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Private Pilot > Jeppesen Ch 2 > Flashcards

Jeppesen Ch 2 Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Fuselage

A

Provides room for cargo and attachment points for other major airplane components; cabin or cockpit is located in the fuselage

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2
Q

Ailerons

A

Control surfaces on the wings which move in opposite directions when the control wheel is moved, creating aerodynamic forces which roll the airplane in and out of turns

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3
Q

Flaps

A

Control surfaces located on the inner portion of an airplane’s wing, which can be extended to increase the wing’s lift

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4
Q

Empennage

A

The section of the airplane that consists of the vertical stabilizer, the horizontal stabilizer, and the associated control surfaces

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5
Q

Vertical Stabilizer

A

The portion of the empennage to which the rudder is attached. Assists with maintaining a straight path through the air

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6
Q

Horizontal Stabilizer

A

The portion of the empennage containing the elevator/stabilator. Assists with maintaining a straight path through the air

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7
Q

Rudder

A

Attached to the back of the vertical stabilizer, it creates aerodynamic forces which move the nose to the left or right. Operated using foot pedals

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8
Q

Elevator

A

Attached to the back of the horizontal stabilizer, it adjusts when you push forward or pull back on the control wheel, causing the plane to pitch up or down

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9
Q

Stabilator

A

A one-piece horizontal stabilizer which pivots entirely on a central hinge point

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10
Q

Trim Tab

A

A portion of the elevator/stabilator which can be adjusted to help keep the control surface in the desired position

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11
Q

Anti-Servo Tab

A

A tab which provides more feedback to the controls, preventing “over-controlling” the airplane

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12
Q

Oleo Strut

A

A shock absorber which uses oil and compressed air to minimize bumps during landing and taxiing

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13
Q

Differential Braking

A

Applying brakes mostly or only on one side to assist with turning the airplane during taxiing

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14
Q

Powerplant

A

In small airplanes, consists of the engine and propeller

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15
Q

Firewall

A

Component between the engine compartment and the cockpit which protects aircraft occupants and serves as a mounting point for the engine

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16
Q

Propeller

A

Mounted on the front of the airplane, translates the rotational force of the engine into forward thrust

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17
Q

Pilot’s Operating Handbook

A

Material which contains most of the pertinent information about a particular make and model of airplane

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18
Q

Airworthiness Directive

A

Requirements issued by the FAA when conditions are found which might make an aircraft unsafe to operate despite previous certification of airworthiness. The AD will specify repairs, maintenance, inspections, or limitations which are required to ensure the aircraft is flown safely

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19
Q

Kinds of Operations Equipment List

A

A list which specifies which equipment is required for different types of aircraft operation, such as day vs night and VFR vs IFR

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20
Q

FAA Approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM)

A

Operating manual for an individual airplane which must be accessible by the pilot during flight. Usually the POH for the aircraft.

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21
Q

What is the primary difference between monocoque and semi-monocoque aircraft construction?

A

The monocoque uses the skin to support almost all imposed loads while the semi-monocoque uses a substructure attached to the skin to maintain the shape of the airframe and increase its strength

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22
Q

When you move the control wheel to the left, which way do the ailerons move?

A

The left aileron moves up and the right aileron moves down

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23
Q

True or False? The rudder is located on the horizontal stabilizer

A

False, the rudder is located on the vertical stabilizer

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24
Q

What is the purpose of trim devices?

A

Trim devices aerodynamically help move a control surface or maintain the surface in the desired position

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25
Q

An airplane with a wheel mounted on the tail is equipped with what type of landing gear?

A

Tailwheel or conventional

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26
Q

In addition to providing power to turn the propeller, what other functions does the engine in a typical training airplane perform?

