Jojos Phlebotomy Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

What is quality assurance?

A

Quality assurance is the planned out and ordered actions put in place to assure a quality product or service.

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2
Q

What is Total Quality Management? (TQM)

A

Total Quality Management (TQM)
A belief that fully involved, trained and informed employees will make a better working environment, productivity increases and the service provided is more efficient. Flow on is customer satisfaction and viability for the company grows. This philosophy is long term and an on going involving employees and management working together.

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3
Q

What are ethics?

A

Ethics are the rules or principles that govern right conduct.
Or moral principles that govern behaviour

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4
Q

What is confidential information?

A

Confidential information is information given or spoken on the understanding that it will not be passed on to others

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5
Q

What is patient/ donor confidentiality?

A

The practise of not making information known unless authorised.

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6
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Understanding all of the facts and knowing you rights before giving consent.

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7
Q

What is cultural competence?

A

Awareness of cultural diversity and the ability to function effectively and respectfully when working with and treating if waitangi & people with different cultural backgrounds.

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8
Q

What is medical laboratory science?

A

It is the use of clinical laboratory tests to detect, diagnose, monitor, and treat disease.

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9
Q

What is the role of the New Zealand Institute of Medical Laboratory Science? (NZIMLS)

A

NZIMLS Is a professional body, representing those working in the field of medical science in NZ. NZIMLS offers continuing education, examinations and medical journals. They organise conferences and seminars and keep track of CPD Points to support members to obtain annual practising certificates from the Medical Science Council New Zealand.

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10
Q

What are CPD Points?

A

Continual professional Development Programe

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11
Q

What is the role of Medical Science Council New Zealand?

A

The Medical Science Council New Zealand is a health regulation authority. It administrates the Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act (HPCA ACT) 2003 for Medical Laboratory Science and Anaesthetic Technology. It protects the health and safety of NZ by making sure practitioners have the correct qualifications and continued training. They set standards of clinical competence and ethical conduct, issuing annual practising certificates to health practitioners.

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12
Q

What is the HPCA ACT?

A

Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act. (2003)

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13
Q

What universities train Medical Laboratory Scientists in NZ?

A

Auckland University of Technology,
Massey University
Otago University

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14
Q

What are the 5 codes of competency?

A
  1. Practice as a professional - Comply with the HPCA Act
    • Understand requirements for registration and practice, Comply with other relevant legislation and codes. Honest , trustworthy.
  2. Practise as a technician - Report and interpret laboratory results, Demonstrate the correct safe operation of laboratory equipment to include:
    • Calibration
    • Maintenance
    • Responding appropriately to malfunction and
    accidents
  3. Safe Practice - Ensure personal, patient/client, colleague and public safety
  4. Communication
  5. Culturally competent practice - Recognise own beliefs, values and prejudices, Recognise cultural diversity as it relates to ethnicity, culture, age, gender, sexual orientation, migrant experience or disability
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15
Q

How many nerves are in the hand and what are they called?

A

There are 3 nerves in the hand.

  1. Ulnar Nerve
  2. Radial Nerve
  3. Median Nerves
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16
Q

What fingers do each if the 3 hand nerves supply sensation to?

A

Ulnar nerve connects to the little finger and adjacent side of the ring finger.

In the hand, the median nerve supplies the muscles at the base of the thumb. It also supplies nerves to the index and middle fingers. The median nerve provides sensation to the thumb side of the palm, the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring finger.

Radial The radial nerve provides sensation to the thumb side of the back of the hand.

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17
Q

What organs are involved in the muscular system of the human body?

A

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

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18
Q

What concentration of the haematgobin in the blood would suggest anemia?

A

Males - below 13.5g/dl (13.5/L)

Females - below 11.5g/dl (11.5/L)

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19
Q

How will an under filled sodium citrate tube effect the reported results?

A

Any citrate tube filled less than 90% of its stated volume will yield falsely lengthens results (under filled is over time).

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20
Q

What is the recommended volume of blood to be collected in a blood culture for a pediatríc patients

A

Use the pink paediatric blood culture bottle, and get 1-3mls for an infant.
Older children 5mls
Neonates - 1-3mls

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21
Q

What is a irregularity in the heart rate, rhythm, or beat called?

A

Arrhythmia

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22
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats per minute.

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23
Q

What organs are involved in the human nervous system?

A

Spinal cord, brain , nerves, and sensory organs, ( eyes, ears, nose, tongue, skin). They all work together or make up the nervous system.

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24
Q

What does extrasystoles mean?

A

The heart has some extra beats before the normal heat beat starts.

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25
Q

Describe heart fribrillations

A

Rapid, uncoordinated contractions.

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26
Q

What is a fast heart rate called?

Over 100 beats per minute.

A

Tachycardia

Take-kar’de-ah

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27
Q

What is the fundamental principle of health care?

A

Prímum non noncere

First do no harm

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28
Q

Microbiology detects pathogens/pathogenic micro-organisms. Looking for the actual pathogen. Primary test is culture and sensitivity.

A

Microbiology, what does it do?

