Condensed Study Guide Flashcards
What are the ceiling and visibility requirements for the different flight categories?
What are the aircraft approach categories and their limitations?
A: 0-90 kts, 1.3 NM circling radius
B: 91-120 kts, 1.5 NM
C: 121-140 kts, 1.7 NM
D: 141-165 kts, 2.3 NM
E: >165 kts, 4.5 NM
What is the standard rate of turn?
3°/sec
(TAS/10+5)
When compass flying, if given new heading within 30°, use time. If > 30°, use compass
What are the values on the CDI?
2° per dot, 10° full scale
No more than 3/4 deflection allowed per ACS
What are the standard rates for climb and descent?
+/- 500 fpm at 60 kts
Descent Rate: 3° glide path
* GS/2, add a zero, +/- 50
What do the different colors of airports on a low enroute chart mean?
Green: airport has an approved instrument approach and/or Radar Minima published either in US TPPs or DoD FLIPs
Blue: airport has an approved instrument approach and/or Radar Minima published in DoD FLIPs
Brown: airport does not have a published instrument approach procedure or radar minima
Black: Foreign airports
How are timed turns (standard rate turns) executed?
3°/sec
* 1 min = 180°
* 2 min = 360°
What are the 3 scanning errors?
- Fixation
- Emphasis
- Omission
What information must be briefed before flight?
NOTAMS (TFRs)
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths of intended use, airport info
Alternates if the flight cannot be completed as planned
Fuel requirements +30min
Takeoff/Performance Data
What is the pre- Final Approach Fix checklist?
Wx
Radios/freqs
Instruments and lights
Minimums
Time?
Identify/toggle nav aids
Missed approach procedures
What are the required inspections for IFR flight?
Service Bulletins
ADs
Life-limited parts
Time-limited parts
Hundred hour if for hire
Annual
Transponder (24 mo)
ELT (12 mo)
Pitot Static (24 mo)
GPS (28 days)
VOR (30 days)
* VOT - listed in chart supplement (+/-4°)
* Own - > 20NM pt @ reasonably low altitude on radial (+/-6°)
* Dual - tuned to same frequency (w/in 4° of eachother)
* Ground - location at airport (+/-4°)
* Air - airborne checkpoint (+/-6°)
91.171
What are the required contents of a position report?
Identity
Position
Time
Altitude
Type of flight plan
ETA to next waypoint
Name of next waypoint
AIM 5-3-3
What are the contents of an IFR departure clearance?
Clearance Limit
Route
Altitudes
Frequencies
Transponder Code
EFC time as required
What are the IFR obstacle clearance requirements?
Mountainous Terrain
2000’ above highest obstacle w/in 4NM of course
Non-mountainous Terrain
1000’ above highest obstacle w/in 4NM of course
What category 1 minima are helicopters allowed to use?
Visibility minimums may be reduced to 1/2 the published minimums for category A aircraft, to not less than 1/4SM or 1200’ RVR
These do not apply to copter approaches
97.3
What are the instrument recency of experience requirements?
6 instrument approaches w/in previous 6 caledar months, as well as Holding, Intercepting, and Tracking
- If these are not met, you have 6 additional months to complete these approaches with a safety pilot
- After 12 months you must take an instrument proficiency check with an instructor, DPE or a company check pilot
61.57
What are the IFR required reports?
VFR on top
Airspeed +/- 10kts or 5% of filed
Climb or descent < 500’/min
Missed approach
Equipment failure
Weather (unforecasted)
Altitude changes
Safety of flight information
Hold - reaching or departing
Non-Radar Environment
Compulsory
Outer Marker
Final Appproach Fix
Flight plan waypoints
ETA +/- 2 min
What contents are required in a failed equipment report?
Degree of Impairment
Equipment Malfunctioning
Aircraft ID
Nature of assistance required
What are the required contents of a VOR test log entry?
Signature
Place
Error
Date
What is required to descend from DA/MDA?
Visibility
Approach Lights - may not descend below 100’ above TDZE unless red terminating bars or red side row bars are visible and identifiable
Normal approach configuration
Environment - Runway and airport (paint/pavement/lights)
91.175
What are the benefits of flying IFR?
- Ability to fly in weather conditions that would otherwise be disallowed for VFR flight
- Priority routing
- Ability to fly in more restrictive airspace
What is required to log an instrument approach in IFR conditions?
Must fly past the FAF
What errors and limitations are associated with VOR navigation?
- In helicopters, +/- 6° fluctuation from rotors
- Limited to line of sight
- Cone of confusion - 1NM out / 1NM up
- Reverse sensing
- Service volumes
- Must be identified
What are the types of instrument approach procedures?
