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Helicopter Instrument Rating > Jeppesen Instrument/FAA Text > Flashcards

Jeppesen Instrument/FAA Text Flashcards

1
Q

What are sources of PILOT error in IFR flight?

A

Misinterpretation of chart, failure to understand a clearance, inability to use equipment properly, lack of coordination among crewmemebers.

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2
Q

What is the DECIDE model?

A

Detect the fact that a change has occured
Estimate the need to counter or react to the change
Choose a desirable outcome for the flight
Identify actions which could control the change
Do the necessary action to adapt to change
Evaluate the effect of the action

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3
Q

What constitutes good situational awareness?

A

A solid mental picture of the flight

weather trends, good fitness, and ATC instructions

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4
Q

Define kinesthetic sense.

A

A term used to describe an awareness of position obtained from the nerves in skin, joints, and muscles. It is unreliable because the brain cannot tell the difference between input caused by gravity and that of maneuvering G-loads.

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5
Q

Define spatial disorientation.

A

Refers to the lack of orientation with regard to position, attitude, or movement of the airplane in space. The body uses these 3 systems that work together to ascertain this information:

Vestibular System - Inner ear organs that sense position by the way we are balanced
Somatosensory System - nerves in the skin, muscles and joints that sense position based on gravity, feeling and sound
Visual System - eyes, which sense position based on what’s seen

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6
Q

Define vestibular disorientation.

A

When subjected to the differenct forces of flight during instrument maneuvers, the vestibular system (inner ear) may send misleading signals to the brain

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7
Q

Four types of hypoxia?

A

Hypoxic - when there are not enough molecules of oxygen available at sufficient pressure to pass the membranes in your respiratory system. Reduction of partial pressure at altitude is how pilots experience this.
Hypemic - When blood is not able to take up and transport sufficent oxygen. A result of oxygen deficiency in the blood, as opposed to lack of inhaled oxygen. Can be caused by reduced blood volume, anemia, or for pilots CO poisoning or blood donation.
Stagnant - when oxygen-rich blood in the lungs is not moving to the tissues of the body. Typically a concern with excessive Gs
Histotoxic Hypoxia - inability of the cells to use oxygen. Caused by alcohol and other drugs/poisons

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8
Q

HOw do you establish the correct heading after losing it in coordinated flight?

A

When you see heading deviation, use the attitude indicator to establish an angle of bank equal to the degrees deviation from the heading (10 degrees off = 10 degree bank)

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9
Q

What is the primary instrument for bank control after a turn has been entered?

A

The turn coordinator

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10
Q

HOw can you estimate the approximate angle of bank required for a standard rate turn?

A

Divide true airspeed in knots by 10 and add 5 to result

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11
Q

How do you stop a turn on the desired heading?

A

Lead the roll out by 1/2 the angle of bank

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12
Q

Why does an aircraft tend to lose airspeed in a level turn?

A

The increased angle of attack results in an increase in induced drag

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13
Q

what is the primary pitch instrument?

A

The altimeter

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14
Q

What should you due when using the compass to turn to a northerly heading in the northern hemisphere?

A

Roll out before the compass reaches the desired heading

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15
Q

What should you do when using the compass to turn to a southerly heading in the northern hemisphere?

A

Roll out after the compass passes the desired heading.

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16
Q

What is the most accurate way to turn to a specific heading without the heading indicator?

A

Using a timed turn

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17
Q

What should you do prior to beinning a timed turn?

A

Determine the accuracy of the turn coordinator. Establish a standard rate indication on the instrument for 30 seconds and determine weather the aircraft turns 90 degrees

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18
Q

How do you determine how long to turn in a timed turn?

A

Divide the degrees of desired heading change by three degrees per second for a standard rate turn. the result in the number of seconds to turn

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19
Q

What does blockage of the ram air inlet and the drain hole cause?

A

It causes the airspeed indicator to react like an altimeter.

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20
Q

What does each dot on the deviation scale refer to with regard to HSI/VOR?

A

2 degrees, or 200 feet per nautical mile

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21
Q

What does an HSI provide that a VOR does not?

A

An HSI provides information about the aircraft’s heading and its relationship to the intended course

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22
Q

How do you determine magnetic bearing to a station?

A

Add magnetic heading (MH) and relative bearing (RB)

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23
Q

What is relative bearing?

A

the angle between the needle and the aircraft nose reference

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24
Q

How accurate is a DME?

A

Within 1/2 mile or 3%, whichever is greater.

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25
Q

How far can a DME be received?

A

In a line of sight distance up to 199 nautical miles

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26
Q

When checking a VOR, what is the maximum permisible error on the ground?

A

+- 4°

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27
Q

When checking a VOR what is the maximum permissible error while airborne?

A

+- 6°

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28
Q

What is the maximum permissible difference allowable when performing a dual VOR check?

