apply

A

Marital privilege does not apply if 1) the private communication is revealed to third parties, 2) one spouse is suing the other (e.g., divorce), or 3) when one spouse is charged with a crime against the other or their children (e.g., domestic violence or abuse).

75
Q

Can Oral Contracts be enforceable under the UCC.

A

Yes, as long as it concerns movable goods aka - goods that were identified as movable at the time of the contract.

76
Q

the predominant purpose test

A

This is how the court determines whether a mixed services and goods contract should be govern by the UCC or common law.

If the majority of the cost is for the good rather then the services, then it is under the UCC

77
Q

Statue of Frauds

A

MY LEGS

Marriage, Year, Land, Executor, Guarantor, and Sales of goods over 500.

Under the statute of Frauds, the oral contract needs to be evidenced by writing to be enforceable unless a exception applies.

78
Q

§ 2-201. Formal Requirements; Statute of Frauds.

A

(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section a contract for the sale of goods for the price of $500 or more is not enforceable by way of action or defense unless there is some writing sufficient to indicate that a contract for sale has been made between the parties and signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought or by his authorized agent or broker. A writing is not insufficient because it omits or incorrectly states a term agreed upon but the contract is not enforceable under this paragraph beyond the quantity of goods shown in such writing.

A contract for the sale of goods over 500 isn’t enforceble unless there is a writing to indicate a contract that has been signed by the party against whom it will be enforced against.

A writing is not insufficient because it omits or incorrectly states a term agreed upon.

But it will not be enforceable beyond the quantity of goods shown in the writing.

79
Q

Formal Requirements of the Statute of Frauds

Aka

Merchant’s conformatory Memo

A

(2) Between merchants if within a reasonable time a writing in confirmation of the contract and sufficient against the sender is received and the party receiving it has reason to know its contents, it satisfies the requirements of subsection (1) against such party unless written notice of objection to its contents is given within 10 days after it is received.

If between Merchants,

A merchant sends a written conformation of the contract that is sufficient against the sender and it is received by the party who has reason to know of the contents.

Such writing is sufficient against the party unless written notice of objection is sent within 10 days after it is received.

80
Q

Exceptions to the requirement of the statute of frauds for goods more then 500 dollars.

A

(3) A contract which does not satisfy the requirements of subsection (1) but which is valid in other respects is enforceable

(a) if the goods are to be specially manufactured for the buyer and are not suitable for sale to others in the ordinary course of the seller’s business and the seller, before notice of repudiation is received and under circumstances which reasonably indicate that the goods are for the buyer, has made either a substantial beginning of their manufacture or commitments for their procurement; or
(b) if the party against whom enforcement is sought admits in his pleading, testimony or otherwise in court that a contract for sale was made, but the contract is not enforceable under this provision beyond the quantity of goods admitted; or
(c) with respect to goods for which payment has been made and accepted or which have been received and accepted (Sec. 2-606).

81
Q

Specially Manufactured Goods

A

If goods are specially manufactured for the buyer and not suitable for sale to others in the ordinary course of business,
And the manufactor made a subtantial beginning on producing the goods (and reasonably indicated the goods were for the buyer) or made commitments for their procurement before the notice of repudiation is received

Contract is enforceable to that extent.

82
Q

S

Even if the contract is oral and is over 500 dollars, the statute of frauds will not apply with respect to goods already paid for and accepted or have been received and accepted.

A

Basically, if the buyer had already paid fully in advance and the seller already accepted the payment.

83
Q

Expressed Warranty

A

An expressed affirmation of fact concerning the goods that become part of the basis of the bargain.

Example, he stressed the quality of his asphalt. And it turned out the asphalt was poor quality

84
Q

Implied Warranty of Merchantability

A

That the goods is being sold by a merchant who deals in those particular goods.

And that the goods are fit for the ordinary purposes of the goods.

Was the warranty disclaimed or modified?