Precision
Precision Approach Radar
ILS
GBAS Landing System
Microwave Landing System
Transponder landing system - ground transponder at airport, requires special training
Non-Precision
RNAV
NDB/ADF
Approach Surveillance Radar
VOR
Localizer
Localizer-type Directional Aid
SDF - localizer-based Simplified Directional Facility
APV
* Does not meet precision standards but does provide lateral and vertical guidance
Visual Approach
* ATC or pilot requested
* Must maintain Clear of Clouds / 1000’ ceilings / 3 SM vis
* airport or runway environment must be in sight, or following an A/C in
Contact Approach
* Pilot requested only
* Must maintain 1 SM vis / Clear of Clouds
* Must be at an airport with a published IAP
* Pilot is responsible for obstacle avoidance
When is an alternate not required?
1 hr before to 1 hr after 1000’ ceilings or 400’ higher than lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility is 2SM
91.169
What weather must be forecasted to use an airport as an alternate?
At estimated time of arrival, ceiling 200’ above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and at least 1SM but never less than the minimum for the approach to be flown.
If no IAP, must be able to descend from MEA, approach and land under basic VFR.
91.169
What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight?
Destination + 30 min. If alternate is filed, destination + alternate + 30 min
91.167
What are the types of instrument departures?
ODP - Obstacle departure procedure - Text/graphic required, clearance not required but should be advised; provides obstacle clearance for departure to join enroute phase
Diverse Vector Area - Must be above 400’ before crosswind
VCOA - Visual Climb Over Airport - Gain altitude over a small distance or when departing a different direction; Wx must meet ceiling and vis requirements in procedure; Must advise ATC of intent to fly VCOA
Vectors - ATC controlled
SID - Standard Instrument Departure - graphic and clearance/assignment required; provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot/controller workload
What is an ODP?
Obstacle Departure Procedure
* Used for obstruction clearance and do not include ATC-related climb requirements
* Primary emphasis in design is to use the least restrictive route to the enroute structure or climb to altitude allowing diverse IFR flight
* Must be developed when obstacles penetrate the 40:1 departure OCS (obstacle clearance surface)
* Default in absence of vectors or SID assignment
* Listed in the front of approach chart booklets
* Textual or graphical (all newly-developed RNAV ODPs are graphical)
What is a DVA (Diverse Vector Area)?
- Provides more efficient use of airspace than ODP allowing ATC to provide random vectors to departing aircraft.
- Must be 400’ before any turns
- Must be able to maintain minimum climb dictated in TPP
- ATC responsible for obstacle clearance
What is a Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA)?
- Allows for a climb in visual conditions while circling the airport
- Weather must meet ceiling and visibility requirements specified in procedure
- Must maintain visual conditions until reaching “at or above” altitude
- Must advise ATC of intent to fly VCOA
What altitude should be filed in your IFR flight plan?
The lowest initial altitude to be flown. Best practice dictates we should use whole altitudes that abide IFR basic altitudes (E = odd, W = even)
What is the maximum approach course interception angle for helicopters?
45°
If you are being vectored to approach and you are cleared for the approach but there is a procedure turn/hold in lieu of procedure turn, can you skip these parts of the procedure and proceed straight in?
Only if you are cleared straight in
What is a SID?
Standard Instrument Departure
- provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot and controller workload
- only printed graphically in TPP
- assigned by ATC in clearance, must have procedure chart
- may include transition to enroute phase
What are the categories of requirements for a helicopter to be certified for IFR?
- Flight and Nav Equipment (GRABCARDD)
- Miscellaneous requirements - eg. ice protection
- Stability/autopilot - SAS, ATT, APs, FDs
- Helicopter flight manual limitations - IFR speeds, weight and CG limits, max approach angle, system limitations and testing requirements
- operations specifications - more restrictive requirements based on the type of operation to be flown
- MEL
When are you not required to perform a procedure turn or hold-in-lieu of procedure turn?
- If a straight in approach clearance is given
- If on a DME arc
- If given radar vectors to final
- If “NoPT” is published on chart
- Making a timed approach from the fix
What is the service volume for Low Altitude VOR (L)?
40NM up to 10,000’
What is the service volume for VOR Low (VL)?
- From 1000’ to 5000’ - 40NM
- From 5000’ to 18,000’ - 70NM
What is the service volume for VOR High (VH)?
From 1000’ to 5000’ - 40NM
* From 5000’ to 14,500’ - 70NM
* From 14,500’ to FL180 - 100NM
* From FL180 to FL450 - 130NM
* From FL450 to FL600 - 100NM
If you are 60NM from the station and you have 2 degrees deflection (edge of donut), how far off course are you?
1° in 60mi rule equates to 2NM
How much more sensitive is the localizer than a VOR?
- 4x
- full scale deflection is 2.5 degrees off center
What is the horizontal distance of a full-scale deflection of the localizer at runway threshold?
700’
What is the service volume of the localizer?
- 35° w/in 10NM
- 10° w/in 18NM
Where is the localizer usually located on the airfield?
