Condensed Study Guide Flashcards

Question

When is an alternate not required?

Answer 1

**1** hr before to 1 hr after **1**000' ceilings or **4**00' higher than lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility is **2**SM | 91.169

Answer 2

At estimated time of arrival, ceiling **2**00' above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and at least **1**SM but never less than the minimum for the approach to be flown. If no IAP, must be able to descend from MEA, approach and land under basic VFR. | 91.169

Answer 3

Destination + 30 min. If alternate is filed, destination + alternate + 30 min | 91.167

Answer 4

**O**DP - Obstacle departure procedure - Text/graphic required, clearance not required but should be advised; provides obstacle clearance for departure to join enroute phase **D**iverse Vector Area - Must be above 400' before crosswind **V**COA - Visual Climb Over Airport - Gain altitude over a small distance or when departing a different direction; Wx must meet ceiling and vis requirements in procedure; Must advise ATC of intent to fly VCOA **V**ectors - ATC controlled **S**ID - Standard Instrument Departure - graphic and clearance/assignment required; provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot/controller workload

Answer 5

**Obstacle Departure Procedure** * Used for obstruction clearance and do not include ATC-related climb requirements * Primary emphasis in design is to use the least restrictive route to the enroute structure or climb to altitude allowing diverse IFR flight * Must be developed when obstacles penetrate the 40:1 departure OCS (obstacle clearance surface) * Default in absence of vectors or SID assignment * Listed in the front of approach chart booklets * Textual or graphical (all newly-developed RNAV ODPs are graphical)

Answer 6

* Provides more efficient use of airspace than ODP allowing ATC to provide random vectors to departing aircraft. * Must be 400' before any turns * Must be able to maintain minimum climb dictated in TPP * ATC responsible for obstacle clearance

Answer 7

* Allows for a climb in visual conditions while circling the airport * Weather must meet ceiling and visibility requirements specified in procedure * Must maintain visual conditions until reaching "at or above" altitude * Must advise ATC of intent to fly VCOA

Answer 8

The lowest initial altitude to be flown. Best practice dictates we should use whole altitudes that abide IFR basic altitudes (E = odd, W = even)

Answer 9

Only if you are cleared straight in

Answer 10

**Standard Instrument Departure** * provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot and controller workload * only printed graphically in TPP * assigned by ATC in clearance, must have procedure chart * may include transition to enroute phase

Answer 11

* Flight and Nav Equipment (GRABCARDD) * Miscellaneous requirements - eg. ice protection * Stability/autopilot - SAS, ATT, APs, FDs * Helicopter flight manual limitations - IFR speeds, weight and CG limits, max approach angle, system limitations and testing requirements * operations specifications - more restrictive requirements based on the type of operation to be flown * MEL

Answer 12

* If a straight in approach clearance is given * If on a DME arc * If given radar vectors to final * If "NoPT" is published on chart * Making a timed approach from the fix

Answer 13

40NM up to 10,000'

Answer 14

* From 1000' to 5000' - 40NM * From 5000' to 18,000' - 70NM

Answer 15

From 1000' to 5000' - 40NM * From 5000' to 14,500' - 70NM * From 14,500' to FL180 - 100NM * From FL180 to FL450 - 130NM * From FL450 to FL600 - 100NM

Answer 16

1° in 60mi rule equates to 2NM

Answer 17

* 4x * full scale deflection is 2.5 degrees off center

Answer 18

* 35° w/in 10NM * 10° w/in 18NM

Answer 19

At the departure end of the runway

Answer 20

Abeam the aiming point

Answer 21

at the FAF

Answer 22

Usually 3500' from the runway, at decision height

Answer 23

indicates decision height for Cat II approach

Answer 24

* 350' either side of runway * .3NM either side of FAF

Answer 25

.3NM either side of runway and FAF

Answer 26

**Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring** A 5th GPS satellite is used to cross check the position determined from the other 4. If a fault is detected in the position information from one of the satellites, it is excluded by the receiver.