A

Generate electrical power for accessories, provide vacuum power for some flight instruments, and provide heat for the pilot and passengers

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27
Q

Which of the following is required to be in the aircraft during all flight operations? A: Pilot’s information manual (PIM) B: Pilot’s operating handbook (POH) C: Airplane flight manual (AFM)

A

C: Airplane flight manual (AFM)

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28
Q

Which of the following is required to be in the aircraft during all flight operations? A: Pilot’s information manual (PIM) B: Pilot’s operating handbook (POH) C: Airplane flight manual (AFM)

A

C: Airplane flight manual (AFM)

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29
Q

An aircraft’s annual inspection was performed on June 13, this year. When is the next annual inspection due?

A

June 30, next year

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30
Q

A 100-hour inspection was due at 2202.5 hours on the tachometer. The 100-hour inspection was performed at 2209.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

A

2302.5 hours, 100 hours after the original due time

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31
Q

You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. What four requirements must you check to determine if the equipment must be operational for this flight?

A

Determine if the inoperative equipment is required by: - The VFR-day type certificate requirements prescribed in the airworthiness certification regulations - FAR 91.205 for the specific kind of flight operation or by other flight rules for the specific kind of flight to be conducted - The aircraft’s equipment list or the kinds of operations equipment list (KOEL) - An airworthiness directive (AD)

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32
Q

Turbine Engine

A

An engine which uses rotation to pass fuel through the four stages of the operating cycle in such a way that all four are occurring simultaneously, but in different places in the engine

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33
Q

Reciprocating Engine

A

An engine which functions by the force of pistons moving in and out of cylinders where combustion occurs

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34
Q

Four-Stroke Operating Cycle

A

Intake: Fuel/air mixture is drawn into the piston (or turbine) Compression: The mixture is compressed Power: The gases are ignited and expand Exhaust: The byproducts of combustion are expelled

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35
Q

Throttle

A

Controls engine power by regulating the amount of fuel/air mixture that flows into the cylinders

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36
Q

Mixture

A

The ratio of fuel and air entering the engine

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37
Q

Intake Port

A

An opening which allows air to enter to be mixed with fuel entering the engine

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38
Q

Carburetor

A

A component in many engines where fuel and air are mixed

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39
Q

Carburetor Ice

A

Ice which forms on the inside of the carburetor due to the temperature drop created by the fuel vaporization and pressure decrease. If left unchecked, carb ice can slow or stop the flow of fuel to the engine

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40
Q

Carburetor Heat

A

A system designed to counter the buildup of carburetor ice by allowing air to be warmed by the exhaust system before entering the carburetor

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41
Q

Fuel Injection

A

A type of engine system in which, instead of using a carburetor to vaporize fuel and mix it with air, fuel is injected directly into the cylinders and vaporizes inside the engine

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42
Q

Supercharger

A

Compresses incoming air using a pump driven by the engine to obtain sea-level performance even at higher altitudes

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43
Q

Turbocharger

A

Pressurizes air using a mechanism driven by engine exhaust gases, to obtain sea-level performance even at higher altitudes

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44
Q

Magneto

A

A self-contained, engine-driven unit that supplies electrical current to the spark plugs using a permanent magnet

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45
Q

Ignition Switch

A

A switch, controlled by the key, which starts the engine and controls which magnetos are operating

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46
Q

Detonation

A

An uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber, which causes excessive temperatures and pressures and can lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves

47
Q

Preignition

A

A condition in which the fuel/air mixture is ignited before the normal timed ignition, caused by a residual hot spot in the cylinder

48
Q

Fuel-Pump System

A

A system in which an engine-driven pump provides fuel under pressure from the fuel tanks to the engine

49
Q

Fuel Pressure Gauge

A

Indicator of fuel pressure within a fuel pump system

50
Q

Vapor Lock

A

Condition caused when high engine temperatures cause bubbles of fuel vapor to form in the fuel lines or fuel pump, disrupting the flow of fuel to the engine

51
Q

Gravity-Feed System

A

A system in which fuel from high-wing tanks flows by the force of gravity to the engine

52
Q

Fuel Selector Valve

A

A control which allows the pilot to select which tank is currently supplying fuel to the engine