A

4°

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29
Q

How is VOR station passage indicated?

A

By the first positive and complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator

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30
Q

How do you determine Magnetic Bearing to the station?

A

MH+RB=MB

Muddy Hole plus Rubber Boots equals Muddy Boots

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31
Q

When is NDB station passage said to occur?

A

When the needle either points to a wingtip or settles at or near the 180 position

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32
Q

What is the maximum permissible deviation of a VOR checked via VOT?

A

+-4°

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33
Q

What does RNAV provide?

A

(Area Navigation) provides the ability to fly direct to your destination without the need to overfly VORs or other ground facilities

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34
Q

What is RAIM and what does it do?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring continuously verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation

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35
Q

What is a non precision instrument runway?

A

A runway used with an instrument approach that does not have an electronic glide slope for approach glide path information.

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36
Q

Describe the ILS.

A

Glideslope - provides vertical guidance. Transmitter is abeam aimping pt. Full scale deflection = 0.7°. Typically 3°. Operates on VHF frequencies paired to localizer
Localizer - provides lateral guidance. Transmitter located beyond departure end of runway. 700’ wide at threshold. Full scale deflection = 2.5°. Service volume = 35° at 10NM, 10° at 18NM
Approach Lighting System - We use a MALSR (medium intensity approach lighting system with runway alignment indicator lights)
Distance Measuring - Either DME, marker beacons, or other (eg GPS)

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37
Q

What might be unique about the taxiway to an ILS runway?

A

The runway might have an ILS hold line to prevent aircraft near the runway from interfering with the ILS signal.

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38
Q

What operations are permitted in a displaced threshold.

A

It depends upon the type of restrictions imposed. Taxi, takeoff, and rollout areas are marked by white arrow leading to the displaced threshold. When landing, you must touch down beyond the displaced threshold. If the displaced threshold is marked with a yellow taxi line leading to it, it can only be used for taxi operations.

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39
Q

How do mandatory instruction signs look?

A

They have white lettering with a red background

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40
Q

What color are displaced threshold lights?

A

Green

41
Q

What does an airport beacon operating during day light hours indicate?

A

Vis less than 3 miles or ceiling less than 1000 feet

42
Q

When is DME required?

A

When operating at or above FL240

43
Q

What are the air traffic control services provided to aircraft operating under IFR flight plans known as?

A

ARTCCs, air route traffic control centers.

44
Q

What type of safety alerts might ARTCC provide?

A

Obstruction alerts, aircraft conflict alerts

45
Q

Define ATIS.

A

Automated Terminal Information System - Continuous recorded broadcast of non-control information that helps decrease frequency congestion

46
Q

When should IFR flight plans be filed?

A

At least 30 minutes prior to departure

47
Q

When are IFR flight plans deleted?

A

IFR plans are generally deleted from the ARTCC computer if not activated within two hours of the proposed departure time

48
Q

What climb rate does ATC expect you to maintain?

A

at least 500fpm to your assigned cruising altitude

if unable to maintain this climb rate, you should notify ATC of your reduced rate of climb.

49
Q

What is required when established on an airway?

A

FAR part 91 specifies that you must fly the centerline of that airway during climb, cruise, and descent.

However, the regulation further provides that you are not prohibited from maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other aircraft in VFR conditions.

50
Q

When are you responsible for collision avoidance?

A

When operating on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions.

51
Q

What will be given if there are delays at your destination?

A

A clearance to a fix short of your desintation. You will be given an expect further clearance (EFC) time.

52
Q

What is a cruise clearance?

A

an authorization to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude without a further clearance. In addition, you may vacate an altitude/flight level within the cruise clearance block of airspace without notifying ATC.

53
Q

What are VFR cruising altitude based on?

A

The magnetic course of the aircraft

54
Q

What is a composite flight plan?

A

A request to operate IFR on one portion of a flight and VFR for another.

55
Q

Define Release time.

A

The earliest time you may depart

56
Q

Define Hold for release.

A

You may not depart until you receive a release time or you are given additional instrucitons

57
Q

Define Clearance void time.

A

Indicates that ATC expects you to be airborne by a certain time.

58
Q

What parts of a clearance are you expected to read back?

A

Altitude assignments, radar vectors, or other instructions that require verification

59
Q

When can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

When experiencing an emergency or the clearance will cause you to violate a rule or regulation

60
Q

What should you do if you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

You should notify ATC as soon as possible. You may be request to submit a written report ot the manager of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

61
Q

What is the purpose of departure charts?

A

They simplify clearance delivery procedures, reduce frequency congestion, ensure obstacle clearance, and control the flow of traffic.

62
Q

By what criteria are IFR departure charts designed?

A

By the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPs)

63
Q

How can you determine the climb rate necessary for a DP from FPNM to FPM?