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29
Q

What are the names of the valves leaving the heart and why are they called semilunar valves

A

They are called semilunar valves because of their crescent shape
The valve leaving the right ventricle is called the pulmonic valve
The valve leaving the left ventricle is called the aortic valve.

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30
Q

What happens to deoxygenated blood in the lungs?

A

The capillaries wrap around small sacs called alveoli. This is where carbon dioxide is removed from the blood and the blood is reoxygenated

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31
Q

How many layers of tissue does the heart have? What are these layers called?

A

The heart has 3 layers of tissues/muscle.

  1. Endocardium (inner layer)
  2. Myocardium (middle layer)
  3. Epicardium (outer layer)
32
Q

What is coagulation the study of?

A

Coagulation is the study of the ability of the blood to form clots and dissolve clots. Coag dept mostly requires light blue sodium citrate tube as they use plasma for tests.

33
Q

What direction do arteries carry blood? Name the arteries associated with each side of the heart and the direction they travel?

A

Arteries carry blood away from the heart
Pulmonary artery carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
Aorta carries blood from the left ventricle out of the aortic arch to the shoulders neck and arms and out of the deceasing aorta to the diaphragm, pelvis and legs.

34
Q

What does epi refer to in medical terms?

A

EPI means on, or near, or out side
It usually means outer layer of closest to the outside of the body.
E.g. epicardium (outer layer).

35
Q

Arteries have to reduce in size before becoming capillaries. What is the stage between an artery and a capillary?

A

Arteries branch off into smaller arteries called arterioles.

36
Q

Arteries carry oxygenated blood with the exception of one artery what is that artery called?

A

The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs to be oxygenated. It is called an artery because it travels away from the lungs.

37
Q

In medical terms what does endo usually refer to?

A

Endo means inner layer or inside

E. G. Endocardium - pertaining to the inner layer of the heart.

38
Q

What is the name given to chest discomfort that occurs suddenly?

A
Angina pectoral
(Pectoral = relating to the breast or chest)
39
Q

Chordae tendineae attach the atrioventricular valves to the walls of the ventricles, what else do they do?

A

They keep the valves from flipping back into the atria

40
Q

What organs are involved in the Integumentary system of the human body?

A

Skin, hair, nails

Keeps body warm, protects from bacteria, keeps fluids in

41
Q

What does Myo usually refer to in medical terms?

A

Myo means middle

Usually refers to the middle layer E. G. Myocardium (pertaining to the middle layer of the heart

42
Q

What part of the hand does the ulnar artery supply blood to?

A

The ulnar artery supplies blood to the medial side of the index finger, fingers 3,4, & 5. (Middle, ring & pinky). Basically everything accept the thumb

43
Q

What part of the hand is supplied blood from the radial artery?

A

The radial artery supplies the thumb and the lateral half of the index finger.

44
Q

What does the term anastomosis mean?

E-nasta- mosis

A

An anastomosis is a connection or opening between two things that are normally diverging or branching. Anastomoses between arteries and veins result in multiply arteries and veins serving the same tissue.

45
Q

Where is the snuffbox (also known as the radial fossa)?

A

This is a triangular depression found on the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the hand it is located at the level of the carpal bones

46
Q

Where is the superior thoracic artery? Where does it arise from?

A

The superior thoracic artery arises from the first division of the Axillary artery. It is a small artery located near the armpit.

47
Q

The second part of the axillary artery has two branches what are the called and where are they?

A
  1. Acromiothoratic artery ( thoracic axis) - is a short trunk that arises from the second part of the axillary artery. This is beneath the upper boarder if the pectoralis minor muscle)
  2. Lateral thoracic artery - distributes blood to the lateral regions of the breast and upper thorax. Branching off the 2nd part of the axillary artery it follows the pectoralis minor muscle lower boarder.
48
Q

What are the 4 branches off the brachial artery?

A

On the radial side there is the profunda (deep)brachii artery & the humeral (bone from shoulder to elbow)nutrient artery.
On the ulnar side is the superior ulnar collateral artery & the inferior ulnar colateral artery

49
Q

Where does the radial and ulnar artery run from the elbow?

A

The brachial artery divides at the elbow, (cubical fossa) into the radial and ulnar arteries. The radial artery runs laterally along the forearm. The ulnar artery passes along the medial aspect of the forearm

50
Q

What is a recurrent artery?

A

A recurrent artery is an artery that reflects back in the opposite direction of its parent artery.

51
Q

What are the two recurrent arteries coming off the ulnar artery?

A

Anterior ulnar recurrent artery & the posterior recurrent ulnar artery.

52
Q

What parts of the body do the radial and ulnar arteries supply with blood?

A

The hand and the wrist.

53
Q

What are the two arterial arches in the palm of the hand?

A

The superior palmer arch and the deep Palmer arch.

54
Q

How many common digital arteries arise off the superficial palmar arch?

A

4 common digital arteries, one travels to the lateral side of the pinky the others run up between each finger and stop at the finger joints. There is no common digital artery running between the thumb and index finger.

55
Q

There are no common digital arteries to the thumb and index finger so how do these digits get blood supply?