At the departure end of the runway
Where is the glideslope transmitter usually located on the airfield?
Abeam the aiming point
What is full scale deflection of the glideslope?
0.7°
Where is the Outer Marker located?
at the FAF
Where is the middle marker located?
Usually 3500’ from the runway, at decision height
Where is the inner marker located?
indicates decision height for Cat II approach
What is the Localizer performance course width (for LPV and LP approaches with WAAS enabled GPS)?
- 350’ either side of runway
- .3NM either side of FAF
What is the LNAV navigational course width?
.3NM either side of runway and FAF
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
A 5th GPS satellite is used to cross check the position determined from the other 4. If a fault is detected in the position information from one of the satellites, it is excluded by the receiver.
What is WAAS?
Wide Area Augmentation System
GPS receivers with this augmentation use signals from ground stations to improve accuracy of satellite signals. WAAS GPS units can provide accurate vertical position and can be used for all approaches with vertical guidance. RAIM coverage is not required with WAAS is available
What is LPV?
Localizer Performace with Vertical
provides both lateral and vertical guidance, and terminates at DA, similar to ILS, requires WAAS to simulate more precise lateral guidance similar to localizer
What is LNAV/VNAV?
Lateral and Vertical Navigation
Provides lateral and vertical guidance and terminates at DA, but does not require WAAS because it uses an external source like baro-assist for vertical
What is LP?
Localizer Performance
Uses WAAS to simulate more precise lateral course but does not have vertical guidance like an LPV, terminates in MDA
What is LNAV?
Lateral Navigation
Basic type of GPS approach that only provides lateral navigation, though not as precise as localizer performance, terminates in MDA
What is LNAV+V?
Lateral Navigation plus Vertical
Uses WAAS to compute an advisory glidepath on approaches with only LNAV minimums. Not an official type of approach and does not provide official vertical guidance. Terminates in MDA
What is APV?
Approach with Vertical Guidance
GPS approaches with both lateral and vertical guidance, flown similar to a precision approach like an ILS and terminates at DA, but not strictly defined as precision approaches for purposes of alternate planning
What is RNP?
Required Navigation Performance
A set of standards for an RNAV system like a GPS to have certain performance requirements, which can be monitored onboard (such as using RAIM or WAAS). Most WAAS enabled IFR GPS units can perform to an RNP APCH spec, which has a lateral accuracy of 1NM in the terminal phase, scaling to .3 in the final approach
What are the vestibular illusions?
Leans
Elevator illusion
Graveyard spiral
Somatogravic
Inversion
Coriolis illusion
Define the leans as a vestibular illusion.
When a banked attitude may be intered too slowly to set in motion the fluid in the roll semicircular canals. An abrupt correction sets the fluid in motion, creating the illusion of a bank in the direction of correction
Describe elevator illusion.
An abrupt upward vertical acceleration can stimulate the otolith organs to create the illusion of being in a climb. An abrupt downward acceleration as the opposite effect
Describe the graveyard spiral illusion.
A pilot in a prolonged coordinated, constant-rate turn will have the illusion of not turning. During recovery to level flight, they experience a sensation of turning in the opposite direction. Because an aircraft tends to lose altitude in turns unless pilot compensates for loss in lift, the aircraft begins to descend. Absence of any turning sensation causes the pilot to pull back on the controls, which tigthens the spiral and increases loss of altitude
Define somatogravic illusion.
A rapid acceleration stimulates the otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards, creating the illusion of being in a nose-up attitude. A rapid deceleration can have the opposite effect.
Define inversion illusion.
An ubrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can cause an illusion of tumbling backwards. Of significant concern in the Robinson due to Low G hazards
Define coriolis illusion.
When in a turn long enough for the fluid in the ear canal to move at the same speed as the canal, a movement of the head in a different plane sets the fluid moving and creates the illusion of turning or accelerating in an entirely different axis, causing the pilot to think the aircraft is doing a maneuver it is not.
What are the visual illusions?
Flicker vertigo
False horizon
Autokinesis
Runway width
Runway slope
Myopia
Black hole approach
Define flicker vertigo.
A light flickering at a rate between 4 and 20 cycles/sec can produce unpleasant and dangerous reactions including nausea, vomiting, vertigo, convulsions or unconsciousness
Define false horizon.
Can occur when the natural horizon is obscured/not readily apparent. Can be caused by confusing bright stars and city lights. Can also be caused by flying towardd the shore, because the relative darkness of the water causes the lights along the shoreline to be confused for stars in the sky.
Define autokinesis.
Caused by staring at a single point of light against a dark background for more than a few seconds. After a few moments, the light appears to move on it’s own.
Define Myopia.
When flying above the clouds or haze, with nothing specific to focus on, the eyes relax and seek a comfortable focal distance ranging from 10-30 ft. Causes looking without seeing