A

Divide groundspeed by 60 and multiply by the climb gradient.

64
Q

What do DPs provide?

A

a transition between the airport and enroute structure

65
Q

What is the minimum climb gradient of a DP?

A

At least 200 feet per nautical mile

66
Q

What should you do on a DP with instructions to maintain runway heading?

A

Maintain the magnetic heading of the runway centerline

67
Q

What is a vector DP?

A

ATC provides radar navigation guidance. ATC provides vectors to help reach fixes portrayed on the chart

68
Q

What is true regarding climb gradients?

A

They are shown in feet per nautical mile and must be converted to feet per minute for use during departure

69
Q

what are the standard departure minimums?

A

One statute mile visibility for single and twin engine airplanes, one half statute mile for aircraft with more than two engines, no minimums for helicopters (under part 91)

70
Q

What is prevailing visibility?

A

The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personnel can see throughout one half the horizon. This visibility which need not be continuous, is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles and record on the aviation routine weather report (METAR)

71
Q

What is Runway Visibility Value?

A

RVV - the visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the runway. RVV is used in liue of prevailing visibility in determining minimums for a particular runway

72
Q

What is Runway Visual Range?

A

RVR - based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway from the approach end. Reported in hundreds of feet.

73
Q

What is required to fly a DP?

A

You must have the charted procedure of at least the textual description in possession, otherwise file “NO DP” in flight plan

74
Q

What does the V in Victor Airways stand for?

A

It stands for VHF because these airways connect VOR, VOTAC, and VOR/DME stations.

75
Q

What is the width of an airway?

A

Generally, 8 nautical miles, 4 miles on each side of the centerline.

When an airway segment is more than 102 nautical miles long, additional airspace is allocated.

76
Q

How are the distances expressed on enroute charts?

A

Nautical miles

77
Q

How are non-compulsory reporting points depicted on a low enroute chart?

A

Are identified by open triangles, and position reports are not required unless requested by ATC

78
Q

How are compulsory reporting points depicted on a low enroute chart?

A

Identified by a solid triangle, you are required to make position report when you pass over this point.

79
Q

What is the minimum enroute altitude?

A

(MEA) is ordinarily the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that guarantees adequate navigation signal reception and obstruction clearance.

It is normally the lowest altitude you would use during an IFR flight on airways.

80
Q

What is minimum obstruction clearance altitude?

A

(MOCA) on Jepp charts, has letter T following the altitude.

On NOS charts, an asterisk precedes the altitude

81
Q

What is the major difference between an MEA and a MOCA?

A

A MOCA ensures reliable navigation signal only within 22 nautical miles of the facility. Conversely, the MEA ordinarily provides reliable navigation signals throughout the entire segment.

82
Q

What are the basics of minimum altitudes during IFR flight?

A

Remain at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from your intended course. If in a designated mountainous area, minimum altitude is 2,000 and the distance from the course remains the same.

83
Q

What is Maximum Authorized Altitude?

A

MAA - at higher altitudes you might be able to receive two or more VOR stations simultaneously on the same frequency, making the signals unreliable for navigation.

MAA is the highest altitude you can fly based on the line-of-sight transmitting distance of VOR or VORTAC stations using the same frequency. It guarantees that you will only receive on signal at a time on a given frequency

84
Q

Minimum Reception Altitude?

A

Lowest altidue that ensures adequate receiption of the naivation signals forming an intersection or other fix. (MRA)

85
Q

Define MCA.

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude - must begin climbing to this altitude prior to reaching a fix

86
Q

Define MRA.

A

Minimum reception altitude

87
Q

Define MOCA.

A

Minimum obstruction clearance altitude

88
Q

Define MEA.

A

Minimum enroute altitude

89
Q

Define MAA.

A

Maximum authorized altitude

90
Q

Define COP.

A

Change over point, indications when a change must be made in a place other than the midpoint

91
Q

Define RCO.

A

Remote Communication Outlets - set up to provide adequate communication coverage throughout the area served by the center.

92
Q

Define MORA.

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude

93
Q

What should an initial call to center include?

A
  • Facility Ident
  • Aircraft ident-
  • altitude
  • assigned altitude
94
Q

What is required for GPS IFR enroute and terminal area operation?

A
  • GPS
  • Tradition navigation equipment (VOR, DME, TECAN, and/or NDB)
  • All navaids along route of flight must be operational
95
Q

What is the window of an altimeter called?

A

a Kollsman window

96
Q

What is the sensitive element in an altimeter?

A

Bronze aneroid wafers.

97
Q

What is the maximum allowed altimeter error?

A

75 feet

98
Q

14 CFR part 91 requires the altitude transmitted by the transponder—

A

to be within 125 feet of the altitude indicated on the instrument used to maintain flight altitude.

Helicopter Instrument Rating (14 decks)

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