85
Q

What is a Merchant under the UCC

A

§ 8.2-104. Definitions: “Merchant”; “financing agency”; “between merchants.”
(1) “Merchant” means a person who deals in goods of the kind or otherwise by his occupation holds himself out as having knowledge or skill peculiar to the practices or goods involved in the transaction or to whom such knowledge or skill may be attributed by his employment of an agent or broker or other intermediary who by his occupation holds himself out as having such knowledge or skill.

86
Q

§ 8.2-314. Implied warranty: Merchantability; usage of trade.

A

§ 8.2-314. Implied warranty: Merchantability; usage of trade.
(1) Unless excluded or modified (§ 8.2-316), a warranty that the goods shall be merchantable is implied in a contract for their sale if the seller is a merchant with respect to goods of that kind. Under this section the serving for value of food or drink to be consumed either on the premises or elsewhere is a sale.

(2) Goods to be merchantable must be at least such as

(a) pass without objection in the trade under the contract description; and

(b) in the case of fungible goods, are of fair average quality within the description; and

(c) are fit for the ordinary purposes for which such goods are used; and

(d) run, within the variations permitted by the agreement, of even kind, quality and quantity within each unit and among all units involved; and

(e) are adequately contained, packaged, and labeled as the agreement may require; and

(f) conform to the promises or affirmations of fact made on the container or label if any.

(3) Unless excluded or modified (§ 8.2-316) other implied warranties may arise from course of dealing or usage of trade.

87
Q

Implied Warranty of Fitness for a Particular Purpose

A

That the seller was aware of the buyer’s particular purpose for the goods and that the buyer relied on the Sellers’ representations or knowlege to select the goods for that purpose.

88
Q

§ 8.2-607. Effect of acceptance; notice of breach; burden of establishing breach after acceptance; notice of claim or litigation to person answerable over.

A

§ 8.2-607. Effect of acceptance; notice of breach; burden of establishing breach after acceptance; notice of claim or litigation to person answerable over.
(1) The buyer must pay at the contract rate for any goods accepted.

(2) Acceptance of goods by the buyer precludes rejection of the goods accepted and if made with knowledge of a nonconformity cannot be revoked because of it unless the acceptance was on the reasonable assumption that the nonconformity would be seasonably cured but acceptance does not of itself impair any other remedy provided by this title for nonconformity.

(3) Where a tender has been accepted

(a) the buyer must within a reasonable time after he discovers or should have discovered any breach notify the seller of breach or be barred from any remedy; and

(b) if the claim is one for infringement or the like (subsection (3) of § 8.2-312) and the buyer is sued as a result of such a breach he must so notify the seller within a reasonable time after he receives notice of the litigation or be barred from any remedy over for liability established by the litigation.

(4) The burden is on the buyer to establish any breach with respect to the goods accepted.

(5) Where the buyer is sued for breach of a warranty or other obligation for which his seller is answerable over

(a) he may give his seller written notice of the litigation. If the notice states that the seller may come in and defend and that if the seller does not do so he will be bound in any action against him by his buyer by any determination of fact common to the two litigations, then unless the seller after seasonable receipt of the notice does come in and defend he is so bound.

(b) if the claim is one for infringement or the like (subsection (3) of § 8.2-312) the original seller may demand in writing that his buyer turn over to him control of the litigation including settlement or else be barred from any remedy over and if he also agrees to bear all expense and to satisfy any adverse judgment, then unless the buyer after seasonable receipt of the demand does turn over control the buyer is so barred.

(6) The provisions of subsections (3), (4) and (5) apply to any obligation of a buyer to hold the seller harmless against infringement or the like (subsection (3) of § 8.2-312).

89
Q

The notice requirement for proper rejection of goods under the UCC.

After acceptance

A

When the tender has been accepted, the buyer must notify the seller of the breach within a reasonable time after he discovers or should have discovered the breach.

Or the buyer will be bared from any remedy.

90
Q

In regard to proper rejection of goods by a buyer under the UCC.

To support Breach of Contract

A

(3) Where a tender has been accepted

(a) the buyer must within a reasonable time after he discovers or should have discovered any breach notify the seller of breach or be barred from any remedy; and

(b) if the claim is one for infringement or the like (subsection (3) of § 8.2-312) and the buyer is sued as a result of such a breach he must so notify the seller within a reasonable time after he receives notice of the litigation or be barred from any remedy over for liability established by the litigation.