Answer 27

**Wide Area Augmentation System** GPS receivers with this augmentation use signals from ground stations to improve accuracy of satellite signals. WAAS GPS units can provide accurate vertical position and can be used for all approaches with vertical guidance. RAIM coverage is not required with WAAS is available

Answer 28

**Localizer Performace with Vertical** provides both lateral and vertical guidance, and terminates at DA, similar to ILS, requires WAAS to simulate more precise lateral guidance similar to localizer

Answer 29

**Lateral and Vertical Navigation** Provides lateral and vertical guidance and terminates at DA, but does not require WAAS because it uses an external source like baro-assist for vertical

Answer 30

**Localizer Performance** Uses WAAS to simulate more precise lateral course but does not have vertical guidance like an LPV, terminates in MDA

Answer 31

**Lateral Navigation** Basic type of GPS approach that only provides lateral navigation, though not as precise as localizer performance, terminates in MDA

Answer 32

**Lateral Navigation plus Vertical** Uses WAAS to compute an advisory glidepath on approaches with only LNAV minimums. Not an official type of approach and does not provide official vertical guidance. Terminates in MDA

Answer 33

**Approach with Vertical Guidance** GPS approaches with both lateral and vertical guidance, flown similar to a precision approach like an ILS and terminates at DA, but not strictly defined as precision approaches for purposes of alternate planning

Answer 34

**Required Navigation Performance** A set of standards for an RNAV system like a GPS to have certain performance requirements, which can be monitored onboard (such as using RAIM or WAAS). Most WAAS enabled IFR GPS units can perform to an RNP APCH spec, which has a lateral accuracy of 1NM in the terminal phase, scaling to .3 in the final approach

Answer 35

**L**eans **E**levator illusion **G**raveyard spiral **S**omatogravic **I**nversion **C**oriolis illusion

Answer 36

When a banked attitude may be intered too slowly to set in motion the fluid in the roll semicircular canals. An abrupt correction sets the fluid in motion, creating the illusion of a bank in the direction of correction

Answer 37

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration can stimulate the otolith organs to create the illusion of being in a climb. An abrupt downward acceleration as the opposite effect

Answer 38

A pilot in a prolonged coordinated, constant-rate turn will have the illusion of not turning. During recovery to level flight, they experience a sensation of turning in the opposite direction. Because an aircraft tends to lose altitude in turns unless pilot compensates for loss in lift, the aircraft begins to descend. Absence of any turning sensation causes the pilot to pull back on the controls, which tigthens the spiral and increases loss of altitude

Answer 39

A rapid acceleration stimulates the otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards, creating the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude. A rapid deceleration can have the opposite effect.

Answer 40

An ubrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can cause an illusion of tumbling backwards. Of significant concern in the Robinson due to Low G hazards

Answer 41

When in a turn long enough for the fluid in the ear canal to move at the same speed as the canal, a movement of the head in a different plane sets the fluid moving and creates the illusion of turning or accelerating in an entirely different axis, causing the pilot to think the aircraft is doing a maneuver it is not.

Answer 42

**F**licker vertigo **F**alse horizon **A**utokinesis **R**unway width **R**unway slope **M**yopia **B**lack hole approach

Answer 43

A light flickering at a rate between 4 and 20 cycles/sec can produce unpleasant and dangerous reactions including nausea, vomiting, vertigo, convulsions or unconsciousness

Answer 44

Can occur when the natural horizon is obscured/not readily apparent. Can be caused by confusing bright stars and city lights. Can also be caused by flying towardd the shore, because the relative darkness of the water causes the lights along the shoreline to be confused for stars in the sky.

Answer 45

Caused by staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few seconds. After a few moments, the light appears to move on it's own.

Answer 46

When flying above the clouds or haze, with nothing specific to focus on, the eyes relax and seek a comfortable focal distance ranging from 10-30 ft. Causes looking without seeing