53
Q

Fuel Strainer

A

Removes moisture and other sediments which may be in the fuel system before supplying the fuel to the engine

54
Q

Dry-Sump System

A

System in which oil is contained in a separate tank and circulated by pumps through the engine

55
Q

Wet-Sump System

A

System in which the oil sump is an integral part of the engine and oil returns to the sump after circulating through the engine

56
Q

Cowl Flaps

A

Flaps which can open to allow extra airflow for cooling the engine

57
Q

Cylinder Head Temperature Gauge

A

Indicator which provides a direct temperature reading from one of the cylinders

58
Q

Fixed-Pitch Propeller

A

Propeller with a blade angle which is set and cannot be changed by the pilot

59
Q

Climb Propeller

A

A fixed-pitch propeller which is optimized for climb performance

60
Q

Cruise Propeller

A

A fixed-pitch propeller which is optimized for cruise performance

61
Q

Constant-Speed Propeller

A

A propeller on which the blade angle is adjustable

62
Q

Propeller Control

A

Control used to adjust the pitch of propeller blades on a constant-speed propeller

63
Q

Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

A

A computer with associated systems which manage the aircraft’s engine and propeller

64
Q

Alternator

A

A system which creates electrical energy for instruments from the engine

65
Q

Ammeter

A

Indicator showing if the alternator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power

66
Q

Loadmeter

A

Indicator showing the total percentage of electrical load placed on the generating capacity of the electrical system

67
Q

Master Switch

A

Controls the entire electrical system except for the ignition system

68
Q

Standby Battery

A

A battery isolated from the main electrical system by a relay or switch which can power essential electrical equipment for a limited time after failure of the main electrical system

69
Q

As an airplane climbs, do you enrich or lean the mixture to maintain an optimum fuel/air ratio?

A

Lean the mixture

70
Q

What is your first indication of carburetor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller?

A

Decrease in engine RPM

71
Q

Explain why an engine equipped with a fuel injection system is less susceptible to induction icing than one equipped with a float-type carburetor

A

The fuel vaporization that happens in the carburetor causes a substantial temperature drop. Since the fuel injection system introduces fuel directly to the hot cylinders, icing is unlikely to happen

72
Q

The uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber describes which type of abnormal combustion?

A

Detonation

73
Q

What actions can you take while airborne to help correct for detonation?

A

Attempt to lower the cylinder temperature. - Reduce power - Enrich mixture - Lower nose to increase airspeed and cooling airflow

74
Q

Select the true statement regarding fuel systems: A: High- and low-wing airplanes with a carburetor typically have gravity-feed systems B: An electric fuel pump provides fuel under pressure to the fuel control unit after engine start C: A fuel-pump system is used in airplanes with fuel injection systems to provide sufficient pressure to the injector nozzles

A

C: A fuel-pump system is used in airplanes with fuel injection systems to provide sufficient pressure to the injector nozzles

75
Q

True/False: If the fuel grade specified for your airplane is not available, you can use a higher grade of fuel

A

True

76
Q

Describe at least two functions performed by the engine oil system

A
  • Lubricating the engine’s moving parts
  • Cooling the engine by reducing friction and wicking heat away
  • Providing a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons
  • Carrying away contaminants (removed by oil filter)
77
Q

If a constant-speed propeller is set to a high RPM, will the blade pitch (angle) be high or low?

A

Low

78
Q

True/False: To prevent internal engine damage in an airplane equipped with a constant-speed propeller, you should avoid low RPM settings with a high manifold pressure

A

True

79
Q

Immediately after engine start, you notice that the ammeter shows a discharge. Is this normal?

A

No. The ammeter should initially show a charge because the battery power used to start the engine is being replaced.