(4) The burden is on the buyer to establish any breach with respect to the goods accepted.

(5) Where the buyer is sued for breach of a warranty or other obligation for which his seller is answerable over

91
Q

Seeking Damages for Accepted goods under 8.2-714

A

§ 8.2-714. Buyer’s damages for breach in regard to accepted goods.
(1) Where the buyer has accepted goods and given notification (subsection (3) of § 8.2-607) he may recover as damages for any nonconformity of tender the loss resulting in the ordinary course of events from the seller’s breach as determined in any manner which is reasonable.

(2) The measure of damages for breach of warranty is the difference at the time and place of acceptance between the value of the goods accepted and the value they would have had if they had been as warranted, unless special circumstances show proximate damages of a different amount.

(3) In a proper case any incidental and consequential damages under the next section [§ 8.2-715] may also be recovered.

92
Q

Damages for Breach of Warranty

A

Is the price of the good if it had been as warranted minus the value it was when accepted.

also any incidential and consequential damages.

93
Q

the standard to recovery attorney’s fees.

A

Attorney fees are recoverable only in special circumstances. Such as an enabling contract provision or a staute.

94
Q

Real Property

What are Easements

A

An easement is a grant of a nonpossessory property interest that entitles the holder to some use or enjoyment of another’s land.

An easement is presumed to be perpeutal duration. Unless the easement specifically limits the interest.

95
Q

Affirmative Easements

A

the right to go and do something on the servient land

96
Q

negative easements

A

Entitles the holders to prevent servient landowner from doing something that woule otherwise be permissible.

LASS

Light

Air

Support

Stream Water from an artifical flow.

These can only be created by expressed writing signed by the grantor.

97
Q

Easement Appurtenant

A

When it benefits the holder in his physical use or enjoyment of his own land.

There is a dominant tenement that receives the benefit

and servient tenement, which bears the burden.

  • IT passes automatically with transfers of the dominant tenement, regardless if it is mentioned in the conveyance.
  • the burden passes with the servient estate, unless the owner is a bona fide purchaser without notice of the easement.
98
Q

Easement in Gross

A

if it confers upon its holder only some personal or pecuniary advantage that is not related to their use or enjoyment of their land.

Ads, right to use the other land.

99
Q

Easement by grant

A

Any easement must be memorialized in writing and signed by the holder of the servient tenement unless its duration is brief enough to be outside of the statute of frauds.

100
Q

Easement by Implication

A

Created by operation of law

an exception to the statute of frauds

101
Q

Easement implied without any existing use

A

subdivision

profit a prrendere

102
Q

Easement by Necessity

A

When a landowner conveys a portion of her land with no way out except over the grantor’s remaining land

the owner of the servient parcel has a right ot locate a easement

103
Q

Easement by Prescription

A

Adverse

COAH

Continuous and uninterrupted use for the given statute period

Open and notorious use - discoverable on inspection

Actual use that doesn’t need to be exclusive

Hostile use - without the permission of the servient owner’s consent.

20 year period

104
Q

how to terminate an Easement

A

END CRAMP

EStoppel - oral expression ot an intent to abandon the easement. Needs to be committed into writing or by action. However, if a servient owner mateiral changes their position in reasonable reliance on the easement holder’ assurances or representations. The easement will terminate through estoppel.

Necessity - the expires when the necessity ends unless express easement

Destruction - destruction of the servient land other then by wilful conduct of the owner

Condemnation - by government eminent domian

Release- a release by the easement holder to the servietn land owner will terminate the easement - it needs to be in writing.

Abandonment - by physical action like building a barrier

Merger - unity of ownership both lands are own by same person

105
Q

Easement by deed.

A

Where a grantor conveys land by deed, describing it as bounded by a road or a streett, the fee of which is vested in the grantor.

He impiles that such a way exists and that the grantee acquires the benefit of it.

A description in a deed there a property is bordered by a road, gives rise to a right by the grantee to use the road.

This does not permit others to use the road. Only the grantee.