A

From the deep Palmer arch. The common digital arteries come off the superficial palmar arch

56
Q

Where do the proper digital arteries begin and go?

A

The proper digital arteries stem from the common digital arteries. They split between the fingers. The split feeds blood to two different fingers

57
Q

What is the largest branch coming off the axillary artery?

A

The subscapular artery, it delivers blood to the muscles and skin of the shoulder and thoracic wall.

58
Q

What is quantiferon gold test?
What tubes are required?
Procedure?

A

It is an interferon gamma release assay (IGRA). A serology test using TB antigens.

tubes are : Grey ( Nil tube) which is the negative control and shouldn’t show a reaction
Green ( TB1) which contains antigen 1
Yellow ( TB2) which contains antigen2
Purple ( Mitogen tube). A mitogen is a small protein which promotes mitosis ie cell division. This is the positive control

One ml of blood goes in each tube & they must be well mixed, volume being critical. The tubes are incubated for about 16hrs to allow the reaction to occur.

59
Q

What is quantiferon gold test?
What tubes are required?
Procedure?

A

It is an interferon gamma release assay (IGRA). A serology test using TB antigens.

tubes are : Grey ( Nil tube) which is the negative control and shouldn’t show a reaction
Green ( TB1) which contains antigen 1
Yellow ( TB2) which contains antigen2
Purple ( Mitogen tube). A mitogen is a small protein which promotes mitosis ie cell division. This is the positive control

One ml of blood goes in each tube ; they must be well mixed, volume being critical. The tubes are incubated for about 16hrs to allow the reaction to occur.

60
Q

What bacteria causes TB?

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

M. tuberculosis is carried in airborne particles, called droplet nuclei, of 1– 5 microns in diameter. Infectious droplet nuclei are generated when persons who have pulmonary or laryngeal TB disease cough, sneeze, shout, or sing. TB is spread from person to person through the air.

61
Q

What is the Mantoux test?

A

A Mantoux test or Mendel–Mantoux test is a tool for screening for tuberculosis. It is one of the major tuberculin skin tests.

Your health care provider will use a small needle to inject some harmless testing fluid (called “tuberculin”) under the skin on your arm.

Your health care provider MUST check your arm 2 or 3 days after the TB skin test, even if your arm looks OK to you.

If you have a reaction to the test, it will look like a raised bump. Your health care provider will measure the size of the reaction.

A firm bump that is 15 mm (0.6 in.) in size suggests a TB infection

The test is “negative” if there is no bump (or only a very small bump) at the spot where the fluid was injected.

62
Q

How many hours does the Tuberculin Mantoux skin test take?

A

72 hours

63
Q

What enzyme is missing in a patient who is lactose intolerant?

A

They are lacking in the enzyme Mucosal lactase.

Mucosal lactase is needed to convert lactose or milk sugar into glucose

64
Q

How is a lactose Tolerence Test performed?

A

The same as a 2 hour glucose tolerance test except an equal amount of lactose is substituted for the glucose.

65
Q

What does the international standard unit mol/L mean?

A

(mM) millimolar = Millimoles per litre

Common unit used in the UK to measure blood sugar units

66
Q

What does the international standard unit mg/dL mean?

A

Milligrams per decilitre

Unit for measuring concentration of glucose in the blood in USA

67
Q

How is the HbA1c test measured in NZIMLS? Units

A

Millimoles per mole (mMol/mol)

Normal is below 40 mMol/mol
Pre-diabetes 41-49 mMol/mol
Diabetes 50 mMol/mol

68
Q

How do you convert mg/dL to mMol/L?

A

Divide it by 18 or multiply it by 0.055

69
Q

Why is the preferred Urine sample midstream for micro analysis?

A

Because it avoids contamination of genitalia secretions , pubic hair, and bacteria

70
Q

How are urine samples stored if they can’t be delivered promptly to the lab?

A

Held at room temperature and protected from light for up to 2 hrs after which they should be refrigerated or chemically preserved

71
Q

What is a regular voided midstream urine specimen?

A

Void means to discharge or emit void urine.
The patient voids the initial urine into the toilet, flushing contaminates from the opening. The flow is interrupted and then restarted into a specimen container. The last of the urine flow is voided into the toilet.

72
Q

What are catecholamines?

A

Catecholamines are hormones made by your adrenal glands e. G. Dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine

73
Q

What does a 24 hr urine test measure?

A

The total amount of catecholamines in your urine over a 24 hr period. Because these hormone levels can go up and down during the day.

74
Q

What foods should you avoid before doing a catecholamines test?

A

For several days before the test avoid tea, coffee, chocolate and cocoa, bananas, citrus or vanilla

75
Q

What does VTM STAND FOR?

A

viral transport medium

76
Q

What is freezing and boiling point?
What temperature is fridge
What temp is ambient
What yep freezer

A
Freezing point 0 degree celcius
Boiling 100 degree celcius
Ambient temp for blood samples 14 degree C and 27 degree C
Fridge 2 - 7 degree C
Freezer -20 degree C