80
Q

International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)

A

Standard conditions used as a reference for certain flight instruments and airplane performance data

81
Q

Standard Lapse Rates

A

Approximate adjustments for temperature and pressure based on elevation Pressure: 1” Hg per 1000’ Temperature: 2 degrees C per 1000’

82
Q

Pitot Tube

A

Pressure-sensitive device which measures impact or ram air pressure

83
Q

Static Port

A

An opening in a relatively sheltered location on the plane, used to measure air pressure independent of the effects of movement through the air

84
Q

V-speeds

A

Airspeed limitations for various maneuvers and operations

85
Q

Indicated Altitude

A

Altitude as measured by the altimeter

86
Q

Pressure Altitude

A

Height above the standard pressure level of 29.92” Hg. Obtained by setting 29.92 in the barometric pressure window and reading the altimeter

87
Q

Density Altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

88
Q

Calibrated Altitude

A

Indicated altitude corrected to compensate for installation and instrument errors

89
Q

True Altitude

A

The actual height of an object above mean sea level

90
Q

Absolute Altitude

A

Actual height above the surface of the earth, either land or water

91
Q

Rigidity In Space

A

A wheel spun rapidly will remain in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning

92
Q

Precession

A

Tilting or turning of a gyro in response to pressure

93
Q

Slip

A

A turn in which the rate of turn is too slow for the angle of bank, and the ball moves to the inside of the turn

94
Q

Skid

A

A turn in which the rate of turn is too great for the angle of bank, and the ball moves to the outside of the turn

95
Q

Variation (heading)

A

The difference between the true and magnetic poles at a given point

96
Q

Deviation (heading)

A

Compass error that occurs due to disturbances from magnetic fields produced by metals and electrical accessories within the airplane

97
Q

Magnetic Dip

A

The downward pull of the Earth’s magnetic field on a compass when near the magnetic poles

98
Q

Integrated Flight Display

A

Digital flight instruments integrated into a single display (part of a glass cockpit)

99
Q

Primary Flight Display (PFD)

A

An integrated flight display containing digital versions of traditional analog flight instruments including airspeed, altimeter, VSI, and attitude indicator

100
Q

Multifunction Flight Display (MFD)

A

An integrated flight display containing secondary information such as map, airport, terrain, and weather data

101
Q

Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS)

A

A system which uses inertial sensors such as electronic gyroscopes and accelerometers to determine the aircraft’s attitude relative to the horizon, used in integrated flight displays

102
Q

Magnetometer

A

A device which senses the magnetic field as a magnetic compass would, but using electronic means of detecting the magnetic lines of force

103
Q

Slip/Skid Indicator

A

An indicator below the roll pointer in many integrated flight displays which indicates whether the airplane is in a coordinated turn or is slipping/skidding

104
Q

Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)

A

A component of an integrated flight display which indicates the current heading

105
Q

Turn Rate Indicator

A

Index marks on the heading indication in an integrated flight display which assist with making standard-rate turns

106
Q

Trend Vector

A

An indicator in integrated flight displays which shows what the heading will be in six seconds given the current rate of turn

107
Q

Air Data Computer (ADC)

A

A computer which, in integrated flight displays, takes information from the pitot tube, static source, and outside air temperature probe to determine appropriate readings for airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

108
Q

What is the atmospheric pressure and temperature at sea level in a standard atmosphere?

A

29.92” Hg 15 C

109
Q

Pitot pressure is used by which flight instrument(s)?

A

Airspeed indicator only

110
Q

Which important airspeed limitation changes with aircraft weight and is not depicted on the airspeed indicator?

A

Maneuvering speed (VA)

111
Q

You fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure but do not reset your altimeter. Will the altimeter read too high or too low? Why?

A

Too high. The altimeter will sense the decrease in pressure as an increase in altitude

112
Q

What will be the effect on the airspeed indicator if the static system becomes clogged but the pitot system remains unobstructed?

A

At altitudes above where the static system became clogged, the airspeed will indicate too low, and vice versa

113
Q

What type of movement is shown by the attitude indicator but not by the turn coordinator?

A

Pitch

114
Q

True or False? If you accelerate an airplane in the northern hemisphere on a heading of east, your compass will indicate a turn to the south

A

False

Private Pilot (8 decks)

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